donale paine
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

study material for qc

29
0
0
donale paine
Created by donale paine over 8 years ago
Close

Flight Chief QC 2015

Flight Chief QC 2015

Question 1 of 107

1

. The Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program ensures personnel ______ and ______ nuclear weapons and nuclear weapons systems to satisfy the safety standards?

Select one of the following:

  • design and operate

  • control and limit

  • secure and design

  • operate and control

Explanation

Question 2 of 107

1

What Department of Defense (DoD) Directive governs the Nuclear Weapon System Safety Program?

Select one of the following:

  • Directive 3150.2

  • Directive 3150.3

  • Directive 3151.1

  • Directive 3105.2

Explanation

Question 3 of 107

1

Which DoD safety standard is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • There shall be positive measures to prevent nuclear weapons involved in accidents or incidents, or jettisoned weapons, from producing a nuclear yield.

  • There shall be positive measures to prevent INADVERTENT prearming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons, except upon execution of emergency war orders or when directed by competent authority.

  • There shall be positive measures to prevent DELIBERATE prearming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons in all normal and credible abnormal environments.

  • There shall be positive measures to ensure adequate security of nuclear weapons, pursuant to DODM S-5210.41-R_AFI31-108V1

Explanation

Question 4 of 107

1

Which PL resource does the following reflect? “Limited funding dictates our most important national defense assets receive the greater share of available SF resources"

Select one of the following:

  • PL 1

  • PL 2

  • PL 3

  • PL 4

Explanation

Question 5 of 107

1

The appropriate level of security for a PL 1 resource will?

Select one of the following:

  • Result in the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts.

  • Result in significant deterrence against hostile acts

  • Result in a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts.

  • Reduce the opportunity for theft of or damage to resources.

Explanation

Question 6 of 107

1

Mission essential communications facilities and computer centers, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON) facilities, to include off installation navigational aids and related resources, control towers, power plants, and environmental control systems critical to operational capability are all an example of what PL resource?

Select one of the following:

  • PL 4

  • PL 3

  • PL 2

  • PL 1

Explanation

Question 7 of 107

1

The DoD FPCON System describes the _______ level of protective measures that are implemented by all the DoD Components in _______ of or in _______ to a terrorist threat or attack.

Select one of the following:

  • progressive, anticipation, response

  • increased, anticipation, expectation

  • improved, prospect, suspense

  • increased, response, prospect

Explanation

Question 8 of 107

1

Which FPCON applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture?

Select one of the following:

  • Normal

  • Alpha

  • Bravo

  • Charlie

Explanation

Question 9 of 107

1

Which measures in this FPCON must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?

Select one of the following:

  • Alpha

  • Bravo

  • Charlie

  • Normal

Explanation

Question 10 of 107

1

This FPCON applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?

Select one of the following:

  • Bravo

  • Charlie

  • Normal

  • Alpha

Explanation

Question 11 of 107

1

FPCON _________ applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.

Select one of the following:

  • Charlie

  • Delta

  • Bravo

  • Alpha

Explanation

Question 12 of 107

1

Which FPCON, if implemented for a prolonged period of time may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel?

Select one of the following:

  • Charlie

  • Delta

  • Bravo

  • Alpha

Explanation

Question 13 of 107

1

Which FPCON is usually declared as a localized condition?

Select one of the following:

  • Delta

  • Charlie

  • Bravo

  • Alpha

Explanation

Question 14 of 107

1

The Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix is reviewed and updated how frequently?

Select one of the following:

  • Annually

  • Bi-Annually

  • Quarterly

  • Monthly

Explanation

Question 15 of 107

1

Who will be provided a copy of the Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix?

Select one of the following:

  • MSC and all SCCs

  • MSC and KCCC

  • KCCC and all MCCs

  • ACP and all MCC

Explanation

Question 16 of 107

1

The Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix will be considered __________ when filled in.

Select one of the following:

  • DCNI

  • Secret

  • Classified

  • Controlled

Explanation

Question 17 of 107

1

When declaring security situations you will use?

