REIGNEL JEFF DIZON
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REIGNEL JEFF DIZON
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DevOps Module 5-6

Question 1 of 36

1

Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?

Select one of the following:

  • Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.

  • Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.

  • Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.

  • Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.

Explanation

Question 2 of 36

1

Which IPv6 address is most compressed for the full FE80:0:0:0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3 address?​

Select one of the following:

  • FE80:::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3​

  • FE8::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3​

  • FE80::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3​

  • FE80::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3

Explanation

Question 3 of 36

1

Which command can be used on Linux and MAC hosts to get IP addressing information?

Select one of the following:

  • networksetup -getinfo

  • ipconfig

  • ip address

  • ifconfig

Explanation

Question 4 of 36

1

What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?

Select one of the following:

  • global unicast

  • loopback

  • link-local

  • multicast

Explanation

Question 5 of 36

1

Which two statements are true about NTP servers in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • There can only be one NTP server on an enterprise network.

  • NTP servers control the mean time between failures (MTBF) for key network devices.

  • NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source.

  • All NTP servers synchronize directly to a stratum 1 time source.

  • NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information.

Explanation

Question 6 of 36

1

A small-sized company has 30 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. The two servers must be assigned public IP addresses so they are reachable from the outside world. What technology should the company implement in order to allow all workstations to access services over the Internet simultaneously?

Select one of the following:

  • static NAT

  • dynamic NAT

  • DHCP

  • port address translation

Explanation

Question 7 of 36

1

Which statement describes a stateful firewall?

Select one of the following:

  • It can determine if the connection is in the initiation, data transfer, or termination phase.

  • It can expand the number of IP addresses available and can hide network addressing design.

  • It can filter packets based on information at Layers 3, 4, 5 and 7 of the OSI reference model.

  • It can only filter packets based on limited Layer 3 and 4 information.

Explanation

Question 8 of 36

1

Which impact does adding a Layer 2 switch have on a network?

Select one of the following:

  • an increase in the number of dropped frames

  • an increase in the size of the broadcast domain

  • an increase in the size of the collision domain

  • an increase in the number of network collisions

Explanation

Question 9 of 36

1

Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.

  • The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.

  • UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.

  • TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.

  • The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.

  • The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port when establishing a session with the server.

Explanation

Question 10 of 36

1

What is the function of the MIB element as part of a network management system?

Select one of the following:

  • to send and retrieve network management information

  • to change configurations on SNMP agents

  • to store data about a device

  • to collect data from SNMP agents

Explanation

Question 11 of 36

1

Which two devices allow hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Layer 3 switch

  • hub

  • Layer 2 switch

  • repeater

  • router

Explanation

Question 12 of 36

1

Explanation: Members of different VLANs are on separate networks. For devices on separate networks to be able to communicate, a Layer 3 device, such as a router or Layer 3 switch, is necessary.

Select one or more of the following:

  • 192.168.32.0

  • 192.168.64.0

  • 192.168.0.0

  • 192.168.16.0

Explanation

Question 13 of 36

1

Which technique is used to help mitigate SQL injection attacks?

Select one of the following:

  • using the same owner or admin account in the web applications to connect to the database

  • limiting the read access to specific fields of a table or joins of tables

  • using stored procedures with the “db_owner” default role

  • assigning DBA or admin access rights to the application account

Explanation

Question 14 of 36

1

Which security device is used to make responses to client requests look like they all come from the same server?

Select one of the following:

  • stateful firewall

  • forward proxy

  • reverse proxy

  • jump box

Explanation

Question 15 of 36

1

What is a characteristic of a virtual machine running on a PC?

Select one of the following:

  • A virtual machine needs a physical network adapter to connect to the Internet.

  • A virtual machine runs its own operating system.

  • The number of virtual machines that can be made available depends on the software resources of the host machine.

  • A virtual machine is not susceptible to threats and malicious attacks.

Explanation

Question 16 of 36

1

Make sure na may maaalala kayo tangina nyo susungalngalin ko kayo -Reign

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 17 of 36

1

What is a characteristic of the blue-green upgrade deployment strategy?

Select one of the following:

  • A new environment is created with the new code in it, while the old environment is held in reserve in case users experience problems.

  • The code changes are periodically rolled out in such a way that they do not impact current users.

