Christian Cobo
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Christian Cobo
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auditing 1

Question 1 of 111

1

The definition of internal audit includes all of the following except

Select one of the following:

  • additional value and improved operations.

  • determination of efficient and effective performance.

  • provision of assurance and consulting activity.

  • independence and objectivity.

Explanation

Question 2 of 111

1

The reasons for outsourcing an internal audit include

Select one of the following:

  • more expertise and improved control over audit costss

  • improved control over audit costs and improved alignment with company goals.

  • more expertise only.

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 3 of 111

1

The primary difference between operational auditing and financial auditing is that in operational auditing, the auditor

Select one of the following:

  • is seeking to help management use resources in the most effective manner possible.

  • can use analytical skills and tools that are not necessary in financial auditing.

  • starts the process with the financial statements of an activity being audited and works backward to the basic processes involved in producing them.

  • is concerned only with the audited activity's adherence to company policy and procedures.

Explanation

Question 4 of 111

1

Independence permits internal auditors to render impartial and unbiased judgments. The best way for internal audit departments to achieve independence is through

Select one of the following:

  • supervision within the organization.

  • organizational status and individual objectivity.

  • organizational knowledge and skills.

  • individual knowledge and skills.

Explanation

Question 5 of 111

1

The proper organizational role of internal auditing is to

Select one of the following:

  • assist external auditors in reducing external audit fees.

  • serve as an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity that adds value to the organization.

  • serve as an investigative arm of senior management and the board of directors.

  • perform studies to assist in attaining more efficient operations.

Explanation

Question 6 of 111

1

During the audit of the quality control area, an auditor identified that a specific product has a 3 percent failure rate when tested. The specification calls for a failure rate of less than 1.8 percent. Product failure might lead to customer injury and in turn lawsuits against the company. The auditor has communicated this to management. Which of the following is not an acceptable response from management with regard to this risk?

Select one of the following:

  • Management has decided to increase the quality control activity to reduce the manufacture of unacceptable product to an acceptably low level.

  • Management has decided not to continue manufacturing this product.

  • Management has decided that the test data are unreliable and has decided not to respond to the audit findings.

  • Management is aware of the risk and has decided that it is acceptable.

Explanation

Question 7 of 111

1

Having an audit charter is important for internal audit departments. Which of the following items is generally not a reason to have an audit charter?

Select one of the following:

  • It provides a commitment from management to support the internal audit department's activities.

  • It defines the skills and competencies required by the internal audit department.

  • It defines the department's authority and responsibility.

  • It defines the reporting requirements for internal audit departments.

Explanation

Question 8 of 111

1

Your organization has selected you to develop an internal audit activity. Your approach will most likely be to hire

Select one of the following:

  • internal auditors who collectively have the knowledge and skills needed to perform the responsibilities of the internal audit activities.

  • degreed accountants because most internal audit work is accounting related.

  • inexperienced personnel and train them the way the organization wants them trained.

  • internal auditors each of whom possess the skills required to handle all engagements.

Explanation

Question 9 of 111

1

The purpose of the internal audit's evaluation of the effectiveness of existing risk management processes is to determine that

Select one of the following:

  • the organization's objectives and goals will be achieved in an accurate and timely manner and with minimal use of resources.

  • the organization's objectives and goals will be achieved efficiently and economically.

  • management directs processes to provide reasonable assurance of achieving objectives and goals.

  • management has planned and designed the process to provide reasonable assurance of achieving objectives and goals.

Explanation

Question 10 of 111

1

Senior management has ordered a compliance audit of the organization's employee benefits package. Which of the following do both the chief audit executive and senior management consider a primary engagement objective?

Select one of the following:

  • Benefits payments, when appropriate, are accurate and timely.

  • Participation levels support continuation of individual programs.

  • Individual programs are operating in accordance with contractual requirements and government regulations.

  • The level of the organizational contributions is adequate to meet the program's demands.

Explanation

Question 11 of 111

1

The Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Audit of the Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) is classified in three major categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories?