Select one of the following:

  • An appropriate number with a letter or appropriate number with indications along with correct location and time of indications in minutes.

  • LF number with appropriate call sign of SF responders with indications of alarm and status.

  • Location and time of incident with the appropriate LF number annotated in the left column.

  • A number and letter indicating the correct location and time of indications in minutes.

Explanation

Question 18 of 107

1

If an IZ is received in the secondary flight, ________ will contact ________ to determine if the IZ is authorized or has been reported.

Select one of the following:

  • MCC, MSC

  • FSC, MSC

  • MCC, ACP

  • FCC, SCP

Explanation

Question 19 of 107

1

Anytime an uncoordinated or unexpected MSLA occurs at an LF in conjunction with a security situation, the _________ will immediately notify the _________ or __________ (if applicable).

Select one of the following:

  • MCC, FSC, MSC

  • MCC, MSC, KCCC

  • FSC, SCP, MSC

  • ACP, MSC, MCC

Explanation

Question 20 of 107

1

What travel condition exists if sustained winds are 35-45 Knots, visibility is 0.1 to 0.5 Miles and Drifting snow or packed snow and ice is 0.5” to 6” (Patchy)?

Select one of the following:

  • Yellow

  • RC I

  • Red

  • RC II

Explanation

Question 21 of 107

1

Who grants permission for any lone member dispatching during TC YELLOW?

Select one of the following:

  • Wing CC

  • Group CC

  • Squadron CC

  • Flight CC

Explanation

Question 22 of 107

1

The SFG, OG, MXG and MSG leadership and representatives designated (in writing), may travel alone provided permission is obtained from the owning Group CC during TC YELLOW. What MUST they travel in and what MUST it be equipped with?

Select one of the following:

  • 4-wheel drive, radio-equipped

  • radio-equipped, SF logo

  • light bar, PA system

  • SF logo, 4-wheel drive

Explanation

Question 23 of 107

1

Commercial facility stops are authorized to combat driver fatigue, health and safety issues. When will SF teams notify their respective control center?

Select one of the following:

  • Prior to stopping and upon resuming travel

  • SF teams are not required to notify their respective control center.

  • Prior to stopping only.

  • Upon resuming travel only.

Explanation

Question 24 of 107

1

Brief rest or safety stops at gas stations, convenience stores or eating establishments are allowed outside a _________ radius from the base.

Select one of the following:

  • 25 Mile

  • 20 Mile

  • 15 Mile

  • 10 Mile

Explanation

Question 25 of 107

1

When armed and stopping at commercial facilities one team member will remain with the vehicle at all times to?

Select one of the following:

  • monitor radio communications and safeguard team weapons.

  • safeguard team weapons and vehicle.

  • safeguard the vehicle and monitor radio communications.

  • no one is required to stay with the vehicle.

Explanation

Question 26 of 107

1

Who shall ensure sufficient response forces are dispatched and tactically employed to defeat the adversary prior to the adversary gaining access to the weapon?

Select one of the following:

  • SF controller

  • Flight CC

  • MSC controller

  • Flight Chief

Explanation

Question 27 of 107

1

How many security situations can be in effect at a time for any one LF or MAF?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • Only 2 at a time

  • 3

  • As many security situations affecting an LF or MAF at the time

Explanation

Question 28 of 107

1

If indications show a need to upgrade the existing situation, who will upgrade the security situation and who do they notify immediately?

Select one of the following:

  • MCC upgrades the security situation and immediately notifies the FSC and MSC.

  • Responding SFs upgrade the security situation and immediately notify the FSC and MCC.

  • FSC upgrades the security situation and immediately notifies the MCC and MSC.

  • Responding SFs upgrade the security situation and immediately notify the Flight CC/Chief.

Explanation

Question 29 of 107

1

An initial remote alarm assessment will be made using this equipment to determine if the OZ-only alarm requires an SF response?

