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Quiz on PSC 1, created by Shivering Cactus on 28/12/2021.

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PSC 1

Question 1 of 200

1

The primary purpose of physical security is prevention and protection.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

The _________________________ provides oversight in mission assurance efforts on issues that cut across all DoD protection programs and functions as an Office of Secretary of Defense (OSD) and Joint Staff-level management and decision support forum.

Select one of the following:

  • Antiterrorism Executive Committee

  • Mission Assurance Senior Steering Group

  • Threat Working Group

  • Antiterrorism Working Group

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are facility access control procedures?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Entry and exit inspections

  • Electronic gate

  • Identification systems

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

Which of the following physical security countermeasures serve as a security system response force?

Select one of the following:

  • Security forces

  • Antiterrorism Working Group

  • Counterintelligence

  • OPSEC Personnel

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following protective measures can make doors more attack-resistant?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Install solid steel doors

  • Mount cameras on the roof

  • Limit the number of entrances and exits to what is necessary

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

Commanders should comply with and integrate DoD physical security and installation access control policies into their Force Protection Conditions (FPCON) plans.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

In order to plan and implement effective physical security measures, you must use the __________________ to determine where and how to allocate your security resources.

Select one of the following:

  • risk management process

  • threat assessment process

  • operation assessment process

  • vulnerability assessment process

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

______________ are provided to senior leaders to assist in determining the appropriate Force Protection Condition (FPCON) level.

Select one of the following:

  • Antiterrorism countermeasures

  • Physical security layer strategies

  • Threat levels

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

Which of the following establishes duties and responsibilities that assist in maintaining operational order during both normal and stressful situations?

Select one of the following:

  • Standard Operating Procedures and Post Orders

  • Standard Operating Procedures and the Physical Security Plan

  • Post Orders and the Physical Security Plan

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

Security systems such as intrusion detection systems (IDS) and closed circuit television (CCTV) systems are countermeasures.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

Who is responsible for physical security planning, coordination, and integration of identified mission essential capabilities?

Select one of the following:

  • OPSEC Officer

  • CI Support

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • Installation Commander/Facility Director

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

Inspections can ensure compliance with the physical security plan, verify policy compliance, and promote cost effective security.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

Which of the following is the purpose of an interior intrusion detection system (IDS)?

Select one of the following:

  • To provide a complete solution to a facility security posture.

  • To terminate any intrusion into a facility.

  • To deter, detect, and document intrusion in the environment.

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

_____________ have reinforced concrete on all walls, ceilings, and floors and hardened steel doors.

Select one of the following:

  • Secure rooms

  • Vaults

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

Which threat level signifies terrorists are present but there are no indications of anti-U.S. activity and the Operating Environment favors the Host Nation or the U.S.?

Select one of the following:

  • Significant

  • Low

  • High

  • Moderate

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

The primary purpose of physical security is ____________ and protection.

Select one of the following:

  • attacking intruders

  • prevention

  • security-in-depth

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

Which of the following best defines security-in-depth?

Select one of the following:

  • The use of fencing around the perimeter of a structure

  • The use of barriers around the perimeter of a structure

  • The layering of physical security measures through the application of active and passive complementary security controls

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

_______________________ is the most common protective lighting system, consisting of a series of fixed lights arranged to flood an area with overlapping cones of light.

Select one of the following:

  • Continuous lighting

  • Standby lighting

  • Movable lighting

  • Emergency

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

Which of the following is conducted by a senior official to ensure regulatory requirements are being met and include assist visits, command inspections, and Inspector General (IG) inspections?

Select one of the following:

  • Self-Inspection

  • Internal Control Inspection

  • Compliance Inspection

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

Which of the following establishes duties and responsibilities that assist in maintaining operational order during both normal and stressful situations?

Select one of the following:

  • Standard Operating Procedures and Post Orders

  • Standard Operating Procedures and the Physical Security Plan

  • Post Orders and the Physical Security Plan

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Security Forces may be comprised of which of the following?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Military working dogs

  • Mission Assurance Senior Steering Group

  • DoD civilian personnel

  • Military and contract personnel

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

Which of the following is defined as defensive measures used to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist attacks, to include limited response and containment?

