LAM II study questions

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Question 1 of 154

Identify this breed of sheep noted for their fine wool production?

Select one of the following:

Southdown
Texel
Merino
Friesian
Suffolk

Explanation

Question 2 of 154

Icterus is a commonly observed clinical signs in cattle with:

Select one of the following:

Post-partum hemoglobinuria
Cassia toxicosis
Clostridium septicum
Clostridium chauvoei
Anaplasma marginale

Explanation

Question 3 of 154

Which type of fly is associated with the condition shown here in North America?

Select one of the following:

Horn fly
Stable fly
Face fly
Warble fly
Deer fly

Explanation

Question 4 of 154

Identify the breed shown in the picture.

Select one of the following:

Barbados black belly
Oberhasli
Dorper
Boer
Toggenburg

Explanation

Question 5 of 154

Which one of hte following is correct regarding vegetative valvular endocarditis in cattle?

Select one of the following:

The prognosis is usually good following appropriate therapy
the tricuspid valve is usually affected
An irregular heart rhythm is usually present
Neutropenia is a common finding in the blood count
The mitral valve is usually affected

Explanation

Question 6 of 154

Which one of the following statements concerning caseous lymphadenitis is true?

Select one of the following:

Treatment of caseous lymphadenitis with large doses of antibiotics usually results in resolution of disease within 2 months
There two forms of CLA internal and external.
Culling of infected animals with Caseous Lymphadenitis is not necessary due to the fact that the disease is not communicable
It is possible to include both vaccinated and non-vaccinated animals in an ELISA screening program and get accurate results
Proper vaccination for CLA will usually eliminate the risk of most new infections and sometimes cures infected animals.

Explanation

Question 7 of 154

This heifer was observed at a sale barn. You recognized her condition as being:

Select one of the following:

Papillomatosis
Zinc deficiency
Photosensitization
Ringworm
Dermatophilosis

Explanation

Question 8 of 154

Concerning infectious pinkeye in goats, which one of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

Treated animals recover more quickly than non-treated ones
Carrier animals exist
Therapy of choice is procaine penicillin G.
The disease is not zoonotic
The disease has little clinical significance

Explanation

Question 9 of 154

Which of the following breeds is most susceptible to footrot?

Select one of the following:

Merino
Hampshire
Southdown
Dorper
Suffolk

Explanation

Question 10 of 154

What is the age of the sheep that has the dentition pattern as shown in this picture?

Select one of the following:

Under one year
One to one and a half years
Two years
Two and a half years
Over three years

Explanation

Question 11 of 154

Identify the skin condition seen on this Jersey heifer.

Select one of the following:

Photosensitization
Dermatophytosis
Mange
Lice infection
Dermatophilosis

Explanation

Question 12 of 154

This cow recently calved and is now showing the clinical signs observed in this picture. What would be your most likely presumptive diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Atrial fibrillation
Valvular endocarditis
Lymphosarcoma
Congestive heart failure
Summer slump

Explanation

Question 13 of 154

Which one of the following is the therapy of choice for polioencephalomalacia in sheep?

Select one of the following:

Calcium versenate
Procaine penicillin G
Thiamine hydrochloride
Mannitol
Vitamin E and Selenium

Explanation

Question 14 of 154

Pericardiostomy was performed on this cow. Which one of the following is most likely a cause of pericardial effusion in a cow?

Select one of the following:

Traumatic reticulo-pericarditis
Pleuritis
Ionophore toxicosis
Valvular endocarditis
Bovine lymphosarcoma

Explanation

Question 15 of 154

This breed has been used as a genetic model for study of which one of the following human diseases?

Select one of the following:

Parkinson's disease
Fucosidosis
Crohn's disease
Tay-sachs disease
Chondrodysplasia

Explanation

Question 16 of 154

Which one of the following is used as a vaccine for parapox virus in sheep?

Select one of the following:

Bacterin
Modified live virus
Live virus
Killed virus
Toxoid

Explanation

Question 17 of 154

A producer wants to minimize the occurrence of pregnancy toxemia in a flock of crossbred ewes. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendations?

Select one of the following:

Add chlortetracycline to the ration that is fed to the ewes in late gestation.
Reduce feeding concentrates and limit exercise during the last trimester.
Target genetic selection from the ewe flock and the breeding ram to produce single lambs rather than multiples
Target the plane of nutrition to avoid extremes in body condition in the pregnant ewe
Vaccinate the pregnant ewe with C. perfringens types C and D approximately 4 weeks before they are due to lamb

Explanation

Question 18 of 154

What is the primary clinical sign in small ruminants with advanced paratuberculosis infections?

Select one of the following:

Anemia
Chronic coughing and emaciation
Swollen lymphnodes
Diarrhea and emaciation
Chronic weight loss

Explanation

Question 19 of 154

What are the most common early clinical manifestations of ovine progressive pneumonia virus infection in older ewes?

Select one of the following:

Chronic hyperplastic synovitis and lymph node hyperplasia
Lymph node hyperplasia and mononuclear infiltration of the mammary gland
Mononuclear infiltration of the mammary gland and weight loss
Leukoencephalomyelitis and/or chronic interstitial pneumonia
Exercise intolerance and progressive weight loss despite normal appetite.