Select one of the following:

  • Certified RVA

  • WSTI pan tilt thermal infrared camera

  • PTZ FLIR thermal imager

  • Binoculars

Explanation

Question 30 of 107

1

The _________ establishes a program to selectively exercise SF elements and identifies, in writing, individuals authorized to conduct SREs.

Select one of the following:

  • SFG/CC

  • Wing CC

  • Squadron CC

  • Flight CC

Explanation

Question 31 of 107

1

Personnel conducting Security Reaction Exercises (SREs) coordinate with whom before initiating the SRE?

Select one of the following:

  • MSC

  • FSC

  • KCCC

  • MCC

Explanation

Question 32 of 107

1

Who will notify the MCC and WCP to prevent an exercise situation form being up-channeled as an actual event?

Select one of the following:

  • MSC

  • FSC

  • MCC

  • ACP

Explanation

Question 33 of 107

1

The passing and receipt of the current primary duress word best describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • Active duress

  • Passive duress

  • Sign counter sign

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 34 of 107

1

Non-compliance with established procedures (failure to report as prescribed, reporting incorrectly, using bogus or reversed call signs, team entering the wrong LF, etc.) best describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • Passive duress

  • Active duress

  • Article 92

  • Both B and C

Explanation

Question 35 of 107

1

Units will publish procedures for active and passive duress in what?

Select one of the following:

  • IDP

  • OI

  • COP

  • IPC

Explanation

Question 36 of 107

1

MCC and the FSC will request how many authentications if a team indicate duress by entering the wrong LF by accident?

Select one of the following:

  • 2

  • 1

  • Authentications are not required

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 37 of 107

1

A security situation may only be terminated by what?

Select one of the following:

  • Two good authentications from an armed and MEED-equipped SF team.

  • Two good authentications from any MEED-equipped SF personnel.

  • Passing correct dispatch information and equipped with a MEED.

  • One good authentication from any personnel equipped with a MEED.

Explanation

Question 38 of 107

1

A change in a Response Condition (RC) does not automatically change a ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • Travel Condition (TC

  • Green Road

  • Red Road

  • Yellow Road

Explanation

Question 39 of 107

1

Normal conditions exist and LF(s) is/are accessible to SF best describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • Road Condition I

  • Travel Condition I

  • RC II

  • TC II

Explanation

Question 40 of 107

1

Weather or road conditions have affected response, or the ability to respond to the LF(s) and the site(s) is/are not accessible best describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • RC II

  • Travel Condition I

  • RC I

  • TC II

Explanation

Question 41 of 107

1

How frequently will periodic attempts be made to respond to sites under RC II conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • At least daily

  • At least every other day

  • Attempts will be made once road conditions have been upgraded to RC I

  • When SF personnel have time and are available

Explanation

Question 42 of 107

1

Use ________ where available and operational to periodically view (not to exceed one hour) those sites that cannot be reached during RC II.

Select one of the following:

  • RVA

  • WSTI pan tilt thermal infrared camera

  • PTZ FLIR thermal imager

  • Binoculars

Explanation

Question 43 of 107

1

Who is authorized to approve Road Condition (RC) changes?

Select one of the following:

  • the Wing CC or designated representative (in writing)

  • MSC

  • the Squadron CC or designated representative (in writing)

  • the Group CC or designated representative (in writing)

Explanation

Question 44 of 107

1

The LF "A" circuit and "B" circuit, with operational
combinations installed are an integral part of the launcher security system and are classified what?

Select one of the following:

  • SECRET/NOFORN

  • SECRET

  • TOP SECRET

  • CONFIDENTIAL

Explanation

Question 45 of 107

1

____________ personnel must open the security pit vault door.

Select one of the following:

  • “A” side

  • “B” side

  • “A” or “B” side

  • Anyone on a dispatch

Explanation

Question 46 of 107

1

Who will perform a lift check of the “A” circuit after it has been secured?