Select one of the following:

  • Antiterrorism

  • Physical Security Plan

  • Threat Level Indicators

  • Force Protection

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

When required, the two-person concept may be part of a facility access control method.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

Commanders should comply with and integrate DoD physical security and installation access control policies into their Force Protection Conditions (FPCON) plans.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are types of inspections that can ensure compliance with the physical security plan?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Internal Control Inspection

  • Self-inspection

  • Compliance inspection

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

__________ authorizes commanders to issue regulations for the protection or security of property and places under their command and establishes guidelines to build consistent minimum standards for protecting DoD installations and resources.

Select one of the following:

  • DoDM 5200.01

  • DoDI 5200.08

  • DoD 5200.08-R

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

GSA-approved security containers can be used to store classified information, weapons, and sensitive items.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

The two primary purposes of physical security are protection and _______________?

Select one of the following:

  • Security-in-depth

  • Prevention

  • Point security

  • Area security

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

A guard checking IDs at the gate of an installation is a good example of what type of security?

Select one of the following:

  • Security-in-depth

  • Prevention

  • Point security

  • Area security

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

___________ is the layering of physical security countermeasures such as fencing, guards, cameras, lighting, and locks.

Select one of the following:

  • Security-in-depth

  • Prevention

  • Point security

  • Area security

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

Before you can conduct a risk analysis based on the impact and likelihood of an unwanted event happening, what steps in the risk management process must you take first?
Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Identify assets

  • Identify threats

  • Determine countermeasure options

  • Identify vulnerabilities

  • Make risk management decisions

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

Which policy guidance would you consult to find the minimum standards for the physical protection of DoD assets?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD 5200.08-R, Physical Security Program

  • DoDI 5200.08, Security of DoD Installations and Resources and the DoD Physical Security Review Board (PSRB)

  • DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4 DoD Information Security Program

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

Which policy should you consult to find the physical security requirements of protecting classified information?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD 5200.08-R, Physical Security Program

  • DoDI 5200.08, Security of DoD Installations and Resources and the DoD Physical Security Review Board (PSRB)

  • DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4 DoD Information Security Program

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

Which policy authorizes commanders to issue regulations for the protection or security of property and places under their command?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD 5200.08-R, Physical Security Program

  • DoDI 5200.08, Security of DoD Installations and Resources and the DoD Physical Security Review Board (PSRB)

  • DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4 DoD Information Security Program

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

Who is charged with management, implementation, and direction of all physical security programs?

Select one of the following:

  • Law Enforcement

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • OPSEC Officer

  • CI Support

  • Physical Security Officer

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

Who is responsible for providing valuable information on the capabilities, intentions, and threats of adversaries?

Select one of the following:

  • Law Enforcement

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • OPSEC Officer

  • CI Support

  • Physical Security Officer

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

Who is responsible for developing countermeasures against potential threats to national security and other DoD assets?

Select one of the following:

  • Law Enforcement

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • OPSEC Officer

  • CI Support

  • Physical Security Officer

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

Which of the following individuals should be included in a Threat Working Group?
Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Antiterrorism Officer

  • Counterintelligence (CI) representative

  • Law enforcement representative

  • Operations security officer

  • Information operations representative

  • Chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear and high yield explosive representative

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

Which of these can be made of solid steel to make them more attack resistant?

Select one of the following:

  • Walls

  • Doors

  • Windows

  • Roofs

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

Which of these house ventilation systems that should be secured with steel bars?

Select one of the following:

  • Walls

  • Doors

  • Windows

  • Roofs

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

Which of these should be covered with a protective film to make them less dangerous in an attack?

Select one of the following:

  • Walls

  • Doors

  • Windows

  • Roofs

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

Which of the following locks are approved to secure classified information or material?
Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Kaba Mas X-10

  • S&G 8077/AD

  • S&G 833 C

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

Standby lighting is used when regular lighting is not available.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

Site lighting is used to enable guard force personnel to observe activities inside or outside the installation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

Movable lighting is used when supplemental lighting is needed such as at construction sites.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

At a minimum _________ should include special and general guard orders, access and material control, protective barriers, lighting systems, locks, and Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS).

Select one of the following:

  • Standard Operating Procedures

  • Physical Security Plans

  • Post Orders

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

________ establish duties, roles, and responsibilities at individual assignments, checkpoints, gates, and guard posts.

Select one of the following:

  • Standard Operating Procedures

  • Physical Security Plans

  • Post Orders

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

___________provide supplemental guidance for physical security programs and establish procedures for emergency events as well as operational and administrative procedures.

