What are the 2 types of Toolbox?
a. Toolbox Remote and Toolbox Online
b. Toolbox Internet and Toolbox Local
c. Toolbox Remote and Toolbox Web
Where is Toolbox Remote data stored?
a. On an airline server
b. On a Boeing server
c. On the hard drive of the ML
Where is Toolbox Online data stored?
Look at this DMC: DMC-B787-A-23-15-00-01A-300B-A. What is the 6-digit ATA code included in the number?
a. A-23-15
b. 23-15-00
c. 15-00-01
To find maintenance procedures or fault isolation data in Toolbox, select the:
a. Data Manager Tab.
b. Library Tab.
c. Structures Tab
In Toolbox, which tab gives access to the FIM Fault Finder page?
b. Systems Tab.
Toolbox Remote gives access to more maintenance data than Toolbox Online.
a. True
b. False
Which of the following data you cannot find in Toolbox Remote?
a. Fault isolation data
b. Schematics and wiring diagrams
c. Supplier data
d. Parts data
Which of the following components are not in the common computing resource (CCR) cabinets?
a. General processor modules (GPM)
b. ARINC 664 network cabinet switches (ACS)
c. Remote data concentrators (RDC)
d. Fiber optic translator (FOX) modules
In which CCS components are the hosted software applications for airplane systems stored?
What is the purpose of the fiber optic translator (FOX) modules?
a. Changes A664 signals to electrical A429
b. Changes light signals to electrical and vice versa
c. Changes A429 signals to electrical
ARINC 664 network cabinet (ACS) switches: (Select the incorrect response.)
a. Have 2 channels.
b. Have fiber optic ARINC 664 connections.
c. Have electrical ARINC 664 connections.
d. Connect to the general processor (GPM) modules
The ARINC 664 network remote switches (ARS): (Select the incorrect response.)
a. Connect to the remote data concentrators (RDC).
b. Connect to the fiber optic translator (FOX) modules.
c. Have ARINC 429 connections.
d. Filter, monitor, and forward data.
The Remote data concentrators (RDC) have: (Select the incorrect response.)
a. Fiber optic connections.
b. ARINC 429 connections.
c. Analog and analog discrete connections.
d. Controller area network (CAN) bus connections
Which components are parts of the common data network (CDN)? (Select the incorrect response.)
a. ARINC 664 network cabinet (ACS) switches
b. General processor modules (GPM)
c. ARINC 664 network remote (ARS) switches
When does the common core system (CCS) power-up in the inhibited mode?
a. In the air. Either fuel control switch in RUN. No Fuel Cutoff switch data is available.
b. In the ground. Either fuel control switch in RUN. No Fuel Cutoff switch data is available.
c. In the air. Either fuel control switch in CUTOFF. No Fuel Cutoff switch data is available.
You apply power to the airplane on battery power only. How long does it take for the displays to show?
a. About 50 seconds
b. About 100seconds
c. About 150 seconds
In flight, all displays go blank. The flight crew pushes the L CCR reset switch. What happens?
a. The power conditioning modules in the CCR cabinet remove the power to the cabinet modules in the left CCR cabinet
b. The power conditioning modules in the CCR cabinet remove and reapply power to the cabinet modules in the left CCR cabinet
c. The power conditioning modules in the CCR cabinet reapply power to the cabinet modules in the left CCR cabinet
Some components have a direct connection with the CDN (they do not go through RDCs). Where can you see the status of these connections?
a. On the DCAS maintenance pages
b. On the ATA 31 maintenance pages
c. On the CCS maintenance pages
To make alert indications, the caution and warning system uses: (Select the incorrect response.)
a. EICAS messages.
b. comm/warning speakers.
c. Master warning/caution lights.
d. Fail flags.
What 2 signals must the stick shaker motors receive before they operate?
a. 28v dc from an RPDU and ground signal from an RDC
b. 28v dc from an RPDU and ground signal from CRN
c. 28v dc from an RPDU and ground signal from an CCS
During a warning condition, you push a master warning light. What happens? (Select the incorrect response.)
a. The related EICAS warning level message goes away.
b. The master warning light goes off.
c. The aural alert may stop.
Which are the major components of the primary display system (PDS)? (Select the incorrect response.)
a. Graphics generators (GG)
b. Head-down displays (HDD)
c. General processor modules (GPM)
d. Head-up displays (HUD)
What components format display data and make the images for the displays?
a. Graphics generators
b. GPM
c. RDC
Which switches change the primary flight display (PFD) to narrow format and move it to the inboard head-down display (HDD)?
a. ND/EFIS switches
b. ND/PFD switches
c. PFD/MFD switches
What device do you use to move the cursor to the onside electronic flight bag (EFB)?
a. CCD
b. EFB
c. MFD
What 2 devices can you use to control the cursor on the multifunction displays?
a. EFB and CURSOR CONTROL switch on the MFD
b. CCD and CURSOR CONTROL switch on the MFK
c. CCD and CURSOR CONTROL switch on the EFIS/DSP
To transfer the EICAS display from the captain inboard DU to the first officer inboard DU:
a. Push the EICAS button on the EFIS/DSP.
b. Push the MFD R switch.
