Allison Mernka
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CISSP Information Security Quiz on CISSP Official Study Guide Questions (19-21), created by Allison Mernka on 14/12/2021.

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CISSP Official Study Guide Questions (19-21)

Question 1 of 60

1

What is a computer crime?

Select one of the following:

  • Any attack specifically listed in your security policy

  • Any illegal attack that compromises a protected computer

  • Any violation of a law or regulation that involves a computer

  • Failure to practice due diligence in computer security

Explanation

Question 2 of 60

1

What is the main purpose of a military and intelligence attack?

Select one of the following:

  • To attack the availability of military systems

  • To obtain secret and restricted information from military or law enforcement sources

  • To utilize military or intelligence agency systems to attack other nonmilitary sites

  • To compromise military systems for use in attacks against other systems

Explanation

Question 3 of 60

1

What type of attack targets proprietary information stored on a civilian organization's system.

Select one of the following:

  • Business attack

  • Denial of service attack

  • Financial attack

  • Military and intelligence attack

Explanation

Question 4 of 60

1

What goal is not a purpose of a financial attack?

Select one of the following:

  • Access services you have not purchased

  • Disclose confidential personal employee information

  • Transfer funds from an unapproved source into your account

  • Steal money from another organization

Explanation

Question 5 of 60

1

Which one of the following attacks is most indicative of a terrorist attack?

Select one of the following:

  • Altering sensitive trade secret documents

  • Damaging the ability to communicate and respond to a physical attack

  • Stealing unclassified information

  • Transferring funds to other countries

Explanation

Question 6 of 60

1

Which of the following would not be a primary goal of a grudge attack?

Select one of the following:

  • Disclosing embarrassing personal information

  • Launching a virus on an organization's system

  • Sending inappropriate email with a spoofed origination address of the victim organization

  • Using automated tools to scan the organization's systems for vulnerable ports

Explanation

Question 7 of 60

1

What are the primary reasons attackers engage in thrill attacks? (Choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Bragging rights

  • Money from the sale of stolen documents

  • Pride of conquering a secure system

  • Retaliation against a person or organization

Explanation

Question 8 of 60

1

What is the most important rule to follow when collecting evidence?

Select one of the following:

  • Do not turn off a computer until you photograph the screen

  • List all people present while collecting evidence

  • Never modify evidence during the collection process

  • Transfer all equipment to a secure storage location

Explanation

Question 9 of 60

1

What would be a valid argument for not immediately removing power from a machine when an incident is disovered?

Select one of the following:

  • All of the damage has been done. Turning the machine off would not stop additional damage.

  • There is no other system that can replace this one if it is turned off.

  • Too many users are logged in and using the system.

  • Valuable evidence in memory will be lost.

Explanation

Question 10 of 60

1

Hacktivists are motivated by which of the following factors? (Choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Financial gain

  • Thrill

  • Skill

  • Political beliefs

Explanation

Question 11 of 60

1

Which one of the following investigation types has the highest standard of evidence?

Select one of the following:

  • Administrative

  • Civil

  • Criminal

  • Regulatory

Explanation

Question 12 of 60

1

During an operational investigation, what type of analysis might an organization undertake to prevent similar incidents in the future?

Select one of the following:

  • Forensic analysis

  • Root-cause analysis

  • Network traffic analysis

  • Fagan analysis

Explanation

Question 13 of 60

1

What step of the Electronic Discovery Reference Model ensures that information that may be subject to discovery is not altered?

Select one of the following:

  • Preservation

  • Production

  • Processing

  • Presentation

Explanation

Question 14 of 60

1

Gary is a system administrator and is testifying in court about a cybercrime incident. He brings server logs to support his testimony. What type of evidence are the server logs?

Select one of the following:

  • Real evidence

  • Documentary evidence

  • Parol evidence

  • Testimonial evidence

Explanation

Question 15 of 60

1

If you need to confiscate a PC from a suspected attacker who does not work for your organization, what legal avenue is most appropriate?

Select one of the following:

  • Consent agreement signed by employees.

  • Search warrant.

  • No legal avenue is necessary.

  • Voluntary consent.

Explanation

Question 16 of 60

1

Why should you avoid deleting log files on a daily basis?

Select one of the following:

  • An incident may not be discovered for several days and valuable evidence could be lost.

  • Disk space is cheap, and log files are used frequently.

  • Log files are protected and cannot be altered.

  • Any information in a log file is useless after it is several hours old.

Explanation

Question 17 of 60

1

What phase of the Electronic Discovery Reference Model examines information to remove information subject to attorney-client privilege?

Select one of the following:

  • Identification

  • Collection

  • Processing

  • Review

Explanation

Question 18 of 60

1

What are ethics?