Select one of the following:

  • Standard Operating Procedures

  • Physical Security Plans

  • Post Orders

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

Commanders may only implement measures according to the FPCON level in force at the time.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

Commanders must comply with and integrate DoD physical security and installation access control policies into their FPCON plans.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

Commanders educate their personnel on the insider threat to DoD elements and personnel.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

Which of the following is an example of a locking device?

Select one of the following:

  • Bolt

  • Cylinder

  • Key

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

You are considering locking solutions for your facility. When assessing the life safety aspect of the solution, which of the following must be considered?

Select one of the following:

  • fire alarms on doors

  • keeping intruders out

  • emergency exit from a locked door

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

The use of a master key system is not acceptable in ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • barracks

  • general office areas

  • secure areas

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

Which of the following must you do when opening an electromechanical lock such as the X-07, X-08, X-09, and X-10?

Select one of the following:

  • Count the number of dial rotations in between each number in the combination.

  • Turn the dial and stop it when you see the correct number displayed on the LCD.

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

All locks consist of three components, one of which is an operating mechanism. Which of the following is NOT one of the other two components?

Select one of the following:

  • Locking device

  • Switching device

  • Securing device

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

Which of the following should you do before changing a combination?

Select one of the following:

  • Try the combination three times

  • Call your FSO

  • Lock drawer in open position

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

The lock you are using has an LCD rather than a dial with imprinted numbers. You are using _______________________.

Select one of the following:

  • an electromechanical combination lock

  • a combination padlock

  • a mechanical combination lock

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

Under Federal Specification FFL-2937, only the S&G 2740 is approved for use as a mechanical combination lock.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

Which of the following is not a locking device for a key-operated lock?

Select one of the following:

  • Bolt

  • Pin

  • Latch

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

Which type of cylinder provides a locking solution that minimizes the rekeying burden?

Select one of the following:

  • Rim cylinder

  • Interchangeable core cylinder

  • Mortise cylinder

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

When assessing the life safety aspect of a locking solution for a facility door, which of the following must be considered?

Select one of the following:

  • The door must be locked to prevent unauthorized entry, but allow those inside to exit through the door without unlocking it.

  • The door must be locked to prevent unauthorized entry and exit.

  • The door must be unlocked so that those inside can exit without having to unlock the door.

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

A key and lock custodian should change or rotate locks at least _____________.

Select one of the following:

  • monthly

  • annually

  • quarterly

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

  • You may not change a combination without a commercial locksmith.

  • You may never allow a commercial locksmith to change your combination.

  • You may allow a commercial locksmith to change your combination under certain circumstances.

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

Susan Johnson knows the combination to a security container and Susan lost her clearance today, but she was not terminated from her job. What must happen?

Select one of the following:

  • The combination on that security container must be changed.

  • Nothing must happen. Susan knows she’s no longer authorized and will not access the storage container.

  • The security container must be replaced.

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

Which electromechanical lock uses battery power?

Select one of the following:

  • S&G 2740B

  • X-10

  • X-08

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

Which of the following is the purpose of a lock’s switching device?

Select one of the following:

  • To allow or deny entry into a container or area

  • To authorize the locking device to open

  • To keep the area or container secured

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

You need to decide what type of locking system to use for a storage closet. The closet does not hold classified or sensitive information, but you want to deter entry. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?

Select one of the following:

  • A padlock

  • A built-in lock

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

The two primary types of locks used within DoD are ___________ and key locks.

Select one of the following:

  • Biometric

  • Encoded

  • Voice activated

  • Combination

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

Which statement best describes the relationship between a locking solution’s level of protection and its cost and labor effort?

Select one of the following:

  • Locking solutions do not have a correlation between level of protection and cost and labor effort; it simply depends on the specific solution.

  • Locking solutions that provide a higher level of protection are more costly, but less labor-intensive.

  • Locking solutions that provide a higher level of protection are more costly and labor-intensive.

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

Using birth dates when changing combination numbers is acceptable as long as you don’t use your own.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

Pin tumblers are most commonly employed on _______ locks?