How do you show the vertical situation display (VSD) on the navigation display (ND)?
a. Select VSD from the pull-down menu
b. Select VSD from the MFK
c. Select VSD from the PFD
The MANUAL snapshot column for CARGO HEAT says SHOW LIST. What does this mean?
a. There is 1 manual snapshots stored
b. There are 2,3,4 or 5 automatic snapshots stored
c. There are 2,3,4 or 5 manual snapshots stored
In the core network cabinet, the non-flight critical components connect to the:
a. Isolated Data Network.
b. Open Data Network.
c. Common Data Network
The airport terminal cannot communicate with the airplane terminal wireless network. There may be a problem in the:
a. Common data network (CDN).
b. Isolated Data Network (IDN).
c. Open data network (ODN).
The airline engineering department transmits a loadable software airplane part (LSAP) to the airplane for later installation. Put the components in the sequence in which the LSAP data flows to the airplane.
a. 1st Terminal wireless local area network unit (TWLU) antenna, 2nd Terminal wireless local area network unit (TWLU) module, 3rd Ethernet gateway module (EGM), 4th File server module (FSM)
b. 1st Terminal wireless local area network unit (TWLU) antenna, 2nd File server module (FSM), 3rd Terminal wireless local area network unit (TWLU) module, 4th Ethernet gateway module (EGM)
The wireless network antenna on the top of the fuselage is the:
a. Terminal wireless LAN unit (TWLU) antenna.
b. Crew wireless LAN unit (CWLU) antenna.
c. ADF antenna
The core network cabinet connects to the airplane common data network (CDN) with:
a. Electrical buses.
b. Fiber optic buses.
What is the maximum number of maintenance laptop wired connections to the airplane?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
Ethernet ports for a maintenance laptop wired connection are: (Select the incorrect response.)
a. On the flight deck.
b. On the P40 panel on the nose landing gear.
c. In the forward E/E bay.
d. In the aft E/E bay.
The maintenance laptop-to-airplane connections are: (Select the incorrect response.)
a. Internet.
b. Wired.
c. Wireless
The maintenance control display function (MCDF) task bar shows: (Select the incorrect response.)
a. User ID.
b. Current flight leg.
c. Tail ID.
d. Connection type.
Which connection types permit all maintenance functions? (Select the incorrect response.)
a. Wired
b. Wireless Initial
c. Wireless Full
The maintenance laptop-to-airplane connection is Wireless Full. On the Airplane Functions Menu, ODLF shows as not active because:
a. The connection type must be wired for ODLF to be active.
b. The GND TEST switch is not in the DATA LOAD / ENABLE position.
To get access to Toolbox Remote from the Maintenance Control Display Function (MCDF) task bar, select the:
a. AIRPLANE FUNCTIONS button.
b. SUPPORT FUNCTIONS button.
The low range radio altimeter system fails. Fault data goes to the primary display system (PDS) and CMCF. CMCF shows a:
a. non-correlated maintenance message.
b. correlated maintenance message.
A sensor has a fault and sends fault data to CMCF. There is no flight deck effect (FDE). CMCF shows a:
The airplane is on the ground and power is applied. The engines are not operating. The EICAS message, EFIS/DSP PANEL L, shows. The CMCF shows a:
a. fault code with no maintenance message.
b. non-correlated maintenance message.
The airplane arrives at the gate with status messages. Which CMCF selection do you use to show correlated maintenance messages from the last flight only?
a. EXTENDED MAIN > INBOUND FLIGHT DECK EFFECTS
b. LINE MAIN > INBOUND FLIGHT DECK EFFECTS
c. EXTENDED MAINT > PRESENT LEG FAULTS 60. Where do you see non-correlated maintenance messages from the last flight leg?
If a fault tolerant system is one fault away from making an FDE, the CMCF makes a:
a. SCHEDULED MAINTENANCE TASK.
b. MAINTENANCE MEMO.
For most ground tests, the GND TEST switch must be in the:
a. NORM position.
b. ENABLE position
The maintenance laptop is on and you are logged in. The laptop is connected to the airplane. What are the steps to show the CMCF main menu on the laptop?
a. Show MCDF toolbar > Select Airplane Functions > Select MCDF
b. Show MCDF toolbar > Select Support Functions > Select CMCF
c. Show MCDF toolbar > Select Airplane Functions > Select
A technician repairs a fault. The system test passes and the maintenance message shows NOT ACTIVE for the fault. He/she signs off the logbook. The next flight crew reports the status message still shows. What did the technician NOT do that he/she should have done?
a. Erase the latched maintenance message
b. Erase the latched status message
c. Clear the fail in the Logbook
What program do you use to load the LSAPs from the file server module (FSM) on the airplane to airplane systems?
a. OSM (On board Storage Management)
b. ODLF (On board Data Load Function)
c. SMT (Software Maintenance Tool)
What program do you use to see and delete loadable software airplane parts (LSAP) stored on the file server module (FSM) on the airplane?
c. SMT (Software Maintenance Tool
Which devices can you use to see and delete loadable software parts (LSAPs) on the airplane? (Select the incorrect response.)
a. Maintenance laptop
b. Electronic flight bag (EFB)
c. Multifunction display (MFD)
Which function monitors, records, and reports airplane conditions such as engine performance and trend analysis of maintenance data?
a. CMCF
b. ACMF
c. ODLF
To download digital audio data from the flight recorder (FR):
a. Connect the maintenance laptop to any Ethernet port and use the Flight Recorder Download function to start the download.
b. Remove the FR from the airplane and send the FR to the shop.