Explanation

Question 20 of 154

What is the main route for transmission of bovine lymphosarcoma virus?

Select one of the following:

Fecal-oral
Insect bites
Intra-uterine
Iatrogenic with mechanical means
Saliva and nasal secretions

Explanation

Question 21 of 154

Which of the following statements would represent LEGAL usage of Naxcel (ceftiofur)?

Select one of the following:

The use of Nacel administered IV in a dairy cow that has just had a displaced abomasum surgery
The use of Naxcel administrated subcutaneously in a lactating dairy cow with a neck wound
The use of Naxcel at double the dose for a beef calf with pneumonia
The use of Naxcel twice a day for 3 days for a beef calf with septic arthritis

Explanation

Question 22 of 154

Identify the primary cause of neonatal lamb mortality in most flocks

Select one of the following:

White muscle disease
Eperythrozoonosis
Starvation
Colibacillosis
Enterotoxemia

Explanation

Question 23 of 154

Which one of the following diseases would be considered most contagious in dairy goats?

Select one of the following:

Polioencephalomalacia
Caseous lymphadenitis
Enterotoxemia
Tetanus
Listeriosis

Explanation

Question 24 of 154

A cow was presented for examination of a respiratory system problem. On examination you have found a purulent discharge from the ear canal. Which one of the following goes to the top of your differential diagnosis list?

Select one of the following:

IBR (infectious bovine rhinotracheitis)
Histophilus
Mycoplasma
BRSV (bovine respiratory syncytial virus)
Mannheimia

Explanation

Question 25 of 154

Which one of the following statements regarding skin disease of cattle is most correct?

Select one of the following:

Lice infestation is common in cooler weather
Papillomatosis is contagious
Bovine ringworm is zoonotic
Warbles are lesions found along the dorsum
All of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 26 of 154

Which one of the following breeds is considered to be double-muscled?

Select one of the following:

Piedmontese
Hereford
Beefmaster
Angus
Watusi

Explanation

Question 27 of 154

A herd of goats with pruritic, crusty lesions on the pastern areas would most likely be affected with:

Select one of the following:

Demodectic mange
Ringworm
Chorioptic manage
Lice infestion
Sheep ked infestation

Explanation

Question 28 of 154

A useful and practical therapy for hypoglycemic lambs, kids, or piglets is:

Select one of the following:

50% glucose intraperitoneally
20% glucose intraperitoneally
50% glucose orally
20% glucose orally
20% glucose intravenously

Explanation

Question 29 of 154

A castrated male goat is called a:

Select one of the following:

Stag
Buck
Billy
Wether
Gelding

Explanation

Question 30 of 154

Although there are many stressors that can predispose cattle to shipping fever, the highest stressor is which one of the following?

Select one of the following:

Nutritional change
Cold temperature
Increased humidity
Increased dust in environment
Commingling of cattle

Explanation

Question 31 of 154

Which one of the following is claimed to be a significant benefit of using either Draxxin or Excede for therapy of bovine respiratory disease despite the cost?

Select one of the following:

Full course of therapy in a single dose
No withdrawal time for slaughter
Use in dairy as well as beef animals
Efficacy against Histophilus somni
Availability as an over-the-counter (OTC) remedy

Explanation

Question 32 of 154

In the face of an outbreak of infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus in a dairy herd, which one of the following vaccines would you select for vaccination of the herd, if any?

Select one of the following:

Intranasal vaccine
Replicating modified live virus vaccine
Non-replicating modified live virus vaccine
Killed vaccine
None. Vaccination should not be done in the face of an outbreak

Explanation

Question 33 of 154

Which one of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

Younger animals are more likely to show clinical signs of anaplasmosis than are older ones
Biting flies are biological vectors of anaplasmosis
Effectiveness of oxytetracycline therapy for anaplasmosis is reduced if more than 15% of the red blood cells are infected
Anaplasmosis vaccine is marketed commercially in the United States
Incubation period for anaplasmosis in cattle is short, usually 5-15days

Explanation

Question 34 of 154

What would be the significance of a low neutrophil count with many non-segmented cells in a cow with a total white blood cell count within a normal range?

Select one of the following:

Probably indicative of chronic infection
Probably indicative of parasitism
Probably indicative of bone marrow suppression
Probably indicative of an acute overwhelming infection
Possibly could be a normal hemogram

Explanation

Question 35 of 154

Which of these microorganisms may be part of the normal microflora of the upper bovine respiratory tract?

Select one of the following:

IBR virus
BRSV virus
PI3 virus
Mannheimia hemolytica
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 36 of 154

"Summer slump" in cattle is related to ingestion of:

Select one of the following:

Pithomyces
Ergot
Mucor
Aspergillus
Acremonium

Explanation

Question 37 of 154

The antibiotic that has no milk withdrawal time is:

Select one of the following:

Excenel
Oxytetracycline
Procaine penicillin G
Sulfadimethoxine

Explanation

Question 38 of 154

Which one of the following statements is most correct?