Select one of the following:

  • Governance standards.

  • Implementation standards.

  • Performance standards.

  • Attribute standards.

Explanation

Question 12 of 111

1

Which of the following is a requirement of the Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Audit if the Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) that is not a requirement of an external auditor performing a financial statement audit?

Select one of the following:

  • Performing a follow-up on audit findings.

  • Reporting to the audit committee.

  • Internal control evaluation.

  • Due care.

Explanation

Question 13 of 111

1

When preparing an audit report, an internal auditor must convince management to take action concerning the report's findings. When reporting on an audit finding, an auditor must include some key elements about that finding in the report. These key elements are

Select one of the following:

  • location, criteria, cause, effect, and recommendation.

  • condition, criteria, cause, effect, and recommendation.

  • condition, criteria, cause, effect, and requirement.

  • condition, source, cause, effect, and recommendation.

Explanation

Question 14 of 111

1

Program audits include determining

Select one of the following:

  • the degree to which an entity is acquiring, protecting, and using its resources effectively.

  • the causes of an organization's inefficiencies or uneconomical practices.

  • the entity's compliance with laws and regulations concerning matters of efficiency.

  • the effectiveness of an organization's programs, activities, or functions.

Explanation

Question 15 of 111

1

The Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing of the Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) does not include the broad category of

Select one of the following:

  • quality control.

  • performance of the engagement.

  • nature of work.

  • proficiency and due care.

Explanation

Question 16 of 111

1

Which of the following internal audits is generally not a type of government audit?

Select one of the following:

  • Review of the results of programs.

  • Review of the means of safeguarding assets.

  • Review of the economy and efficiency in the use of resources.

  • Review of compliance with policies, plans, procedures, laws, and regulations.

Explanation

Question 17 of 111

1

The U.S. Government Accountability Office (GAO) standards do not specifically require a written report in financial statement audits for

Select one of the following:

  • internal control structure and the control risk assessment.

  • compliance with applicable laws and regulations.

  • all instances of illegal acts that could result in criminal prosecution.

  • recommendations for actions to improve operations.

Explanation

Question 18 of 111

1

The federal law that established uniform requirements for audits of federal assistance provided to state and local governments is called

Select one of the following:

  • the Single Audit Act of 1984.

  • the Sarbanes-Oxley Act or 2002.

  • the Audit Reduction Act of 1985.

  • the Uniform Requirements Act of 1992.

Explanation

Question 19 of 111

1

The definition of administrative control does not include reference to

Select one of the following:

  • plan of organization.

  • adherence to managerial policies.

  • accounting errors.

  • operational efficiency.

Explanation

Question 20 of 111

1

When dealing with standards, measurements, and comparisons, input measurements are most important for audits of

Select one of the following:

  • financial statements.

  • program results.

  • efficiency.

  • economy.

Explanation

Question 21 of 111

1

Which of the following is not required to become a certified internal auditor (CIA)?

Select one of the following:

  • Meet an experience requirement.

  • Have a full-time position as an internal auditor.

  • Pass a two-day examination.

  • Hold a college degree.

Explanation

Question 22 of 111

1

When considering the competence of internal auditors, external auditors should obtain evidence about the

Select one of the following:

  • the size of the internal audit department.

  • lines of communication within the entity of the internal auditors.

  • organizational status of the internal auditors.

  • educational and experience qualifications of the internal auditors.

Explanation

Question 23 of 111

1

When independent CPAs in public practice take engagements to audit government units or financial assistance recipients, they must follow

Select one of the following:

  • Internal auditing standards.

  • GAGAS only.

  • GAAS and GAGAS.

  • GAAS only.

Explanation

Question 24 of 111

1

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

  • External auditors must share responsibility for the work of internal auditors if it is used for evidence for the financial statement audit.

  • External auditors must investigate the competence and objectivity of internal auditors.

  • External auditors must review all work performed by internal auditors.

  • External auditors must consider the internal audit function as part of obtaining an understanding of a company's internal control structure.