The recorder independent power supply (RIPS) provides backup power to:
a. The forward flight recorder (FR).
b. The aft flight recorder (FR).
c. The Maintenance laptop download software.
The B787 is a twin engine airplane for medium and long range flights with Three certified versions:
a. 787-800, 787-900, 787-1000
b. 787-8, 787-9, 787-10
c. 787-80, 787-90, 787-100
Which is the longer version of the B787?
a. 787-8
b. 787-10
c. 787-9
Two of the new features of B787 are:
a. Cabin altitude of 6000 ft and larger dimmable windows
b. Cabin altitude of 8000 ft and larger dimmable windows
c. Cabin altitude of 6000 ft and standard dimmable windows
How many E/E bays have the B787?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
The B787 uses ONLY Electronic Circuit Breakers (ECB)?
a. YES, the ECB are accessed electronically through Multi-Function Displays
b. YES, the ECB are accessed electronically through Multi-Function Displays and E/E bays
c. NO, the ECB are accessed electronically through Multi-Function Displays and Thermal CB (TCB) are viewed electronically through Multi-Function Displays and controlled manually through E/E bays
The COCKPIT overhead panel is named also as:
a. P4 panel
b. P5 panel
c. P6 panel
The B787 system which uses software applications and common processors to calculate data to operate many airplane system functions is:
a. CCS – Common Core System
b. CCS – Computerized Cored System
c. CCS – Cabin Computer System
The CCS uses the CDN (Common Data Network), which interconnects all the CCS components with the airplane systems using:
a. Fiber Optic, protocol ARINC 664
b. Fiber Optic, protocol ARINC 429
c. Fiber Optic, protocol ARINC 600
The CCS uses ___Common Computing Resource (CCR) cabinets which have PCM (Power Conditioning Modules), GPM (General Processing Modules), GG (Graphic Generators), FOX (Fiber Optic Translators) and ACS (A664 cabinet switch) modules.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
Eight _______ in each CCR cabinet have software programs that calculate data for many airplane systems:
a. GPM (General Processing Modules)
b. GG (Graphic Generators)
c. FOX (Fiber Optic Translators)
The ___________________ keeps software and data for airplane systems. It also supplies wired and wireless connections for the flight crew and the airplane maintenance.
a. Cabin Core System
b. Common Core Network
c. Core Network
The __________ system shows surveillance video, airport maps, charts, and the electronic logbook which decreases the need for paper documents.
a. Electronic Flight Bag (EFB)
b. Electronic Flight Back (EFB)
c. Electrical Flight Browser (EFB)
The system used by maintenance personnel which collects and stores maintenance data for airplane systems. Also processes faults and does system tests:
a. Common Core System (CCS)
b. Crew Information System (CIS)
c. Central Maintenance Computing Function (CMCF)
Which of the following is true:
a. The access to Central Maintenance Computing Function (CMCF) only is possible using the Maintenance Laptop
b. The access to Central Maintenance Computing Function (CMCF) is possible using the Maintenance Laptop and the EFB
c. The access to Central Maintenance Computing Function (CMCF) is possible using the Maintenance Laptop, the EFB and limited access using the Primary Display System
How many Ethernet WIRED ports have the 787 to connect the Maintenance Laptop?
Can you access to the maintenance manuals (ToolBox application) using the Maintenance Laptop?
a. Yes, you can access Toolbox using the Support Functions of Maintenance Control and Display Function (MCDF)
b. Yes, you can access ToolBox connecting ONLY the Maintenance Laptop to Internet
c. No, is not possible use the ToolBox with the Maintenance Laptop
How many Flight Recorders have the B787?
The B787 Electrical System:
a. Uses 2 Variable Frecuency Starter Generators (VFSG) - 235VAC on each engine and 2 APU Starter Generators (ASG)- 235 VAC
b. Uses 1 Variable Frecuency Starter Generators (VFSG) - 235VAC on each engine and 1 APU Starter Generators (ASG)- 235 VAC
c. Uses 2 Variable Frequency Starter Generators (VFSG) - 115VAC driven by each engine and 2 APU Starter Generators (ASG)- 115 VAC
The B787 electrical system:
a. Uses 200 VAC, 270 VDC, 115 VAC and 28VDC
b. Uses 235 VAC, 270 VAC, 115 VAC and 28VDC
c. Uses 235 VAC, 270 VDC, 115 VAC and 28VDC
How many External Powers can be connected on the B787?