Select one of the following:

Hemoglobinuria is a commonly observed clinical sign with babesiosis
Copper deficiency is the most commonly diagnosed mineral deficiency worldwide in cattle
The AGID test is the most sensitive test for detection of bovine lymphosarcoma
Persistent right aortic arch is the most common congenital cardiovascular anomaly observed in cattle
Post-partum hemoglobinuria is associated with magnesium deficiency

Explanation

Question 39 of 154

According to label, flunixin meglumine (Banamine) must be administered to cattle by what route?

Select one of the following:

Intramuscular
Intravenous
Oral
Subcutaneous

Explanation

Question 40 of 154

Which one of the following statements is true concerning tuberculosis in cattle?

Select one of the following:

The primary route of infection is transplacental
The test used in the eradication program is an intradermal skin test
The disease has been eradicated in the continental United States
Coughing and chronic nasal discharge are the most obvious clinical signs in early cases
Infection usually occurs after two years of age

Explanation

Question 41 of 154

Why would a red coated cattle breed be better adapted to the tropics than a black one?

Select one of the following:

More resistant to intestinal parasitism
More tolerant of heat
More able to utilize native roughage
More efficient in water metabolism
More efficient in reproduction

Explanation

Question 42 of 154

Which one of the following plants is associated with primary photosensitization in cattle?

Select one of the following:

Milkweed
Panicum
Pigweed
Coffeeweed
Buckwheat

Explanation

Question 43 of 154

What unique method of vaccination of cattle against Mannheimia haemolytica is being investigated?

Select one of the following:

Oral vaccination using transgenic clover
Topical vaccination using
Intramuscular vaccination
Subcutaneous vaccination
Intranasal vaccination

Explanation

Question 44 of 154

If one were to mate a homozygous polled bull with a horned cow, what percentage of the offspring would be polled?

Select one of the following:

0%
25%
50%
75%
100%

Explanation

Question 45 of 154

Which of the following cattle antibiotics is illegal to use in an extralabel manner?

Select one of the following:

Baytril
Draxxin
Micotil
Nuflor

Explanation

Question 46 of 154

the age of the female bovine when several food animal antibiotics become extralabel (possibly illegal) is:

Select one of the following:

Day 1 (at birth)
12 months of age
18 months of age
20 months of age

Explanation

Question 47 of 154

Which one of the following statements is true concerning interstitial pneumonia in cattle?

Select one of the following:

Interstitial pneumonia is characterized by inspiratory dyspnea
The principal clinical signs are expiratory dyspnea and high fever
Expiratory dyspnea and subcutaneous emphysema are commonly seen
Preferred therapy is oxytetracycline
Prognosis for recovery is poor

Explanation

Question 48 of 154

Which one of the following breeds of cattle is affected with "fawn calf syndrome"?

Select one of the following:

Jersey
Galloway
Shorthorn
Angus
Hereford

Explanation

Question 49 of 154

Which of the following antibiotics, when administered by label, has the longest period of therapeutic levels?

Select one of the following:

Micotil
Naxcel
Nuflor
Zuprevo

Explanation

Question 50 of 154

Why are Mannheimia induced pneumonias only observed in goats, sheep and cattle?

Select one of the following:

Ruminant specific leukotoxin
Stress
Associated parasitic migration through lungs
Lack of protective mucin in the airway of these species
Tracheal antimicrobial peptide deficiency

Explanation

Question 51 of 154

Sudden death with high morbidity in a group of vaccinated beef calves on pasture after a new dirt pond was dug would be suggestive of:

Select one of the following:

Polioencephalomalacia
Clostridial disease
Anthrax
Selenium toxicosis
Dermatophilosis

Explanation

Question 52 of 154

Milk protein allergy in cattle is manifested as:

Select one of the following:

Urticaria (hives)
Pruritus
Diarrhea
Polyuria
Pulmonary edema

Explanation

Question 53 of 154

A thin ewe in advanced stages of pregnancy toxemia. The ewe could not get up and was alert and not anemic. What therapy would you recommended to the owner?

Select one of the following:

Euthanasia
Induced parturition
Glucose therapy and restoration of acid-base balace
Fluids and electrolytes and restoration of acid base balance
Caesarian section

Explanation

Question 54 of 154

Which one of the following breed is most resistant to tick borne disease?

Select one of the following:

Santa Gertrudis
Angus
Hereford
Shorthorn
Limousine

Explanation

Question 55 of 154

Which breed of dairy cattle is noted for having a hard, darkly colored foot and fewer lameness problems?

Select one of the following:

Black and White Holstein
Ayrshire
Red and White Holstein
Jersey
Guernsey

Explanation

Question 56 of 154

Identify this breed of sheep noted for their fine wool production

Select one of the following:

Hampshire
Charolais
Merino
Friesian
Suffolk

Explanation

Question 57 of 154

Icterus is a commonly observed clinical sign in cattle with:

Select one of the following:

Babesiosis
Fescue toxicosis
Anthrax
Brisket disease
Anaplasmosis

Explanation

Question 58 of 154

ID the breed

Select one of the following:

Alpine
Finn
Oberhasli
Jacob
Barbados Black belly

Explanation

Question 59 of 154

What is the age of the sheep that has the dentition pattern as shown in this picture?