Select one of the following:

  • Security and Maintenance team member

  • Security Forces team member only

  • Maintenance team member only

  • Two authorized Security Forces team members

Explanation

Question 47 of 107

1

Mission Cat VII teams guarding LFs will not have access ____________ when the B-Plug is insecure

Select one of the following:

  • “A” Circuit combinations

  • “B” Circuit combinations

  • Both “A” and “B” combinations

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 48 of 107

1

To assist in an emergency, who will be trained in procedures necessary to raise and lower the B-Plug?

Select one of the following:

  • All security personnel performing SET duties

  • Only SET personnel

  • SET and MFT personnel

  • Maintenance personnel only

Explanation

Question 49 of 107

1

Who will be immediately notified of a suspected “A” circuit lockout?

Select one of the following:

  • FSC, MSC and the MCC

  • FSC, MSC and KCCC

  • FSC only

  • MSC only

Explanation

Question 50 of 107

1

Security Forces may perform critical emergency maintenance tasks as directed by MMOC. What emergency maintenance tasks are SF personnel authorized to perform and if not accomplished in minimum time would result in damage to equipment?

Select one of the following:

  • Environmental control system resets and primary power system resets

  • Primary power system resets only

  • SF personnel are not authorized to perform critical emergency maintenance tasks

  • LF security lighting resets only

Explanation

Question 51 of 107

1

Who specifically authorizes and directly controls Security Forces performing critical emergency maintenance tasks?

Select one of the following:

  • MMOC

  • MSC

  • MCC

  • FSC

Explanation

Question 52 of 107

1

Each LF is protected by how many sensors that terminates at the MCC’s console in the launch control center (LCC)?

Select one of the following:

  • Two

  • Three

  • One

  • Four

Explanation

Question 53 of 107

1

What does an OZ alarm detect?

Select one of the following:

  • Intrusions within a perimeter inside the topside of the LF.

  • Intrusions within the entire fenced in portion of the LF.

  • Penetration attempts to the launcher.

  • Penetration attempts to the LF gate.

Explanation

Question 54 of 107

1

What does an IZ alarm detect?

Select one of the following:

  • Penetration attempts to the launcher.

  • Penetration attempts to the WSA.

  • Intrusions within a perimeter inside the topside of the LF.

  • Warhead intrusions

Explanation

Question 55 of 107

1

While on Alert the ____________ is in command of the flight area.

Select one of the following:

  • MCC

  • FSC

  • MSC

  • ACP

Explanation

Question 56 of 107

1

________________ reported to the MCC also provides indications of potential intrusions into protected areas of the LF.

Select one of the following:

  • Weapons System Alarms

  • MOSR 46

  • PVLA

  • Seismic Alarm

Explanation

Question 57 of 107

1

When the _________ cannot perform their duties, responsibility transfers to the __________ at the __________ or a __________. If these SCCs are unable to perform this function, responsibility transfers to _____________ having communications capability with an MCC.

Select one of the following:

  • MSC, SCC, ACP, SCP, any surviving mobile element

  • MCC, SCC, SCP, ACP, any surviving mobile element

  • SCC, MSC, MCC, ACP, SCP, any surviving mobile element

  • MSC, MCC, SCC, ACP, any surviving mobile element

Explanation

Question 58 of 107

1

When multiple LFs report with the same response priority, assess each LF using what device?

Select one of the following:

  • RVA

  • CCTV

  • IVA

  • WSTI

Explanation

Question 59 of 107

1

Prioritize LF(s) response without what capability?

Select one of the following:

  • RVA

  • IZ

  • OZ

  • Power

Explanation

Question 60 of 107

1

Who can make a visual assessment of a site but is not allowed to conduct a complete investigation?

Select one of the following:

  • A single individual

  • OSI

  • MFT

  • ART/SRT

Explanation

Question 61 of 107

1

Who can be diverted to assist in assessing alarms, but must be coordinated with the missile maintenance operations center (MMOC)?