You can access to Circuit Breaker Indication and Control (CBIC) to operate the Electronic Circuit Breakers (ECB) and check the status of Thermal Circuit Breakers (TCB) using:
a. Multi-Function Displays (MFD) and Maintenance Laptop
b. Only Maintenance Laptop
c. Only MFD in the cockpit
___ Electrically-driven cabin air compressors (CAC) supply compressed external air to the air conditioned packs for airflow and for cabin pressurization. This design eliminates the engine bleed requirement, increasing the engine efficiency.
a. 2
c. 6
Which of the following is not a component of the air conditioning pack:
a. Air Cycle Machine
b. Primary Heat Exchanger
c. Smoke Detector
What is the source of hot air for the air conditioning system?
a. Cabin Air Compressors (CAC)
b. Engine Bleed Pneumatic System Air
c. Heat Exchanger Air
How many air recirculation fans have the B787 air conditioning system?
a. Two Recirculation fans in the upper crown area
b. Two Recirculation fans in the aircraft lower part
c. Two Recirculation fans, one in the upper crown area and two in the aircraft lower part
How many Outflow valves are installed in the B787?
The __________________________ (PECS) is a liquid cooling system that decreases the temperatures of the High-Voltage Direct Current (HVDC) equipment and the supplemental cooling units.
a. Power Electronics Cooling System
b. Power Elemental Calibrated System
c. Pure Elemental Cooling System
The forward and aft equipment cooling is performed using:
a. Liquid cooling
b. Air
c. Do not require cooling
The B787 have installed ___ hydraulic systems with pressure of ______ psi.
a. 3; 3000
b. 2; 5000
c. 3; 5000
The B787 hydraulic system uses ___ engine driven pumps and ___ motor pumps.
a. 2; 4
b. 4; 4
c. 4; 2
The hydraulic ground servicing system lets you fill the 3 hydraulic reservoirs from 1 location, exactly in:
a. Right wheel well
b. Left wheel well
c. Forward wheel well
The Main and Nose Landing Gear use hydraulic pressure from the:
a. Right Hyd. System
b. Center Hyd. System
c. Left Hyd. System
The B787 braking system uses ______ actuators on each wheel.
a. Hydraulic
b. Pneumatic
c. Electrical
The 4 __________ (FCE) cabinets provide manual and automatic control of the airplane pitch, roll and yaw axes. The FCE cabinets also provide manual and automatic control of the speedbrakes and leading and trailing edge high lift surfaces.
a. Flight Computer Equipment
b. Flight Control Electronics
c. Flight Control Equipment
Which of the following groups compose the B787 communication systems:
a. Flight Interphone System, VHF Comm., DME, HF, SELCAL, SATCOM, Data Communication Management, ELT, Service Interphone, Flight Deck Entry Video
b. Flight Interphone System, VHF Comm., HF, SELCAL, SATCOM, Data Communication Management, ELT, Service Interphone, ADF, Flight Deck Entry Video
c. Flight Interphone System, VHF Comm., HF, SELCAL, SATCOM, Data Communication Management, ELT, Service Interphone, Flight Deck Entry Video
Which computer processes and manage the B787 Pitot-Static Systems:
a. Fight Computer Equipment - FCE
b. Flight Control Electronics - FCE
c. Air Data Computers – ADC
The B787 __________ ERS calculates aircraft parameters such us heading, velocity and position.
a. Earth Reference System
b. Elevation Reference System
c. Estimated Reference System
The GPS, ILS, VOR and Marker Beacon system information is received and processed by the following component:
a. Aircraft Receiver Radio – ARR
b. Integrated Navigation Radio – INR
c. Common Core System – CCS
The ATC, TCAS, Weather Radar WXR, Terrain Awareness System –TAWS system information is received and processed by the following system:
a. Integrated Surveillance System - ISS
b. Aircraft Surveillance System - ASS
The AFDS operates in two modes, autopilot and Flight Director; the______ FCE has the Auto flight function software.
The ________ TMS can automatically control the engine thrust in all phases of flight from takeoff to approach, landing and go around.
a. Thrust Management System – TMS
b. Takeoff Management System – TMS
c. Thrust Manipulating System – TMS
There are ___ fuel tanks for fuel storage.
The B787 incorporates the ATA 47 Nitrogen Generation System?
a. Yes
b. No
The B787 APU provides:
a. Pneumatic and Electrical power
b. ONLY Pneumatic power
c. ONLY Electrical power
The B787 is powered by the following type of engines:
a. RR Trent 700
b. RR Trent 1000
c. RR Trent Next Generation
The ________ (CSS) lets the flight attendant monitor and control these systems: Passenger Address System – PAS, Passenger Services System (PSS), Cabin Interphone System (CIS):
a. Cabin Services System
b. Crew Services System
c. Cabin Social System
The B787 uses a 60% of Composite Structures, the major part of this composites (53%) are:
a. Fiberglass
b. Nomex
c. Carbon Fiber
In NGS what is the function of Ground Cooling Valve:
a. Control the flow of nitrogen enriched air to the fuel tanks.
b. Let ambient air to enter the ram air ducting.
c. Uses NEA pressure/flow to circulate center tank ullage.