Select one of the following:

Under one year
One to one and a half years
Two years
Two and a half years
Over three years

Explanation

Question 60 of 154

Identify the breed

Select one of the following:

Charolais
Shorthorn
Hereford
Angus
Santa Gertrudis

Explanation

Question 61 of 154

Several goats in a flock were affected with severe panophthalmitis and conjunctivitis. What would be your recommendation for this flock?

Select one of the following:

Send all to slaughter immediately
Quarantine and treat with procaine penicillin G
Quarantine and refer to the state veterinary officer
Quarantine and vaccinated the herd
Quarantine and treat with tetracycline

Explanation

Question 62 of 154

Identify the breed

Select one of the following:

Ayrshire
Guernsey
Jersey
Holstein
Brown swiss

Explanation

Question 63 of 154

The front end and the back end of this goat kid are visible in the pictures. What gene is involved with the condition observed in this kid? answer hornless

Select one of the following:

Chondrodysplasia
Hornless
Double muscling
Glycogen storage
Rat tail

Explanation

Question 64 of 154

This is a picture of the lungs of a calf at necropsy. You can recognize this as being which one of the following problems?

Select one of the following:

IBR
Mannheimia pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Emphysema
Atypical interstitial pneumonia

Explanation

Question 65 of 154

The classification for both frostbite and thermal burns is based upon degree. Which degree is show in these two pictures?
2nd

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 66 of 154

Post-calving this cow was affected with submandibular, ventral and brisket edema. At necropsy the heart had lesions as shown here. What is your Dx?

Select one of the following:

Amyloidosis
Valvular endocarditis
Pericarditis
Cardiomyopathy
Lymphosarcoma

Explanation

Question 67 of 154

This heifer was seen at a sale barn You recognized her condition as being:

Select one of the following:

Papillomatosis
Zinc deficiency
Photosensitization
Ringworm
Dermatophilosis

Explanation

Question 68 of 154

What is your presumptive diagnosis for the condition observed on this goat?

Select one of the following:

Salivary cyst
Neoplasia
Caseous lymphadenitis
Edema
Hematoma

Explanation

Question 69 of 154

Which one of the following statements about the parasite of deer and cattle shown in this picture is true?

Select one of the following:

Paresis and/or paralysis in camelids is associated with this parasite
Coughing and poor body condition are often prominent clinical signs
The parasite is resistant to most commonly used dewormers
Clinical cases are most often seen in late spring
Vaccination against this parasite is available in the United States.

Explanation

Question 70 of 154

A 4-H member handled some lambs about a week ago at the county fair. Now he has developed lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Dermatophilosis
Warts
Ecthyma
Fungal infection
Pustular dermatitis

Explanation

Question 71 of 154

Why are Mannheimia induced pneumonias only observed in goats, sheep and cattle?

Select one of the following:

Ruminant specific leukotoxin
Stress
Associated parasitic migration through the lungs
Lack of protective mucin in the airway of these species
Tracheal antimicrobial peptide deficiency

Explanation

Question 72 of 154

Which one of the following statements is true concerning interstitial pneumonia in cattle?

Select one of the following:

Interstitial pneumonia is accompanied by high fever
The principal clinical signs are expiratory dyspnea and mild fever
Inspiratory dyspnea and subcutaneous emphysema are commonly seen
Preferred therapy is oxytetracycline
Prognosis for recovery is poor

Explanation

Question 73 of 154

If one were to mate a homozygous polled bull with a homozygous horned cow, what percentage of the offspring would be polled?

Select one of the following:

0%
25%
50%
75%
100%

Explanation

Question 74 of 154

Which one of the following is used as a vaccine for parapox virus in sheep?

Select one of the following:

Bacterin
Modified live virus
live virus
Killed virus
Toxoid

Explanation

Question 75 of 154

Which one of the following diseases would be considered most contagious in dairy goats?

Select one of the following:

Polioencephalomalacia
Caseous lymphadenitis
Enterotoxemia
Tetanus
Listeriosis

Explanation

Question 76 of 154

Which one of the following breeds is considered to be double-muscled?

Select one of the following:

Charolais
Hereford
Beefmaster
Angus
Watusi

Explanation

Question 77 of 154

A useful and practical therapy for hypoglycemic lambs, kids or piglets is:

Select one of the following:

50% glucose intraperitoneally
20% glucose intraperitoneally
50% glucose orally
20% glucose orally
20% glucose intravenously

Explanation

Question 78 of 154

Which one of the following plants is associated with primary photosensitization in cattle?

Select one of the following:

Milkweed
Panicum
Pigweed
Coffeeweed
Buckwheat

Explanation

Question 79 of 154

A flock of sheep was showing clinical signs of lethargy and anemia. A couple of lambs had died. Other sheep were grinding their teeth and showing extreme thirst. Which one of these elements would be at the top of your differential diagnosis of toxicity?