Select one of the following:

  • combination

  • tubular

  • cylinder

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

What is not a responsibility of the Key Custodian?

Select one of the following:

  • Audit Keys monthly

  • Change or rotate locks quarterly

  • Audit Locks monthly

  • Keep key control register

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

Which of the following is the switching device for a key-operated lock?

Select one of the following:

  • bolt

  • cylinder

  • key

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

Which of the following is a disadvantage to using a master key system?

Select one of the following:

  • The cost to re-key all of the locks in the system.

  • It is harder to pick the locks.

  • It is harder to copy the locks.

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

The S&G 2937 lock is an example of which type of combination lock?

Select one of the following:

  • mechanical built-in

  • padlock

  • electromechanical built-in

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

Many building codes require a facility’s exit doors to contain which of the following devices?

Select one of the following:

  • An access card

  • Emergency egress hardware

  • A padlock

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

You are making a decision about the locking system to be used in a bulk storage area that contains classified information. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?

Select one of the following:

  • A built-in lock

  • An approved padlock

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

You need to review the requirements that electromechanical locks meet. Which of the following specifications should you reference?

Select one of the following:

  • Federal Specification FF-L-2740B

  • Federal Specification FF-P-110

  • Federal Specification FF-L-2937

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

You need to secure classified information. Which of these locks could you use?

Select one of the following:

  • X-10 electromechanical lock

  • S&G 2740B

  • S&G 2937 Mechanical Lock

  • S&G 8077 padlock

  • All of these locks

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

You need to decide what type of locking system to use for a storage closet. The closet does not hold classified or sensitive information, but you want to deter entry. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?

Select one of the following:

  • A built-in lock

  • A padlock

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

You are making a decision about the locking system to be used in an area that stores bulk Confidential or Secret material. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?

Select one of the following:

  • A built-in lock

  • A padlock

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

The area you are securing contains conventional arms, ammunition, and explosives (AA&E). Which type of key-operated lock should you use?

Select one of the following:

  • A medium security padlock

  • A deadbolt lock

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

You have chosen locking systems for several areas in your facility. Which of the following guidelines should you now follow when considering key control? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Protect keys and locks at the same level as classified information they are safeguarding.

  • Maintain a key and lock register.

  • Replace keys and locks if they are lost or compromised.

  • Do not remove keys from certain premises.

  • Do not create master keys.

  • Appoint a key and lock custodian to ensure proper custody and handling of locks and keys.

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

Which of the following are true of master key systems? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • The great grand master key opens all of the locks in the system.

  • Replacing a lost master key is inexpensive.

  • They are convenient for managers.

  • They are not authorized for DoD use in barracks.

  • Because of their inherent security risks, their use is discouraged.

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

Switching device: authorizes the operating mechanism to open the lock

Select one of the following:

  • Cylinder

  • Combination

  • Latch

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

Operating mechanism: interacts with the switching device to allow or deny entry

Select one of the following:

  • Cylinder

  • Combination

  • Latch

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

Locking device: physically secures area or container

Select one of the following:

  • Cylinder

  • Combination

  • Latch

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

You are selecting combination locks for your facility and must consider the requirements and features of various combination locks. Which locks are currently being produced and which would you use?

Select one of the following:

  • S&G 2740B and Kaba Mas X-10

  • S&G 8088 and Kaba Mas X-09

  • Kaba Mas X-07 and X-08

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

What type of lock is S&G 2740?

Select one of the following:

  • Mechanical combination lock

  • Electromechanical combination lock

  • High security operated padlock

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

If you overshoot your combination when dialing the S&G 2740 lock, what should you do?

Select one of the following:

  • Back up to the number

  • Continue rotating the dial in the same direction for an extra turn, then stop precisely on the desired number

  • Restart the process all over again

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

You just received a security container that has the S&G 2740 Electromechanical Safe Lock with a factory setting of 50-25-50. What should you do first?

Select one of the following:

  • Change the combination

  • Open the lock

  • Calibrate the lock

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

You are responsible for creating, protecting, and changing combinations in your facility. Which of the following guidelines should you follow? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Do not write a combination down.

  • Do not change a lock’s combination on a Friday or the day before you go on leave.

  • Change a lock’s combination if the container is discovered unlocked and unattended.

  • Maintain records of who knows lock combinations.