In NGS what is the function of Center Tank Pump Ejector:
a. Controls the flow of nitrogen enriched air to the fuel tanks.
b. Uses NEA pressure/flow to circulate center tank ullage.
c. Distribute NEA to wing fuel tanks.
What are the major components groups of the NGS
a. Engine Drive Compressor (EDC), Motor Drive Compressor (MDC), Air Separator Module (ASM).
b. Motor Drive Compressor (MDC), Air Separation Module (ASM), High Pressure Nitrogen Filter.
c. Cabin Shutoff Valve, Motor Drive Compressor (MDC), Ram Air Control Valve.
The Engine Fire Detection Signal goes To CDN Through
a. Smoke Detectors.
b. Main Engine Data Concetrator (MEDC).
c. Engine Fuel Control Module.
The Engine Fire Detection System Detects:
a. Smoke.
b. Overheat conditions.
c. Fire Conditions.
The Cargo Fire Protection detect:
a. Smoke and Overheat conditions.
b. Fire detection and overheat conditions.
c. Smoke and fire detections.
When does the Engine Fire Protection System discharge the Fire Extinguishing agent?
a. Automatically through to MEDC.
b. Manual when rotate to Fire switch.
c. Manual when rotate to Fire Switch and Automatic through the squib Monitor Control Unit (SMCU).
The Engine Cowl Power Door Opening System (PDOS) usually operates:
a. With 28v dc linear actuators.
b. With an electrical motor and hydraulic actuators.
c. Manually and 28v dc linear actuators.
If the PDOS fails, what other method can you use to open the cowls?
a. Use of External Hydraulic Pump.
b. Use of Left Hydraulic System.
c. Use of Center Hydraulic System.
What Sensor is in the inlet area forward of the Fan?
a. P0 / T0.
b. P20 / T20
c. P0 / P20 Only.
This unit supplies inputs to operate the engine:
a. Fuel and control system.
b. Ignition system.
c. Engine control system.
What system supplies engine data to CCS:
a. Indication system.
b. Fuel and control system.
c. Oil system.
What unit supplies fuel at correct pressure and rate:
b. Engine Control System.
c. Fuel and control system.
Airplane on ground, If the engine electronic controller (EEC) senses a start problem during the first start attempt, the EEC:
a. Stops fuel and ignitions and abort the start.
b. Stops fuel and ignitions and motors the engine for 30 seconds, tries a second start with 2 igniters.
c. Stops fuel and ignitions and motors the engine for 1 seconds, tries a second start with 2 igniters
In the Engine Air system, The solenoid Banks on both sides of the engine supply servo control of the engine valves using:
a. Fuel. .
b. Oil.
c. Air
What is the source of cooling for the LPTACC?
a. Oil.
b. Fan Air.
c. Fuel.
Which are the functions of the thrust control module?
a. Send TRA data to EEC, Autothrottle disconnect, Prevent reverse thrust lever movement.
b. Send TRA data to the EEC, MIC/FLT PTT signal, TO/GA commands,
c. TO/GA commands, Prevent reverse thrust lever movement, Autothrust disconnect.
Which elements are part of the thrust system?
a. Translating sleeves, Cascade segments, Sync locks, Hydraulic control unit (HCU).
b. Blocker doors, Track lock mechanism, Hydraulic control unit (HCU), Sync locks.
c. Hydraulic control unit (HCU), Track lock mechanism, Translating sleeves, Cascade segments.
In Air Conditioning system the function of the Surge / add heat valve is:
a. Controls CAC output air temperature.
b. Protects CAC inlets from water spray and FOD.
c. Makes hot, high pressure air.
In Air Conditioning system the function of the Inlet Deflector Door is:
a. Controls CAC operation efficiency.
b. Controls CAC output air temperature.
c. Protects CAC inlets from water spray and FOD.
The Function of Condenser is:
a. Decreases the temperature of supply air to the air cycle machine.
b. Decreases the temperature of the air from the air cycle machine.
c. Decreases the temperature of air from the secondary heat exchanger.
The Zonal Dryer:
a. Sends air into the crown area, filters air in the crown área, and sends air to the mix bay.
b. Sends air into the cabin air distribution system, filters air in the crown area, and sends air into the crown area.
c. Sends air into the crown area, filters air in the crown área, and Sends air into the cabin air distribution system.
If the built-in-test (BIT) of the valve control unit (VCU) senses a motor control malfunction, control of the related outflow valve is by:
a. The motor direct.
b. The backup channel of the related VCU.
c. The motor Primary.
¿ there are 3 static ports on each side of the fuselage. each pair of static ports connects to a related static air data module (ADM) through:
A. pneumatic tubing
B. electrical connection
C. ARINC 787
¿ there is no ice protection for the static ports. They are not heated.
a. false
b. true
¿ This ADRF data shows on the primary flight display (PFD) and head-up display (HUD).
a. airspeed, attitude ,altitude ,heading
b. baro altitude minimums, altitude, airspeed.
c. airspeed, altitude ,mach, baro altitude minimums
¿the earth reference system (ERS) calculates these primary inertial parameters for use by airplane systems:
a. attitude, heading, velocity, position.
b. altitude ,heading, ground speed
c. attitude ,heading, airsped, position
¿ Each IRU and AHRU has an APM.
a. the APM gives correction for course deviation
b. The APM don’t give correction for mounting tray misalignments.
c. The APM gives correction for mounting tray misalignments.