Select one of the following:

Iodine
Selenium
Copper
Fluorine
Sodium

Explanation

Question 80 of 154

Fly predators are:

Select one of the following:

effective only against face flies
Not affected by chemicals sprayed on flies
Harmful to humans as well as animals
Are active only in daylight hours
Tiny wasps that prey on fly larvae and pupae

Explanation

Question 81 of 154

If not properly prepared before marketing, commingled feeder calves have the potential of "wreaking out" when they arrive at a feedlot. What is responsible for this wreck?

Select one of the following:

A fall in resistance due to weather changes
A simultaneous fall in resistance and a rise in disease challenge
A rise in disease challenge from commingling
Vaccination more than thirty days before marketing
A fall in resistance due to stresses of weaning, shipping and diet change

Explanation

Question 82 of 154

Which type of sound is consistent with atrial fibrillation on thoracic auscultation of a cow with dyspnea, distended jugular veins, and brisket edema?

Select one of the following:

Splashing sounds
Normal heart sounds of high amplitude projected over the entire thorax
Systolic murmur of high intensity
Diastolic murmur radiating from the base of the heart
Irregular heart sounds with tachycardia

Explanation

Question 83 of 154

If a lamb was found down this morning unable to move or rise with a history of tail docking and castration two weeks ago with rubber bands what is your primary tentative diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Blunt trauma
Clostridial disease
Anthrax
Brisket edema
Acute parasitic disease

Explanation

Question 84 of 154

What is the main route of transmission of bovine lymphosarcoma virus?

Select one of the following:

Fecal-oral
Insect bites
Intra-uterine
Iatrogenic with mechanical means (blood/needle/palpation)
Saliva and nasal secretions

Explanation

Question 85 of 154

Primarily, which of the following breeds is affected by bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency? (BLAD)

Select one of the following:

Jersey
Holstein
Shorthorn
Dutch belted
Brown swiss

Explanation

Question 86 of 154

Three very common sites of lymphosarcoma lesions in cattle, other than lymph nodes, are:

Select one of the following:

Spleen, liver, heart
Mammary gland, uterus, kidney
Uterus, abomasum, heart
Skin, kidneys, liver
Skin, abomasum, lung

Explanation

Question 87 of 154

Milk protein allergy in cattle is manifested as:

Select one of the following:

Urticaria
Pruritus
Diarrhea
Polyuria
Pulmonary edema

Explanation

Question 88 of 154

Pleuritis in cattle manifested by pain. The clinical expression of this is:

Select one of the following:

Aggression and dysuria
Inspiratory dyspnea and coughing
Stiffness, reluctance to move and abduction of the elbows
Drooling of saliva and inappetance
Adduction of the elbows along with inspiratory grunt

Explanation

Question 89 of 154

Which one of these breeds of dairy cattle is noted for having a hard, darkly colored foot and fewer lameness problems?

Select one of the following:

Black and white holstein
Ayrshire
Red and white holstein
Jersey
Guernsey

Explanation

Question 90 of 154

What would be the significance of a high neutrophil count with many non-segmented cells in a cow with a total white blood cell count within a normal range

Select one of the following:

Probably indicative of chronic infection
Probably indicative of parasitism
Probably indicative of bone marrow suppression
Probably indicative of an acute infection
Possibly could be a normal hemogram

Explanation

Question 91 of 154

Pulmonary arterial pressure is a used as a screening test for which one of the following cattle diseases?

Select one of the following:

Atypical interstitial pneumonia
Brisket disease
Pulmonary thromboembolism
Pericarditis
Tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 92 of 154

Why would the red angus be better adapted to the tropics than the black angus?

Select one of the following:

More resistant to intestinal parasitism
More tolerant of heat
More able to utilize native roughage
More efficient in water metabolism
More efficient in reproduction

Explanation

Question 93 of 154

The owner of a black angus calf was accustomed to horses, but not angus, and thought the calf was changing colors and turning grey-like a black foal turning grey. The calf is now black again after treatment. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Zinc deficiency
Copper deficiency
Cobalt deficiency
Anaplasmosis
Porphyria

Explanation

Question 94 of 154

Which one of the following breeds is more resistant to tick borne disease?

Select one of the following:

Brahma
angus
Hereford
Shorthorn
Limousine

Explanation

Question 95 of 154

A thin ewe was in advanced stages of pregnancy toxemia. The ewe could not get up and was alert and not anemic. What therapy would you recommend to the owner?

Select one of the following:

Euthanasia
Induced parturition
Glucose therapy and restoration of acid base balance
Fluids and electrolytes and restoration of acid base balance
Caesarian section

Explanation

Question 96 of 154

Chronic weight loss in goats:

Select one of the following:

Is usually an individual animal problem
Is best evaluated within the context of the animal's environment and herdmates
Is a rare herd problem
Often carries a good prognosis
Rarely involves management factors

Explanation

Question 97 of 154

If a cow began showing symptoms of hives immediately after being treated with procaine penicillin, what would be the drug of choice for treating this cow?