  • Safeguard the combination at appropriate classification level.

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

The S&G 8077/AD combination padlocks are used to secure Secret and Confidential information such as approved bulk and temporary storage indoors.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

What operates most key-operated locks?

Select one of the following:

  • Wheel packs

  • Cylinders

  • Triggers

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

How often should a key and lock custodian audit keys?

Select one of the following:

  • Monthly

  • At each change of custody

  • Annually

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

The S&G 8077/AD combination padlocks must comply with which regulations/specifications?

Select one of the following:

  • Federal Specification FF-P-110

  • Federal Specification FF-L-2937

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

When is it acceptable to change a combination?

Select one of the following:

  • Up to three days before going on leave

  • When a lock is taken out of service

  • On Fridays

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

Which lock is approved under the Federal Specification FF-P-110?

Select one of the following:

  • S&G 2740

  • S&G 2740B

  • S&G 2937

  • S&G 8077

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

Which dial rotation do the X-09 and X-10 electromechanical built-in combination locks have in common?

Select one of the following:

  • left-right-left

  • right only

  • left only

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

What is the locking device for a combination lock?

Select one of the following:

  • Wheel Pack

  • Combination

  • Bolt

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

If you write a combination down, which of the following must you do?

Select one of the following:

  • Keep it locked in your desk drawer

  • Destroy it the same day

  • Protect it in the same manner as the highest level of classified information the combination protects.

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

What lock system is considered for Life Safety?

Select one of the following:

  • LMK 7000

  • S&G 941

  • S&G 2900 PDL

  • X09

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

As a best practice, when a combination is changed, how many times should the new combination by tried before closing the door or drawer?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

What factor affects decisions made about which users may access a lock, time restrictions on locking/unlocking a lock, and automatic versus manual relocking of a lock?

Select one of the following:

  • The level of security needed

  • The cost of a lock

  • Life safety

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

Which of the following locking solutions may be used to secure classified information or material?

Select one of the following:

  • Deadbolt locks

  • Approved key-operated padlocks

  • Cylindrical locks

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

For which of the following areas does the DoD use master key systems?

Select one of the following:

  • General office areas and barracks type settings

  • Ammunition depots

  • Storage of classified information

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

The type of locking device required is determined by the environment and _________.

Select one of the following:

  • Facility classification

  • Authorized personnel

  • Asset type

  • Installation commander

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

Which level of security do key-operated built-in locks provide?

Select one of the following:

  • high

  • low

  • medium

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

Which type of cylinder is most commonly used on inward-opening or front doors?

Select one of the following:

  • Rim cylinder

  • Mortise cylinder

  • Interchangeable core cylinder

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

The only factor that should be considered when selecting an Intrusion Detection System is the criticality of the asset.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

What type of access control system uses verification of an acceptable form of identification such as the Common Access Card, or CAC?

Select one of the following:

  • Manual

  • Combination

  • Biometric

  • Physical

  • Mechanical

  • Automated

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

Controlled lighting is used when it is necessary to limit the brightness of the light.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

What kind of light should be selected in order to enable the security guards to observe intruders at a considerable distance beyond the perimeter?

Select one of the following:

  • Glare projection

  • Emergency projection

  • Downside illumination

  • Standby illumination

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

Response forces ___________________________________ .

Select one of the following:

  • respond to alarms and incidents

  • dispatch response forces and mobile patrols

  • guard a high-priority resource

  • can cover large areas in a timely manner

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

The purpose of an intrusion detection system is to deter, detect, and _____________ intrusion.

Select one of the following:

  • Forbid

  • Prevent

  • Document

  • Thwart

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

A security system with a camera that captures an image, converts it to a video signal, and transmits it to a monitoring station defines _______________________ .

Select one of the following:

  • screening equipment

  • visual monitoring and deterrence

  • access control systems

  • closed circuit television (CCTV)

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

The central point for collecting the alarm status from the Premise Control Units (PCU s) handling the alarms under the control of an IDS is the _______________________________ .

Select one of the following:

  • Transmission line hub

  • Security technology and equipment installation

  • monitoring station

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

Biometric and non-biometric access control systems are examples of the __________________________ type of access control system.