¿ The backdrive actuators move the columns, wheels, and pedals.
a. true
b. false
¿ after the airplane is off the ground, the pilots can stay in the f/d takeoff mode or when the airplane is above 200 feet radio altitude, they can engage the autopilot to the takeoff mode.
¿ the rudder pedal back drive actuator (BDA) moves the rudder pedals during:
a. Autopilot sends a rudder command.
b. airplane is on approach and below 1500 feet radio altitude
c. During cruise.
¿what are the different types of flight guidance?
a. Slaved and management.
b. Automatic and manual.
c. Management and selected.
d. Management and manual.
¿ managed guidance is engaged by:
a. Pulling on the desired MCP selector knob.
b. Pushing on the desired MCP selector knob.
c. Rotating 90° the desired MCP selector knob.
the FCMS have these internal functions:
a. primary flight control,- high lift control,- auto flight function
b. primary flight control,- high lift control, auto thrust
c. primary flight control,- high lift control,- hydraulics leaks detector
for the 787 flight controls, there are 2 types of rigging:
a. Mechanical rigging, electronic rigging.
b. Minor rig, major rig
c. Mechanical rig and hydraulic rig.
Roll is controlled by:
a. ailerons, yaw, stab
b. flaperons, alerons, speedbreake
c. aileron, spoilers, flaperons
The spoilers also do these functions:
a. speed brakes
b. spoiler droop
c. Both are correct.
there is more than one actuator on each PFCF surface except in the:
a. flaps
b. spoilers
c. ailerons
¿there are 3 hydraulic systems, each system supplies: ________________psi hydraulic power?
a. 3000psi
b. 4000psi
c. 5000 psi
¿ each hydraulic pump has its own power source :
a. (Engine drives pump accessory gear box or electric motor).
b. (Batteries box or electric motor).
c. (Engine drives pump or hydraulic motor generator).
¿ have an EDP as the primary pump and an EMP as the demand pump. an engine supply shutoff valve closes to stop fluid flow to the:
a. EDP and EDP when you pull the related fire handle
b. EMP when you pull the related fire handle
c. EDP when you pull the related fire handle
¿the hydraulic system transducers and LVDT supply hydraulic data to the HYDIF of the:
a. pressure, temperature, and quantity of the hydraulic fluid
b. pressure, temperature of the hydraulic fluid
c. pressure ,quantity of the hydraulic fluid
¿ the nose landing gear (NLG) door open proximity sensors sense the open position of the left NLG forward door for:
a. This makes sure that the NLG does not extend with the doors closed.
b. This makes sure that the NLG does not retract with the doors closed.
c. This makes sure that the NLG does not extend or retract with the doors closed.
the towing power switch (on the p5 window heat panel) enables the bscus and ebpsus to operate from the:
a. Main TRU´s
b. Main battery.
c. Power supply.
When the MLG control valve module moves to the up position, the actuators get pressure. This pulls the MLG to the retract position. When the MLG control valve module is in the down position, the actuators do not get pressure (the MLG falls by gravity).
A. true
B. false
How can you be assured when the CCS applications are available, during a battery only APU start?
a. EICAS message ccs normal.
b. APU run EICAS message.
c. The CDU page format is visible on the lower display unit.
When the APU is automatically commanded on in flight?
a. loss of one engine
b. loss of two generators
c. loss of three or more generators
APU fuel is supplied from the left fuel manifold by any operating ac fuel pump, or by the dc fuel pump in the left main tank. With ac power available, and the APU selector in the on position, the___________ fuel pump is commanded on regardless of flight deck position.
a. left aft
b. left forward
c. right aft
How many fuel cross feed valves are there on the 787?
a. two
b. one
The fuel shutoff module gives emergency power to close the fuel shutoff valves for the engines and the APU.
The fuel balance system corrects imbalances in the main tanks faster than traditional crossfeed operations.
a. it is an automatic operation, when selected
b. The system may be used on the ground.
c. both are correct
The defuel system can also be used to transfer fuel from any tank to any other tank.
a. The suction method uses suction from the fuel truck to transfer the fuel.
b. The pressure method uses airplane fuel pumps to move the fuel from the tanks to a fuel truck.
APU fuel feed is an automatic task that is controlled by
a. the APU Controller (APUC)
b. The fuel quantity management system (FQMS) function.
c. the apu dc fuel pump.
Which of these are composite materials?
a. Bricks made from mud and Straw, Concrete with steel bars inside, Tin and copper melted together to make bronze.
b. Concrete with steel bars inside, Plywood, Bricks made from mud and Straw.
c. Concrete with steel bars inside, Bricks made from mud and Straw, Engineered fibers in a high performance resin.