Select one of the following:

  • Maintenance Teams with Set Guards traveling through the area

  • Set Guards

  • Mobile Fire Teams

  • Security Response Teams with Mobile Fire Teams

Explanation

Question 62 of 107

1

Teams carrying ___________ will not be used to conduct visual assessments, nor will they respond to investigate alarms.

Select one of the following:

  • Code Components, critical components, or classified material (other than MEED)

  • MEED

  • IG personnel

  • USKAK 55 CDR

Explanation

Question 63 of 107

1

Physically check secure, unguarded LFs once every __________ days

Select one of the following:

  • 15

  • 7

  • 3

  • 12

Explanation

Question 64 of 107

1

When conducting physical checks of unguarded LFs, what activations must be included?

Select one of the following:

  • Inner and Outer zone IDS activation(s)

  • MOSR 48 activations

  • PGLV activations

  • WALM activations

Explanation

Question 65 of 107

1

Teams generating IZ alarms during an LF check are not required to ___________ upon IZ illumination if two team members have authenticated within the previous _____ minutes.

Select one of the following:

  • Authenticate, 30 minutes

  • Authenticate, 60 minutes

  • Strike the site, 30 minutes

  • Strike the site, 15 minutes

Explanation

Question 66 of 107

1

Which agency identifies the need for a team to be dispatched to the missile field?

Select one of the following:

  • Initiating agency

  • Dispatch agency

  • KCCC

  • MSC

Explanation

Question 67 of 107

1

Who confirms the need for sending the team into the missile field?

Select one of the following:

  • Dispatch agency

  • Initiating agency

  • KCCC

  • MSC

Explanation

Question 68 of 107

1

Who assigns the mission category?

Select one of the following:

  • Initiating agency

  • Dispatch agency

  • MCC

  • ACP

Explanation

Question 69 of 107

1

Who is responsible for ensuring that all personnel assigned to PRP duties have their PRP status verified prior to being placed on the AFGSC Form 246/MADO?

Select one of the following:

  • Initiating agency

  • KCCC

  • Dispatch agency

  • MSC

Explanation

Question 70 of 107

1

Specific individuals within each initiating agency must be appointed in writing using what form?

Select one of the following:

  • AFGSC Form 577 (Signature Card)

  • AFGSC Form 246/MADO

  • AFGSC Form 245

  • Official memo with corresponding letter head from owning squadron

Explanation

Question 71 of 107

1

What is recommended but not required for trips dispatching to the missile field that will not require entry to LFs and MAFs?

Select one of the following:

  • AFGSC Form 246

  • AFGSC Form 245

  • AFGSC Form 247

  • AFGSC Form 248

Explanation

Question 72 of 107

1

What is MECS designed to control?

Select one of the following:

  • The information required for unescorted entry to LFs or MAFs, and prevents one person from possessing enough information or material to enter a secured launcher.

  • Operational keying material classified Secret//Crypto//NOFORN

  • HHUs used to encrypt or decrypt

  • Operational security for the control and management of COMSEC material.

Explanation

Question 73 of 107

1

Operational keying material is classified as what?

Select one of the following:

  • SECRET

  • CRYPTO

  • NOFORN

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 74 of 107

1

. An ____________ is considered compromised when the possibility exists that an unauthorized personnel knows an individual’s authenticator?

Select one of the following:

  • authenticator

  • trip number

  • dispatch

  • category

Explanation

Question 75 of 107

1

Individuals receiving authenticators must not make any record ___________ or ___________?

Select one of the following:

  • written, electronic

  • filed, saved

  • written, filed

  • electronic, saved

Explanation

Question 76 of 107

1

The MEED device is a __________?

Select one of the following:

  • split knowledge offline cipher system used for personnel authentication and passing combinations.

  • online cipher system

  • split knowledge cipher system used for passing duress

  • system used to pass combinations only

Explanation

Question 77 of 107

1

“A” side MEED units are what color?

Select one of the following:

  • Yellow

  • Blue

  • Green

  • Orange

Explanation

Question 78 of 107

1

“B” side MEED units are what color?