Select one of the following:

  • Combination

  • Automated

  • Manual

  • Mechanical

  • Physical

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

What Security-in-Depth principle is illustrated by a vault with special controls to limit access to only some of the personnel that work within a secure facility?

Select one of the following:

  • control

  • area security

  • enclaving

  • separation

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

What type of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitoring provides local centralized monitoring?

Select one of the following:

  • Proprietary monitoring

  • Central station monitoring

  • Local monitoring

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

A visitor with a record in the Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS) reflecting the appropriate level of access eligibility but who does not have a verified need-to-know for information protected within the controlled area would require ___________________________.

Select one of the following:

  • a visitor badge

  • an "escort required" visitor badge only

  • an "escort required" visitor badge and escort

  • a CAC and escort

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

A closed circuit television (CCTV) is an especially valuable security asset because it can be used effectively without establishing procedures and providing training in its use.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

When is a security force response required?

Select one of the following:

  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) sensor is triggered.

  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is not reporting an alarm.

  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) protects a highly critical asset.

  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) alarm notification is received.

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

Conveyor belt style x-ray machines are classified as what type of screening equipment?

Select one of the following:

  • Pedestrian

  • Fixed

  • Intrusive

  • Portable

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

What are the types of screening equipment most frequently used by the Department of Defense (DoD)?

Select one of the following:

  • Intrusive and unobtrusive

  • Fixed and portable

  • Portable and closed circuit television (CCTV)

  • Detection and reporting

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

What Intrusion Detection System (IDS) operational phase is activated when the Premise Control Unit (PCU) receives signals from sensors in a protected area and incorporates these signals into a communications scheme?

Select one of the following:

  • Response/Assessment

  • Detection

  • Dispatch

  • Reporting

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

What is the preferred method of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitoring?

Select one of the following:

  • Central station monitoring

  • Proprietary monitoring

  • Remote monitoring

  • Local monitoring

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

What type of access control system is a card swipe, with or without a personal identification number, or PIN?

Select one of the following:

  • Combination

  • Physical

  • Manual

  • Automated

  • Biometric

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

How are military working dogs employed by security force members?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Assist in drug testing

  • Assist in law enforcement

  • Assist in detecting explosives

  • Assist in confrontation management

  • Assist in pest control

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

What type of lighting is used when additional lighting is necessary and may be activated by alarm or motion detector?

Select one of the following:

  • Standby lighting

  • Surface lighting

  • Emergency lighting

  • Continuous lighting

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

What are signs, barriers, and fences used for in perimeter protection systems?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Deterring unlawful or unauthorized entry

  • Establishing legal boundaries

  • Preventing all types of penetration

  • Integrating protection assets

  • Preventing observation from outside

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

A waterway is an example of what kind of barrier?

Select one of the following:

  • Clear zone

  • Perimeter

  • Natural

  • Active

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

Active barrier systems define perimeters and ensure only authorized personnel are permitted access.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

When are static observation posts used?

Select one of the following:

  • When continuous surveillance is required.

  • To cover large areas in a timely manner.

  • To monitor alarms and respond to emergencies.

  • To monitor entry to a facility or secure area.

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

The use of _____________________ provides security personnel the ability to visually monitor multiple areas simultaneously.

Select one of the following:

  • access control

  • closed circuit television (CCTV)

  • a visual deterrent system

  • screening equipment

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

What does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) detect?

Select one of the following:

  • Only unauthorized intrusions

  • A change in the state of an indoor detection device by a change in outdoor environmental devices

  • A change in state of detection devices that may require further investigation

  • Prevention of an unauthorized intrusion

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

Integrating layers of security to protect DoD assets is

Select one of the following:

  • Point Security

  • Enclaving

  • Area Security

  • Security-in-depth

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

Guarding a specific asset or resource is

Select one of the following:

  • Point Security

  • Enclaving

  • Area Security

  • Security-in-depth

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

Protecting an entire area such as an installation or facility is called

Select one of the following:

  • Point Security

  • Enclaving

  • Area Security

  • Security-in-depth

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

Designating islands of high security within a sea of moderate security is called

Select one of the following:

  • Point Security

  • Enclaving

  • Area Security

  • Security-in-depth

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

Barbed wire and concertina wire may serve as a protective barrier by simply uncoiling it and laying it on the ground.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

Barbed wire is also known as razor wire.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

Jersey barriers may be placed around buildings to prevent vehicles from getting too close to the buildings.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

Rapidly flowing rivers are considered active barriers.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

Which of the following protective barriers would most likely be utilized for its decorative appeal? Select the best answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Trench

  • Berm

  • Concrete planter

  • Jersey barrier

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

To be effective, clear zones should be free of which of the following? Select the best answer.