What are the properties of an Allowable Damage Limit (ADL)?
a. The maximum damage allowed to a specific aircraft structural member, Identified in the Toolbox structural repair data, Used to determine if a repair is necessary, Usually applies to hidden structural damage
b. Used to determine if a repair is necessary, Identified in the Toolbox structural repair data, The maximum damage allowed to a specific aircraft structural member, Usually applies to hidden structural damage
c. Identified in the Toolbox structural repair data, the maximum damage allowed to a specific aircraft structural member, used to determine if a repair is necessary.
Is it possible to pressurize the airplane with bleed air from the APU?
a. YES at any altitude
b. NO
c. YES up to 27.000 ft. of altitude
Can you replace the APU lubrication and scavenge pumps?
a. YES, they are part of the gearbox.
b. NO, they are not an LRU and are part of the gearbox.
What cools the APU oil?
a. Airflow and fuel-flow through the oil coolers
b. Airflow and fuel-flow through the oil bypass system
c. Hydflow and fuel-flow through the oil coolers
What are the 2 purposes of the deprime valve?
a. Closes during a cold start to allow gearbox air to go to the supply pump, Opens at shutdown to return oil to the gearbox area.
b. Opens during a cold start to allow gearbox air to go to the supply pump, Opens at shutdown to return oil to the gearbox area.
How does the APU controller (APUC) control the speed of the APU?
a. The APUC controls the speed of the dc motor-driven pump in the fuel module, which delivers more or less fuel to operate the APU. More fuel equals a faster APU speed.
b. The APUC controls the speed of the dc gear-driven pump in the fuel module, which delivers more or less fuel to operate the APU. More fuel equals a faster APU speed.
A fuel solenoid fails. To repair the fault you must:
a. Replace the fuel module.
b. Replace or adjust the fuel solenoid valve.
The APU autostart system is armed in flight. What conditions cause the APUC to start the APU?
a. If there are less than 1 variable frequency starter generators (VFSG) online while in flight.
b. If there are less than 2 variable frequency starter generators (VFSG) online while in flight.
c. If there are less than 3 variable frequency starter generators (VFSG) online while in flight.
You shut down the APU from the P40 panel. The APU shuts down:
a. Immediately.
b. After the cool down period.
The engine cowl power door opening system (PDOS) usually operates:
a. With an electric motor and hydraulic actuators.
b. With 28v dc linear actuators.
c. Manually.
What sensor is in the inlet area forward of the fan?
a. P20/T10
b. P20/T20
c. P20/T30
How does wind affect the engine inlet hazard area?
a. The inlet hazard area should be increased by 20% if the wind is more than 25kts.
b. The inlet hazard area should be increased by 25% if the wind is more than 30kts.
c. The inlet hazard area should be increased by 30% if the wind is more than 35kts.
How many fan blades does the engine have? From what material are they made?
a. There are 15 hollow titanium, low speed, wide-chord swept Fan Blades.
b. There are 20 hollow titanium, low speed, wide-chord swept Fan Blades.
c. There are 25 hollow titanium, low speed, wide-chord swept Fan Blades.
How do you manually turn the HP shaft?
a. By attaching a motor tool to the worm drive at the Intermediate Gearbox also known as the Step Aside Gearbox.
b. By attaching a special drive tool to the worm drive at the Main Gearbox also known as the Step Aside Gearbox.
c. By attaching a special drive tool to the worm drive at the Intermediate Gearbox also known as the Step Aside Gearbox.
How do you manually turn the IP shaft?
a. There is a drive behind a cover at the centrifugal breather to turn the LP spool.
b. There is a drive behind a cover at the centrifugal breather to turn the IP spool.
c. There is a drive behind a cover at the centrifugal breather to turn the HP spool.
What components in the HMU help control the pump output?
a. The pressure drive control valve (PDCV) and the control and spill valve (CSV).
b. The pressure drop combining valve (PDCV) and the combining and spill valve (CSV).
c. The pressure drop control valve (PDCV) and the combining and spill valve (CSV).
What controls the quantity of fuel that goes to the fuel nozzles?
a. The FMU.
b. The HMU.
c. The EEC.
When you move the fuel control switch to the CUTOFF position, what valves in the engine fuel system close?
a. The PDCV in the EEC and the fuel spar valve (the FMV in the HMU is also driven to the closed position by the EEC).
b. The PRSOV in the HMU and the fuel spar valve (the FMV in the HMU is also driven to the closed position by the EEC).
What is the source of electrical power for the EEC?
a. 235 v ac from the airplane but once the engine is running the permanent magnet alternator.
b. 28 v dc from the airplane but once the engine is running the permanent magnet alternator.
c. 115 v ac from the airplane but once the engine is running the permanent magnet alternator.
During an engine start, does the EEC use 1 or 2 ignition systems?
a. The EEC will use only one ignition system and alternate after every subsequent start (ie: 1, 1, 2, 2, 1, 1, 2, 2).
b. The EEC will use only one ignition system and alternate after every subsequent start (ie: 1, 2, 2, 1, 1, 2, 2,1).
c. The EEC will use only one ignition system and alternate after every subsequent start (ie: 2, 1, 2, 1, 2, 1, 2, 1).