Select one of the following:

  • Mandatory actions required to fulfill job requirements

  • Laws of professional conduct

  • Regulations set forth by a professional organization

  • Rules of personal behavior

Explanation

Question 19 of 60

1

According to the (ISC)2 Code of Ethics, how are CISSPs expected to act?

Select one of the following:

  • Honestly, diligently, responsibly, and legally

  • Honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally

  • Upholding the security policy and protecting the organization

  • Trustworthy, loyally, friendly, courteously

Explanation

Question 20 of 60

1

Which of the following actions are considered unacceptable and unethical according to RFC 1087, "Ethics and the Internet"?

Select one of the following:

  • Actions that compromise the privacy of classified information

  • Actions that compromise the privacy of users

  • Actions that disrupt organizational activities

  • Actions in which a computer is used in a manner inconsistent with a stated security policy

Explanation

Question 21 of 60

1

Which one of the following is not a component of the DevOps model?

Select one of the following:

  • Information security

  • Software development

  • Quality assurance

  • IT operations

Explanation

Question 22 of 60

1

Bob is developing a software application and has a field where users may enter a date. He wants to ensure that the values provided by the users are accurate dates to prevent security issues. What technique should Bob use?

Select one of the following:

  • Polyinstantiation

  • Input validation

  • Contamination

  • Screening

Explanation

Question 23 of 60

1

What portion of the change management process allows developers to prioritize tasks?

Select one of the following:

  • Release control

  • Configuration control

  • Request control

  • Change audit

Explanation

Question 24 of 60

1

What approach to failure management places the system in a high level of security?

Select one of the following:

  • Fail-open

  • Fail mitigation

  • Fail-secure

  • Fail clear

Explanation

Question 25 of 60

1

What software development model uses a seven stage approach with a feedback loop that allows progress one step backward?

Select one of the following:

  • Boyce-Codd

  • Waterfall

  • Spiral

  • Agile

Explanation

Question 26 of 60

1

What form of access control is concerned primarily with the data stored by a field?

Select one of the following:

  • Content dependent

  • Context dependent

  • Semantic integrity mechanisms

  • Perturbation

Explanation

Question 27 of 60

1

Which one of the following key types is used to enforce referential integrity between database tables?

Select one of the following:

  • Candidate key

  • Primary key

  • Foreign key

  • Super key

Explanation

Question 28 of 60

1

Richard believes that a database user is misusing his privileges to gain informaiton about the company's overall business trends by issuing queries that combine data from a large number of records. What process is the database user taking advantage of?

Select one of the following:

  • Inference

  • Contamination

  • Polyinstantiation

  • Aggregation

Explanation

Question 29 of 60

1

What database technique can be used to prevent unauthorized users from determining classified information by noticing the absence of information normally available to them?

Select one of the following:

  • Inference

  • Manipulation

  • Polyinstantiation

  • Aggregation

Explanation

Question 30 of 60

1

Which one of the following is not a principle of Agile development?

Select one of the following:

  • Satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery

  • Business people and developers work together

  • Pay continuous attention to technical excellence

  • Prioritize security over other requirements

Explanation

Question 31 of 60

1

What type of information is used to form the basis of an expert system's decision making process?

Select one of the following:

  • A series of weighted layered computations

  • Combined input from a number of human experts, weighted according to past performance

  • A series of "if/then" rules codified in a knowledge base

  • A biological decision making process that simulates the reasoning process used by the human mind

Explanation

Question 32 of 60

1

In which pase of the SW-CMM does an organization use quantitative measures to gain a detailed understanding of the development process?

Select one of the following:

  • Initial

  • Repeatable

  • Defined

  • Managed

Explanation

Question 33 of 60

1

Which of the following acts as a proxy between an application and a database to support interaction and simplify the work of programmers?

Select one of the following:

  • SDLC

  • ODBC

  • DSS

  • Abstraction

Explanation

Question 34 of 60

1

In what type of software testing does the tester have access to the underlying source code?

Select one of the following:

  • Static testing

  • Dynamic testing

  • Cross site scripting testing

  • Black box testing

Explanation

Question 35 of 60

1

What type of chart provides a graphical illustration of a schedule that helps to plan, coordinate, and track project tasks?

Select one of the following:

  • Gantt

  • Venn

  • Bar

  • PERT

Explanation

Question 36 of 60

1

Which database security risk occurs when data from a higher classification level is mixed with data from a lower classification level?

Select one of the following:

  • Aggregation

  • Inference

  • Contamination

  • Polyinstantiation

Explanation

Question 37 of 60

1

What database security technology involves creating two or more rows with seemingly identical primary keys that contain different data for users with different security clearances?

Select one of the following:

  • Polyinstantiation

  • Cell suppression

  • Aggregation

  • Views

Explanation

Question 38 of 60

1

Which one of the following is not part of the change management process?

Select one of the following:

  • Request control

  • Release control

  • Configuration audit

  • Change control

Explanation

Question 39 of 60

1

What transaction management principle ensures that two transactions do not interfere with each other as they operate on the same data?