Select one of the following:

  • Trimmed grass

  • Bushes

  • Dirt

  • Fencing

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

This method is intended to display a silhouette of any person passing between the light source and the building or to show the contrast of a person inside the building.

Select one of the following:

  • Glare Projection

  • Controlled Lighting

  • Surface Lighting

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

This method is intended to make the inside of a protected area difficult to see from outside the protected area.

Select one of the following:

  • Glare Projection

  • Controlled Lighting

  • Surface Lighting

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

This method is intended to limit the width of the lighted strip outside the perimeter of a protected area so as not to interfere with adjoining property, nearby highways, railroads, navigable waters, or airports.

Select one of the following:

  • Glare Projection

  • Controlled Lighting

  • Surface Lighting

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

When planning protective site lighting, you should ensure that controls and switches are installed inside the protected area and locked or guarded or inside a central station such as an alarm monitoring station.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

Flashlights are a reliable form of continuous lighting.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

Emergency lighting depends upon the power supply of the utility company.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

Standby lighting is the type of lighting used when the primary power source fails.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

Standby lighting is the type of lighting used when the primary power source fails.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

Contract security forces may be either military or civilian.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

Military working dogs can seek, detect, defend their handlers, and guard suspects.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

Which statement best describes the mission of security forces? Select the best answer.

Select one of the following:

  • To secure Department of Defense buildings inside and out

  • To monitor facility access in the interest of national security

  • To protect Department of Defense assets

  • To protect key Department of Defense officials

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

_________ responds to a physical stimulus

Select one of the following:

  • Sensor/detector

  • Transmission line security

  • Premise Control Unit (PCU)

  • Monitoring station

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

______________ receives change of state and transmits alarm.

Select one of the following:

  • Sensor/detector

  • Transmission line security

  • Premise Control Unit (PCU)

  • Monitoring station

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

_____________ is the central point for collecting alarm status.

Select one of the following:

  • Sensor/detector

  • Transmission line security

  • Premise Control Unit (PCU)

  • Monitoring station

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

__________ assures communications between the alarmed area and the monitoring station

Select one of the following:

  • Sensor/detector

  • Transmission line security

  • Premise Control Unit (PCU)

  • Monitoring station

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

A CCTV camera may capture activity missed by security force personnel.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

A CCTV can act as an intrusion detection system (IDS) when combined with video motion detection.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

An advantage of CCTV is that environmental factors do not affect its performance.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

A CCTV is only as good as the people who operate it.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

Which of the following are access control systems? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Closed circuit television

  • Card-swipe system

  • Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)

  • Badge exchange program

  • Personal recognition

  • Iris scanning

  • Intrusion detection system

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

Escorts must be able to control the visitor they are escorting throughout the duration of their visit in a controlled area.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

The schedules for entry and exit inspections should be posted in view of all DoD personnel.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

All visitors with the appropriate access level to enter a controlled area are permitted unescorted entry.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

Entry and exit inspections help deter the introduction of unauthorized or prohibited material into an installation or facility and help prevent the unauthorized removal of DoD assets from an installation or facility.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

Magnetometer

Select one of the following:

  • Fixed equipment that detects metal objects

  • Detects traces of explosive material

  • Portable equipment that detects metal objects

  • Detects prohibited items

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

Vapor trace detector

Select one of the following:

  • \Fixed equipment that detects metal objects

  • Detects traces of explosive material

  • Portable equipment that detects metal objects

  • Detects prohibited items

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

Wand

Select one of the following:

  • Fixed equipment that detects metal objects

  • Detects traces of explosive material

  • Portable equipment that detects metal objects

  • Detects prohibited items

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

What type of access control system requires the user to enter a multi-digit number into a push button or keypad cipher device in order to gain access?

Select one of the following:

  • Automated

  • Biometric

  • Programmed

  • Manual

  • Combination

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

What are some important considerations in planning for your monitoring station?
Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Alarm zones

  • Staffing

  • Transmission line security

  • Response levels

  • Premise Control Unit (PCU)

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

What kind of screening equipment is effective for screening the things people bring in to facilities?