What component supplies power to the variable frequency starter generators (VFSG) during an engine start?
a. CMSC
b. VFSG
c. ASG
What are the electrical power sources necessary for an engine start?
a. External power (1 forward minimum), ASG, VFSG from the other engine.
b. External power (2 forward minimum), ASG, VFSG from the other engine.
c. External power (3 forward and aft), ASG, VFSG from the other engine.
Starter cutout occurs when the N2 speed gets to ______ percent.
a. 46.7% N2.
b. 50% N2.
c. 60% N2.
a. Fan air.
b. HP air.
c. IP air.
What is the purpose of the secondary air system (SAS) valve?
a. It opens to supplement IP8 cooling and sealing air with HP3 air during starting and low power conditions to prevent oil loss from the bearing chambers.
b. It opens to supplement HP8 cooling and sealing air with LP3 air during starting and low power conditions to prevent oil loss from the bearing chambers.
What is the purpose of the thrust reverser lockout solenoid?
a. Located in the engine, it prevents the movement of the reverse thrust levers if the thrust levers are not at idle.
b. Located in the thrust control module, it prevents the movement of the reverse thrust levers if the thrust levers are not at idle.
What function in the EEC senses an engine uncommanded thrust increase?
a. secondary air system (SAS)
b. Low Press Turbine Active Clearance Control (LPTACC)
c. Thrust control malfunction accommodation (TCMA).
What data does the engine electronic controller (EEC) use to calculate TPR? Select the incorrect response.
a. P30 (high pressure compressor (HPC) exit pressure)
b. LP turbine exit temperature (T50)
c. Turbine gas temperature (TGT)
d. Inlet pressure and temperature - from the P20/T20 probe.
What component calculates the engine trim balance solutions?
a. EEC
b. EMU
c. GPM in CCR
What is used to monitor the position of the thrust reverser translating sleeves?
a. The thrust reverser feedback unit. It connects the upper and lower actuator flexible drive shafts and monitors the position of the sleeve with an RVDT and reports to the CCS.
b. The thrust reverser feedback unit. It connects the upper and lower actuator flexible drive shafts and monitors the position of the sleeve with an LVDT and reports to the EEC.
Which engine oil parameter goes through the MEDC to EICAS?
a. Oil temperature is the only oil parameter that goes through the MEDC, all other go through the EEC.
b. Oil quantity is the only oil parameter that goes through the MEDC, all other go through the EEC.
c. Oil press is the only oil parameter that goes through the MEDC, all other go through the EEC.
What are the properties of an allowable damage limit (ADL)? Select the incorrect response.
a. The maximum damage allowed to a specific aircraft structural member
b. Identified in the Toolbox structural repair data
c. Usually applies to hidden structural damage
d. Used to determine if a repair is necessary
The ramp damage checker: Select the incorrect response.
a. Uses a yellow light to show a stringer or a built-up area with more plies.
b. May be necessary by the structural repair data as part of the close visual inspection process.
c. Uses a green light to indicate no change in material thickness.
d. Uses a red light to indicate change in material thickness or delamination.
How does a passenger control the electronically dimmable windows (EDW)?
a. By individual selection of a 3 position selector switch below the window.
b. By individual selection of a 4 position selector switch below the window.
c. By individual selection of a 5 position selector switch below the window.
What type of flight crew emergency escape devices does the 787 have? Where are they stored?
a. There are 1 Inertia Reels in the Flight Deck ceiling forward of the Observers Seats.
b. There are 2 Inertia Reels in the Flight Deck ceiling forward of the Observers Seats.
c. There are 4 Inertia Reels in the Flight Deck ceiling forward of the Observers Seats.
The Lavatory fire suppression system is:
a. A portable hand held device.
b. Independent and self contained.
c. Part of the cargo fire protection system (CFPS).
The flight deck oxygen cylinders are made of:
a. stainless steel
b. wire-wound aluminum
c. graphite composite.
During your walk around you see a yellow indication at the oxygen system overboard discharge point. What does this show?
a. The flight deck oxygen system has had an internal over pressure relief and the yellow disc has been blown out.
b. The flight deck oxygen system has had an internal over pressure relief and the green disc has been blown out.
c. The flight deck oxygen system has had an internal over pressure relief and the white disc has been blown out.
Why does the passenger oxygen mask not have a reservoir bag?
a. The Passenger Oxygen system only dispenses oxygen when there is demand. There is no continuous flow of oxygen using the Pulse type system.
b. The Passenger Oxygen system only dispenses oxygen when there is demand. There is no continuous flow of oxygen using the Oxygen Generators Pulse type system.
Where are the PDUs?
a. The self lift PDUs are in the ball panel area and the spring lift PDU’s are in the roller tray areas.
b. The self lift PDUs are in spring lift roller tray areas and the PDU’s are in the ball panel area
The emergency power assist system (EPAS) is used on:
a. Type A passenger entry doors only.
b. All passenger entry doors.
c. Type C passenger entry doors only.
What is the source of heat to prevent ice on the engine cowling leading edge?
a. Engine bleed air
b. Electrical mats
c. ECS packs air
What component kills bacteria and viruses during the potable water fill operation?
a. High efficiency water treatment filters
b. UV water treatment unit
c. Ultrasonic water treatment unit