Select one of the following:

  • Atomicity

  • Consistency

  • Isolation

  • Durability

Explanation

Question 40 of 60

1

Tom built a database table consisting of the names, telephone numbers, and customer IDs for his business. The table contains information on 30 customers. What is the degree of this table?

Select one of the following:

  • Two

  • Three

  • Thirty

  • Undefined

Explanation

Question 41 of 60

1

What is the most commonly used technique to protect against virus attacks?

Select one of the following:

  • Signature detection

  • Heuristic detection

  • Data integrity assurance

  • Automated reconstruction

Explanation

Question 42 of 60

1

You are the security administrator for an e-commerce company and are placing a new web server into production. What network zone should you use?

Select one of the following:

  • Internet

  • DMZ

  • Intranet

  • Sandbox

Explanation

Question 43 of 60

1

Which one of the following types of attacks relies on the difference between the timing of two events?

Select one of the following:

  • Smurf

  • TOCTTOU

  • Land

  • Fraggle

Explanation

Question 44 of 60

1

Which one of the following techniques is most closely associated with APT attacks?

Select one of the following:

  • Zero-day exploit

  • Social engineering

  • Trojan horse

  • SQL injection

Explanation

Question 45 of 60

1

What advanced virus technique modifies the malicious code of a virus on each system it infects?

Select one of the following:

  • Polymorphism

  • Stealth

  • Encryption

  • Multipartitism

Explanation

Question 46 of 60

1

Which one of the following tools provides a solution to the problem of users forgetting complex passwords?

Select one of the following:

  • LastPass

  • Crack

  • Shadow password files

  • Tripwire

Explanation

Question 47 of 60

1

What type of application vulnerability most directly allows an attacker to modify the contents of a system's memory?

Select one of the following:

  • Rootkit

  • Back door

  • TOC/TOU

  • Buffer overflow

Explanation

Question 48 of 60

1

Which one of the following passwords is least likely to be compromised during a dictionary attack?

Select one of the following:

  • mike

  • elppa

  • dayorange

  • fsas3a1G

Explanation

Question 49 of 60

1

What technique may be used to limit the effectiveness of rainbow table attacks?

Select one of the following:

  • hashing

  • salting

  • digital signatures

  • transport encryption

Explanation

Question 50 of 60

1

What character should always be treated carefully when encountered as user input on a web form?

Select one of the following:

  • !

  • &

  • *

  • '

Explanation

Question 51 of 60

1

What database technology, if implemented for web forms, can limit the potential for SQL injection attacks?

Select one of the following:

  • Triggers

  • Stored procedures

  • Column encryption

  • Concurrency control

Explanation

Question 52 of 60

1

What type of reconnaissance attack provides attackers with useful information about the services running on a system?

Select one of the following:

  • Sesison hijacking

  • Port scan

  • Dumpster diving

  • IP sweep

Explanation

Question 53 of 60

1

What condition is necessary on a web page for it to be used in a cros-site scripting attack?

Select one of the following:

  • Reflected input

  • Database driven content

  • .NET technology

  • CGI scripts

Explanation

Question 54 of 60

1

What type of virus utilizes more than one propagation techniqe to maximize the number of penetrated systems?

Select one of the following:

  • Stealth virus

  • Companion virus

  • Polymorphic virus

  • Mulipartite virus

Explanation

Question 55 of 60

1

What is the most effective defense against cross-site scripting attacks?

Select one of the following:

  • Limiting account privileges?

  • Input validation

  • User authentication

  • Encryption

Explanation

Question 56 of 60

1

What worm was the first to cause major physical damage to a facility?

Select one of the following:

  • Stuxnet

  • Code Red

  • Melissa

  • RTM

Explanation

Question 57 of 60

1

Ben's system was infected by malicious code that modified the operating system to allow the malicious code author to gain access to his files. What type of exploit did this attacker engage in?

Select one of the following:

  • Escalation of privilege

  • Back door

  • Rootkit

  • Buffer overflow

Explanation

Question 58 of 60

1

What technology does the Java language use to minimize the threat posed by applets?

Select one of the following:

  • Confidentiality

  • Encryption

  • Stealth

  • Sandbox

Explanation

Question 59 of 60

1

What HTML tag is often used as part of a cross site scripting (XSS) attack?

Select one of the following:

  • <HI>

  • <HEAD>

  • <XSS>

  • <SCRIPT>

Explanation

Question 60 of 60

1

When designing firewall rules to prevent IP spoofing, which of the following principles should you follow?

Select one of the following:

  • Packets with internal source IP addresses don't enter the network from the outside

  • Packets with internal source IP addresses don't exit the network from the inside

  • Packets with public IP addresses don't pass through the router in either direction

  • Packets with external source IP addresses don't enter the network from the outside

Explanation

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