Select one of the following:

Antihistamine
Corticosteroid
Epinephrine
Ephedrine
Flunixin meglumine

Explanation

Question 98 of 154

Entropion in neonatal lambs is often related to:

Select one of the following:

Dehydration
Hypothermia
Ocular infection
Birth trauma
Selenium deficiency

Explanation

Question 99 of 154

Which of the following diseases of sheep is important because of the zoonotic implications?

Select one of the following:

Ovine progressive pneumonia
Coccidiosis
Cryptosporidiosis
Meningeal worm
Sheep ked

Explanation

Question 100 of 154

Identify this sheep breed known for the fine quality of its fleece.

Select one of the following:

Awassi
Merino
Katahdin
Southdown
Friesian

Explanation

Question 101 of 154

This is a blood smear from an anemic beef cow. What is your presumptive diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Anaplasmosis
Iron deficiency
Anthrax
Bracken fern toxicosis
Babesiosis

Explanation

Question 102 of 154

Identify this breed of sheep

Select one of the following:

Southdown
Suffolk
Dorper
Merino
Rambouillet

Explanation

Question 103 of 154

This cow was presented with submandibular and brisket edema as well as jugular vein distention. Upon auscultation of the heart you hear splashing sounds. What is your presumptive diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Valvular vegetative endocarditis
Pericarditis
Bovine lymphosarcoma
Heartwater disease
Renal amyloidosis

Explanation

Question 104 of 154

Identify this breed of dairy goat:

Select one of the following:

Nubian
Alpine
La Mancha
Saanen
Toggenburg

Explanation

Question 105 of 154

What is the most commonly identified cause of bacterial pneumonia in cattle?

Select one of the following:

Mannheimia spp.
Bordetella spp.
Histophilus somnus
Streptococcus spp.
Mycoplasma spp.

Explanation

Question 106 of 154

Identify this breed of goat:

Select one of the following:

Cashmere
Fainting
Pygmy
Oberhasli
Boer

Explanation

Question 107 of 154

Identify this breed of goat

Select one of the following:

Cashmere
Fainting
Pygmy
Oberhasli
Boer

Explanation

Question 108 of 154

ID goat breed:

Select one of the following:

Cashmere
Fainting
Pygmy
Oberhasli
Boer

Explanation

Question 109 of 154

ID the goat breed:

Select one of the following:

Cashmere
Fainting
Pygmy
Oberhasli
Boer

Explanation

Question 110 of 154

ID the goat breed:

Select one of the following:

Cashmere
Fainting
Pygmy
Oberhasli
Boer

Explanation

Question 111 of 154

Several bulls being performanced test at a Nebraska feedlot 3500 feet above sea level developed edema of the head and brisket and a few died. What is your tentative diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Pericarditis
Lymphosarcoma
Pulmonary hypertension
Chronic enteritis
Parasitism

Explanation

Question 112 of 154

ID the cattle breed:

Select one of the following:

Chianina
Charolais
Shorthorn
Angus
Hereford

Explanation

Question 113 of 154

ID cattle breed:

Select one of the following:

Chianina
Charolais
Shorthorn
Angus
Hereford

Explanation

Question 114 of 154

ID cattle breed:

Select one of the following:

Chianina
Charolais
Shorthorn
Angus
Hereford

Explanation

Question 115 of 154

ID cattle breed

Select one of the following:

Chianina
Charolais
Shorthorn
Angus
Hereford

Explanation

Question 116 of 154

ID cattle breed:

Select one of the following:

Chianina
Charolais
Shorthorn
Angus
Hereford

Explanation

Question 117 of 154

ID the breed of dairy cattle that originated in Scotland.

Select one of the following:

Montbeliarde
Guernsey
Ayrshire
Friesian
Dairy shorthorn

Explanation

Question 118 of 154

ID this cattle breed that produces alpha 2 casein milk from France

Select one of the following:

Guernsey
Montbeliarde
Ayrshire
Friesian
Dairy shorthorn

Explanation

Question 119 of 154

Identify this double muscled Italian breed of cattle selected for the myostatin gene

Select one of the following:

Belgian Blue
Charolais
Piedmontese
Romagnola
Chianina

Explanation

Question 120 of 154

The clinical signs shown by the animal in this picture is most often seen with which one of the following diseases?

Select one of the following:

Ovine progressive pneumonia
Polioencephalomalacia
Enterotoxemia
Lead toxicosis
Listeriosis

Explanation

Question 121 of 154

A calculus is lodged in the vermiform appendage of this animal. Which of the following is more likely to be involved in the pathogenesis of this condition?

Select one of the following:

Imbalanced calcium:phosphorus ratio of the ration
High levels of magnesium in the ration
Inadequate water intake
Only A and C are correct
All other answers are correct

Explanation

Question 122 of 154

Shown is the eye of a lamb presented for examination. What is your preliminary diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Entropion
Cataract
Corneal ulceration
Pink eye
Photosensitivity

Explanation

Question 123 of 154

Shown here is the fatty liver of a ewe that died and was presented for necropsy. She was pregnant with triplets at the time. What is your preliminary diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Listeriosis
Polioencephalomalacia
Anaplasmosis
Copper toxicosis
Pregnancy toxemia

Explanation

Question 124 of 154

Some rodeo bulls were penned next to a well-landscaped coliseum for their show. The next morning two of the seven bulls were found dead. What is the name of the plant which is cardio-toxic to ruminants, often killing them so suddenly that the plant may be found in the oral cavity?