Select one of the following:

  • Blue

  • Yellow

  • Amber

  • Orange

Explanation

Question 79 of 107

1

Units are authorized to conduct minor maintenance activities on the MEED equipment. What minor maintenance is authorized?

Select one of the following:

  • Changing the batteries, cleaning and adjusting the connector and battery compartment contacts, or adjusting bent pins

  • Internal maintenance

  • Changing the batteries only

  • cleaning the connector and battery contacts only

Explanation

Question 80 of 107

1

What type of maintenance of MEED devices is prohibited?

Select one of the following:

  • Internal maintenance

  • External maintenance

  • Cleaning and adjusting the connector and battery compartment contacts

  • adjusting bent pins

Explanation

Question 81 of 107

1

What form is used to issue, transfer, and receive MEED units form the location the MEED unit is assigned?

Select one of the following:

  • AFGSC Form 247

  • AFGSC Form 246

  • AFGSC Form 245

  • AFGSC Form 248

Explanation

Question 82 of 107

1

When does routine zeroization of a field key in the DTU occur?

Select one of the following:

  • When the team member issued that key returns the HHU to KCCC.

  • When the team member issued that key is in route to MSC.

  • Each day the team member turns the HHU over to the FSC for storage/safe keeping.

  • When the person in possession of the HHU believes it to be at risk of overt or covert personnel.

Explanation

Question 83 of 107

1

What is accomplished when an individual believes the device in their possession may be compromised by overt or covert means, or when ordered by competent authority?

Select one of the following:

  • Emergency zeroization

  • Routine zeroization

  • Immediate zeroization

  • Regular zeroization

Explanation

Question 84 of 107

1

The KL-86 and KL-85 are given what classification when unkeyed?

Select one of the following:

  • UNCLASSIFIED

  • SECRET

  • DoD UCNI

  • CLASSIFIED

Explanation

Question 85 of 107

1

The KL-86 and KL-85 are handled as and controlled as what?

Select one of the following:

  • Cryptographic items

  • Classified

  • NOFORN

  • Controlled/Classified items

Explanation

Question 86 of 107

1

Prior to allowing access to MECS/MEED material all holders must be ___________?

Select one of the following:

  • positively identified

  • wearing military uniform

  • an E-6 or above

  • an O-3 or above

Explanation

Question 87 of 107

1

What must a team arriving at the MAF gate pass the FSC?

Select one of the following:

  • Their trip number, team chief’s name and rank, and number of personnel

  • Their trip number and number of personnel

  • Team chief’s name, rank and number of personnel

  • Security status, name, rank and trip number

Explanation

Question 88 of 107

1

What form(s) must your information be verified against prior to the FSC allowing entry to the MAF?

Select one of the following:

  • AFGSC Form 246/MADO/EAL

  • AFGSC Form 245/MADO/EAL

  • AFGSC Form 247/MADO/EAL

  • AFGSC Form 248/MADO/EAL

Explanation

Question 89 of 107

1

What are the standard methods of passing dispatch information for MAF entry?

Select one of the following:

  • vehicle radios or the gate phone

  • radios and cell phone

  • gate phone only

  • vehicle radios only

Explanation

Question 90 of 107

1

SF must ensure all personnel requiring escorted entry to the SCC, elevator shaft way, LCEB and/or LCC are _____________ prior to entering the SCC?

Select one of the following:

  • visually inspected

  • simple frisk

  • simple search

  • detailed search

Explanation

Question 91 of 107

1

Visual inspections of personnel requiring escorted entry to the SCC, elevator shaft wary, LCEB and/or LCC will consist of what?

Select one of the following:

  • removing all items from pockets and a visual inspection of the individual and all hand-carried items

  • the use of a Trans frisker device and a visual inspection of all hand-carried items

  • visual inspections are not authorized. A simple frisk must be accomplished prior to allowing entry

  • escort authority may vouch for personnel requiring entry

Explanation

Question 92 of 107

1

Emergency vehicles transporting ______________ will not be delayed for inspections?