  • The new code is deployed all at once to the old environment. If users experience no issues, it is then moved to the new environment.

  • The new code version is first rolled out to a subset of users. Changes can then be rolled back if the users experience any problems.

Explanation

Question 18 of 36

1

These are clouds that locate computing as close as possible to the user.

Select one of the following:

  • public

  • private

  • hybrid

  • edge

Explanation

Question 19 of 36

1

These clouds are made up to two or more clouds. However, each part remains a distinctive and separate object. Both of these are connected using a single architecture.

Select one of the following:

  • public

  • private

  • hybrid

  • edge

Explanation

Question 20 of 36

1

These are clouds that are intended for a specific organization or entity, such as the government. They can be set up using the private network of an organization.

Select one of the following:

  • public

  • private

  • hybrid

  • edge

Explanation

Question 21 of 36

1

Which mitigation method is effective against cross-site scripting?

Select one of the following:

  • requiring multifactor authentication

  • consistent hardening of systems and applications

  • sanitizing untrusted content

  • using only necessary features and secure packages downloaded from official sources and verified with a signature

Explanation

Question 22 of 36

1

contains code that has been tested multiple times and is error free

Select one of the following:

  • development

  • testing

  • staging

  • production

Explanation

Question 23 of 36

1

includes automated tools such as Jenkins, CircleCl, or Travis Cl, and is often integrated with a version control system

Select one of the following:

  • development

  • testing

  • staging

  • production

Explanation

Question 24 of 36

1

where coding takes place

Select one of the following:

  • development

  • testing

  • staging

  • production

Explanation

Question 25 of 36

1

structurally as close to the actual production environment as possible

Select one of the following:

  • development

  • testing

  • staging

  • production

Explanation

Question 26 of 36

1

Which attack involves the insertion of malicious code into SQL statements?

Select one of the following:

  • SQL injection

  • cross-site scripting

  • brute force

  • local file inclusion

Explanation

Question 27 of 36

1

In software development, what is the purpose of a jump box?

Select one of the following:

  • to act as a single trusted machine used to launch connections to sensitive systems

  • to make all requests originating from within a network look like they come from the same source IP address

  • to filter packets based on Layer 3 and Layer 4 addressing

  • to receive incoming requests and forward them to multiple servers

Explanation

Question 28 of 36

1

Which characters are used to separate batched SQL statements?

Select one of the following:

  • semicolons ;

  • colons :

  • parentheses ()

  • pound signs #

Explanation

Question 29 of 36

1

What is a philosophy for software deployment used in the field of DevOps?

Select one of the following:

  • OWASP

  • DevNet

  • SOAP

  • CI/CD

Explanation

Question 30 of 36

1

Which statement is a characteristic of the broken access control threat to web applications?

Select one of the following:

  • It allows attackers to access, and potentially change, serialized versions of data and objects.

  • It allows an attacker to use the dynamic functions of a site to inject malicious content into the page.

  • It allows users to circumvent existing authentication requirements.

  • It allows attackers to steal sensitive information such as passwords or personal information.

Explanation

Question 31 of 36

1

Which technology is used to containerize applications and allows them to run in a variety of environments?

Select one of the following:

  • Docker

  • GitHub

  • VirtualBox

  • Cisco DNA

Explanation

Question 32 of 36

1

explains ways to mitigate command security issues in web application

Select one of the following:

  • Cheat Sheet Series

  • Dependency Check

  • DefectDojo

  • ModSecurity Core Rule Set

Explanation

Question 33 of 36

1

looks for known vulnerabilities in code

Select one of the following:

  • Cheat Sheet Series

  • Dependency Check

  • DefectDojo

  • ModSecurity Core Rule Set

Explanation

Question 34 of 36

1

streamlines the code testing process

Select one of the following:

  • Cheat Sheet Series

  • Dependency Check

  • DefectDojo

  • ModSecurity Core Rule Set

Explanation

Question 35 of 36

1

generic attack detection rules used with web application firewalls

Select one of the following:

  • Cheat Sheet Series

  • Dependency Check

  • DefectDojo

  • ModSecurity Core Rule Set

Explanation

Question 36 of 36

1

What is used to isolate the different parts of a running container?

Select one of the following:

  • wrappers

  • namespaces

  • control groups

  • union file systems

Explanation

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