Select one of the following:

Rhododendron
Oleander
Poinsettia
Croton
Japanese Yew

Explanation

Question 125 of 154

Entropion in neonatal lambs is often related to:

Select one of the following:

Dehydration
Hypothermia
Ocular infection
Birth trauma
Selenium deficiency

Explanation

Question 126 of 154

"Steely wool" is a clinical sign associated with:

Select one of the following:

Iron deficiency
Copper deficiency
Cobalt deficiency
Iodine deficiency
Magnesium deficiency

Explanation

Question 127 of 154

The normal white blood count of cattle usually ranges between:

Select one of the following:

10000 and 20000 cells/cmm
15000 and 30000 cells/cmm
4000 and 12000 cells/cmm
2000 and 20000 cells/cmm
8000 and 16000 cells/cmm

Explanation

Question 128 of 154

Calf diphtheria is characterized clinically by:

Select one of the following:

Expiratory dyspnea
Fever, depression, coughing, mucopurulent nasal exudatin
Inspiratory dyspnea
Lacrimation, photophobia, coughing, reddened nose
Swelling under the jaw and in the neck area

Explanation

Question 129 of 154

Which one of the following ewes would be most at risk for getting pregnancy toxemia in your flock, everything being equal except as given?

Select one of the following:

Suffolk ewe, 3.5 BCS, late gestation, twins
Texel ewe, 4.0 BCS, non-pregnant
Hampshire ewe, 3.0 BCS, late gestation, single fetus
Shropshire ewe, 5.0 BCS, late gestation, twins
Romney ewe, 3.5 BCS, early gestation, triplets

Explanation

Question 130 of 154

Which one of the following small ruminant disease is a zoonotic disease?

Select one of the following:

Red gut
Blue tongue
Black disease
Sore mouth
CAE virus

Explanation

Question 131 of 154

Eosinophilia in the peripheral blood may be important in the diagnosis of which one of the following diseases of sheep?

Select one of the following:

Paralaphestrongylosis
Paratuberculosis
Polioencephalomalacia
Tuberculosis
Aflatoxicosis

Explanation

Question 132 of 154

Rumen acidosis occurs as a result of:

Select one or more of the following:

Too much rapidly digestible grain in the diet
Slug feeding of grain (e.g. feeding grain in the milking parlor
Inadequate effective fiber
Heat stress (panting cows have less bicarb available for buffering the rumen)

Explanation

Question 133 of 154

A defining characteristic of production medicine as applied to food animal practice is its focus on:

Select one of the following:

Individual animal curative medicine
Vaccination programs
Reproduction
Health programs for the control of specific diseases
The herd management system

Explanation

Question 134 of 154

Which one of the following statements concerning camelid restraint and handling is most correct?

Select one of the following:

The rule of restraint with llamas is "the more, the better"
Restraint for collection of blood sample from a llama requires two people
Llamas are not group animals. You must handle them by themselves
Minimal restraint is preferred for all llama-handling procedures
Diversionary restraint is preferred for all injections

Explanation

Question 135 of 154

What vaccine has been developed by the University of Alaska for use in the reindeer population?

Select one of the following:

Paratuberculosis
Scrapie
Western encephalitis
Tuberculosis
Brucellosis

Explanation

Question 136 of 154

What is the estimated cost of a case of milk fever?

Select one of the following:

$50
$100
$200
$350
$500

Explanation

Question 137 of 154

You open the abdomen of a sheep for an exploratory laparotomy and find small white lesions on the cecum and large intestine. What is your diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Fat necrosis
Tapeworm cyst
Edema
Oesophagostomum lesion
Abscess

Explanation

Question 138 of 154

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Select one of the following:

Antibiotics may be added to the cattle feed if prescribed by a veterinarian under his extra label privilege
Subclinical mastitis is equal to clinical mastitis in its effect on reproductive performance in the lactating dairy cow
Winter dysentery in cattle is associated with brachyspira infections
Tail docking of cattle is associated with a positive impact on milk quality
Pupillary constriction is a clinical sign consistent with hypocalcemia in recumbent dairy cows

Explanation

Question 139 of 154

The most common consequence of sows having MMA syndrome is? (Mastitis, Metritis, Agalactia)

Select one of the following:

Iron deficiency anemia in piglets
Porcine stress syndrome in piglets
Hypoglycemia in piglets
Cannibalism of the piglets
Hypothermia of the piglets

Explanation

Question 140 of 154

What is the ideal calving interval for a beef-cow operation in the Midwest of the USA?