Select one of the following:

  • seriously injured personnel

  • emergency responders

  • bodily organs on ice

  • life support equipment with a shelf life

Explanation

Question 93 of 107

1

Who is the approval authority for teams entering LFs?

Select one of the following:

  • MCC

  • MSC

  • FSC

  • Flight CC/Chief

Explanation

Question 94 of 107

1

Who will grant permission for all trips to depart the site?

Select one of the following:

  • FSC and MCC

  • MCC and MSC

  • FSC and MSC

  • MCC only

Explanation

Question 95 of 107

1

Who is the exception and may be allowed on to a site with a security situation in progress?

Select one of the following:

  • Responding security teams

  • Military maintenance personnel

  • Civilian maintenance contractors

  • Contracted surveillance team and emergency water intrusion team

Explanation

Question 96 of 107

1

Subsequent follow-on teams may not need to ____________ if the on-site team chief, or assistant team chief personally recognizes and vouches for the team chief requesting entry?

Select one of the following:

  • authenticate

  • request entry

  • process onto the LF

  • pass combinations

Explanation

Question 97 of 107

1

If the team requesting entry to the LF is comprised of one individual and the on-site team chief is unable to make positive personal recognition, how many authentications are required of the one individual requesting entry?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

  • 4

Explanation

Question 98 of 107

1

Prior to entering LFs, the convoy CC ________________ the convoy composition to the __________?

Select one of the following:

  • Pre-announces, FSC

  • Pre-announces, MSC

  • Pre-announces, LCC

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 99 of 107

1

Which is correct of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • The weapons transporting vehicle will not stop outside the LF but will immediately enter

  • The weapons transporting vehicle will stop outside the LF, authenticate and immediately enter

  • The convoy CC will authenticate in route to the LF and immediately enter

  • The convoy CC will authenticate with the receiving flight area MCC before leaving MSB

Explanation

Question 100 of 107

1

The RF shall arrive before a hostile force can penetrate the secure portions of the LF, but in not more than _____________?

Select one of the following:

  • 30 minutes

  • 45 minutes

  • 60 minutes

  • 90 minutes

Explanation

Question 101 of 107

1

The BF shall be dispatched concurrently with the RF and shall arrive at the threatened LF in not more than ____________?

Select one of the following:

  • 45 minutes

  • 30 minutes

  • 60 minutes

  • 90 minutes

Explanation

Question 102 of 107

1

Those actions, proportional to the threat, that disrupt the adversary and delay them from meaningful work in order to prevent theft, damage, sabotage, destruction, or detonation of a nuclear weapon best describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • Immediate, Sufficient Duress

  • Final Denial Fire

  • Containment

  • Delay

Explanation

Question 103 of 107

1

The ability of the security forces to place effective fire on the entrances to facilities or platforms containing nuclear weapons best describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • Final Denial Fire

  • Delay

  • Containment

  • Immediate, Sufficient Duress

Explanation

Question 104 of 107

1

A payload transporter carrying a nuclear weapon with a malfunction, breakdown, or other non-hostile condition(s) off base and deemed long-term may require establishing a what?

Select one of the following:

  • NDA

  • 360

  • Safe Haven

  • LACE/SALUTE report

Explanation

Question 105 of 107

1

Who approves establishment of the NDA?

Select one of the following:

  • Group level or higher Commander

  • Squadron CC

  • Convoy CC

  • Flight Chief

Explanation

Question 106 of 107

1

Who will establish the initial area and direct actions to expedite NDA approval?

Select one of the following:

  • Convoy CC

  • Convoy Tactical CC

  • Squadron CC

  • Group CC or higher

Explanation

Question 107 of 107

1

IAW USSTRATCOM CCIR reporting criteria, which must be notified of any establishment of an NDA?

Select one of the following:

  • USSTRATCOM Global Operations Center (GOC)

  • 20th Air Force

  • 20 AFGSC/CC

  • Base CC

Explanation

Previous
Next