Select one of the following:

  • Vapor trace detectors

  • Magnetometers

  • Conveyor belt style x-ray machines

  • Infrared scanners

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

What are the characteristics of passive barrier systems?
Select one or more:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Have substantial bulk or mass

  • Are permanently installed or require heavy equipment to move

  • Require manual operation by security forces

  • Have moving parts

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

Government security forces are made up of military personnel, civilian employees or contractor personnel.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

When an individual resource requires individual protection, you would employ ____________ security.

Select one of the following:

  • point

  • direct

  • moderate

  • area

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

The Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS) is an access control system because it is used to verify the level of access eligibility for specific individuals.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

What method of security lighting uses lights slightly inside a security perimeter and directed outward?

Select one of the following:

  • Controlled lighting

  • Emergency projection

  • Downside illumination

  • Glare projection

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

Security forces composed of military personnel and government employees all have the same mission, to protect DoD assets, but security forces composed of contractor personnel have narrower missions.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is composed of a combination of components integrated to operate in a specific manner to detect a change in the environment by a change of state of detection device.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

What is an appropriate response when fixed screening equipment sets of an alarm?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Refer to local law enforcement

  • Using portable screening equipment

  • Experimental technology

  • Hand screening

  • Monitor closed circuit television (CCTV)

  • Manual search

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

A closed circuit television CCTV system can be a key asset in the event of a disaster because it can document valuable resources that were destroyed and can serve as a deterrent to looters.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

Which method of lighting has the disadvantage that it often illuminates or silhouettes security personnel as they patrol their routes?

Select one of the following:

  • Controlled

  • Surface

  • Emergency

  • Glare projection

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) used with a closed circuit television (CCTV) system is likely to result in distractions to the operator and a reduction in security efficiency.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

What are the operational phases of an Intrusion Detection system?

Select one of the following:

  • Detection, Reporting, Dispatch, and Response/Assessment

  • Alarm Initiation, Response, Termination, Assessment/Cancellation

  • Alarm Silencing, Dispatch, Response, Termination

  • Diversion, Response Force Dispatch, Response, Assessment/Cancellation

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

If a raccoon sets off a fence sensor, what kind of alarm occurs?

Select one of the following:

  • Nuisance alarm

  • False alarm

  • Intruder alarm

  • Maintenance alarm

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

______________ fencing is used to protect a stationary perimeter.

Select one of the following:

  • Portable

  • Permanent

  • Electric

  • Adaptable

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

What Intrusion Detection System (IDS) operational phase is activated when a sensor responds to stimuli?

Select one of the following:

  • Reporting

  • Dispatch

  • Detection

  • Response/Assessment

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

Identify the best practices for security inspections. (Entry/Exit)
Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Conduct security inspections randomly or during periods of increased alertness

  • No notice should be provided to individuals that they may be subject to inspections

  • Security inspections should prevent or deter the introduction of unauthorized or prohibited material into an installation or facility

  • Only senior officials and security personnel should know security inspection schedules

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

What comprises an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) “alarmed area.”

Select one of the following:

  • Sensors and alarm zones

  • The PCU and the monitoring station

  • The PCU and the sensors it serves

  • A dedicated panel or central processor unit

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

Selection of a manual or automated access control system is based on _______________ .

Select one of the following:

  • availability of funding

  • risk management

  • threat assessment

  • availability of assets

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

________________ are weaknesses, characteristics or circumstances that can be exploited by an adversary to gain access to or information from an asset.

Select one of the following:

  • Vulnerabilities

  • Risks

  • Threats

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

Although the specific content of a Physical Security Plan may vary between components, installations, units, or activities, the format remains the same.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

Rivers, cliffs, and dense growth are examples of which type of barrier?

Select one of the following:

  • Active barrier

  • Natural barrier

  • Passive barrier

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

Physical security planning is deciding which security measures will be used to prevent unauthorized access to DoD assets and to safeguard those assets against threats.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

__________________ are conducted by peers or by senior agency personnel in the chain-of-command.

Select one of the following:

  • Compliance inspections

  • Self-inspections

  • Surveys

  • Staff assist visits

Explanation

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