Select one of the following:

200 days
290 days
365 days
400 days
Not an important consideration for a cow-calf herd

Explanation

Question 141 of 154

What disease symptom is associated with Mycoplasma haemolamae in alpacas

Select one of the following:

Blindness
Diarrhea
Deafness
Pacreatic stones
Anemia

Explanation

Question 142 of 154

Several piglets in a group weaned 10 days ago in the nursery facility of a large commercial swine operation were found dead. On evaluation, some weaners have swelling around the eyes and forehead. Some are in lateral recumbency and dyspneic. Necropsy of the dead piglets reveals subcutaneous and submucosal edema. The most likely causative organism is?

Select one of the following:

Streptococcus suis
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
Clostridium speticum
Escherichia coli
Lawsonia intracellulari

Explanation

Question 143 of 154

Air quality is often an issue in livestock confinement operations. Which one of the following gases is most likely involved with animal or human deaths in a confinement operation?

Select one of the following:

Mercaptans
Methane
Hydrogen sulfide
Carbon dioxide
Ammonia

Explanation

Question 144 of 154

Excessive use of water to clean the udder is a risk factor for which type of mastitis?

Select one of the following:

Streptococcus agalactiae
Coliform
Mycoplasma
Staphylococcus aureus
Yeast

Explanation

Question 145 of 154

Preconditioning is...?

Select one of the following:

Increasing grain ration in close-up dairy cows before calving
Dipping teats before milking
Mowing pastures that have gone to seed to reduce eye irritation in pastured cattle
Feeding anionic salts, such as ammonium chloride, to reduce the incidence of hypocalcemia in dairy cows.
Processing beef calves in such a way as to reduce stress before moving them to a feedlot

Explanation

Question 146 of 154

Shown here is a sample of corn silage.

Which type of corn silage is most likely be associated with chronic rumen acidosis in a dairy herd?

Select one of the following:

Long cut/large particle
Smaller particle

Explanation

Question 147 of 154

ID the breed

Select one of the following:

Yorkshire
Landrace
Duroc
Kune Kune
Hampshire

Explanation

Question 148 of 154

You are presented a Holstein dairy cow with chronic watery diarrhea. No other cows in the herd are affected. What would be the most likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Tuberculosis
Rumen acidosis
Paratuberculosis
Ostertagiasis
Paramphistomiasis

Explanation

Question 149 of 154

Which European beef breed is shown in this picture?

Select one of the following:

Charolais
Limousine
Hereford
Shorthorn
Belgian Blue

Explanation

Question 150 of 154

What condition would you suspect if you palpate a cow rectally and found the rumen enlarged as shown in this picture?

Select one of the following:

Left abomasal displacement
Vagal indigestion
Abomasal volvulus
Lymphosarcoma
Traumatic reticuloperitonitis

Explanation

Question 151 of 154

ID breed

Select one of the following:

Yorkshire
Hampshire
Duroc
Landrace
Pietrain

Explanation

Question 152 of 154

This cow is being treated for hypocalcemia. What is wrong with this picture?

Select one of the following:

Improper head restraint
Improper placement of intravenous administration
Inadequate cardiac monitoring
Improper drug administration (calcium borogluconate)
Improper biosecurity measures

Explanation

Question 153 of 154

ID this English breed of dairy cattle

Select one of the following:

Shorthorn
Ayrshire
Guernsey
Gloucester
Devon

Explanation

Question 154 of 154

The most common infectious cause of neonatal calf diarrhea is?

Select one of the following:

Cryptosporidium
Escherichia
Pseudomonas
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus

Explanation

Check answer

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	Created by curfman.melissa about 11 years ago

Study questions for LAM II Exam I

LAM II study questions

Question 1 of 154

Identify this breed of sheep noted for their fine wool production?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 154

Icterus is a commonly observed clinical signs in cattle with:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 154

Which type of fly is associated with the condition shown here in North America?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 154

Identify the breed shown in the picture.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 154

Which one of hte following is correct regarding vegetative valvular endocarditis in cattle?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 154

Which one of the following statements concerning caseous lymphadenitis is true?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 154

This heifer was observed at a sale barn. You recognized her condition as being:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 154

Concerning infectious pinkeye in goats, which one of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 154

Which of the following breeds is most susceptible to footrot?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 154

What is the age of the sheep that has the dentition pattern as shown in this picture?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 154

Identify the skin condition seen on this Jersey heifer.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 154

This cow recently calved and is now showing the clinical signs observed in this picture. What would be your most likely presumptive diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 154

Which one of the following is the therapy of choice for polioencephalomalacia in sheep?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 154

Pericardiostomy was performed on this cow. Which one of the following is most likely a cause of pericardial effusion in a cow?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 154

This breed has been used as a genetic model for study of which one of the following human diseases?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 154

Which one of the following is used as a vaccine for parapox virus in sheep?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 154

A producer wants to minimize the occurrence of pregnancy toxemia in a flock of crossbred ewes. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendations?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 154

What is the primary clinical sign in small ruminants with advanced paratuberculosis infections?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 154

What are the most common early clinical manifestations of ovine progressive pneumonia virus infection in older ewes?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 154

What is the main route for transmission of bovine lymphosarcoma virus?