Explanation

Question 25 of 111

1

Which of the following is a difference between performing an audit and performing a fraud examination?

Select one of the following:

  • Auditors are concerned only with financial statement errors; fraud examiners are concerned only with the theft of assets by employees.

  • Auditors are generally not concerned with small immaterial misstatements; fraud examiners generally do not believe that any fraud is immaterial.

  • Auditors use analytical procedures, such as trend analysis, to identify risks of misstatements; fraud examiners are not interested in analytical procedures because they must identify specific items that prove the occurrence of fraud.

  • Auditors are not concerned with the nature of a financial misstatement; fraud examiners are concerned with the nature of the misstatement.

Explanation

Question 26 of 111

1

Fraud examiners have four main objectives in performing an investigation. Which of the following is not one of those objectives?

Select one of the following:

  • Determine whether a fraud exists.

  • Determine how the fraud occurred.

  • Determine who was involved in the fraud.

  • Determine the effect on financial statement users.

Explanation

Question 27 of 111

1

In performing a financial statement audit in accordance with government auditing standards, an auditor is required to report on the entity's compliance with laws and regulations. This report should

Select one of the following:

  • indicate that the auditor does not possess legal skills and cannot make legal judgments.

  • provide an opinion on overall compliance with laws and regulations.

  • describe the laws and regulations with which the entity must comply.

  • state that compliance with laws and regulations is the responsibility of the entity's management.

Explanation

Question 28 of 111

1

Which of the following statements is a standard applicable to financial statement audits in accordance with government auditing standards?

Select one of the following:

  • Determine the extent to which the entity's programs achieve the desired level of results.

  • Briefly describe in the auditor's report the method of statistical sampling used in performing tests of controls and substantive tests.

  • Report on the scope of the auditor's testing of internal controls.

  • Assess whether the entity has reportable measures of economy and efficiency that are valid and reliable.

Explanation

Question 29 of 111

1

The U.S. Government Accountability Office is an agency of

Select one of the following:

  • the Federal Accounting Standards Board.

  • the U.S. Supreme Court.

  • the Executive Office of Management and Budget.

  • the U.S. Congress.

Explanation

Question 30 of 111

1

The demand for compliance auditing in generally accepted government auditing standards (GAGAS) terms is generated by

Select one of the following:

  • public reports on government managers' following laws and regulations.

  • governmental managers' obligations to follow laws and regulations.

  • financial statement audits performed in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards.

  • acts discreditable to the profession.

Explanation

Question 31 of 111

1

After performing work in a compliance attestation engagement and finding that a governmental agency's managers failed to install and perform even the most elementary controls to ensure compliance with laws and regulations and, in fact, committed numerous violations, an auditor most likely would

Select one of the following:

  • write an adverse report on actual compliance.

  • write a disclaimer of opinion related to knowledge of noncompliance.

  • write a report modified to disclose particular noncompliance events (specific violations of laws and regulations).

  • write an unqualified report on actual compliance.

Explanation

Question 32 of 111

1

A GAO audit report entitled Aviation Safety: Safer Skies Initiative Has Taken Initial Steps to Reduce Accident Rates by 2007 is most likely a report based on work the auditors performed during a

Select one of the following:

  • financial statement audit.

  • performance audit of air control regulation effectiveness.

  • performance audit of program goal achievement.

  • compliance audit of air safety regulations.

Explanation

Question 33 of 111

1

The Single Audit Act of 1984 requires an annual audit of all governments, agencies, and nonprofit organizations that

Select one of the following:

  • receive $300,000 or more federal funds.

  • spend $500,000 or more federal funds.

  • spend $300,000 or more federal funds.

  • receive $500,000 or more federal funds.

Explanation

Question 34 of 111

1

When auditors report on a financial audit engagement in accordance with generally accepted government auditing standards (GAGAS), the basic report(s) include a

Select one of the following:

  • report on compliance regarding laws and regulations and report(s) on achievement of program goal(s).

  • report on internal control and report(s) on efficiency and effectiveness of operations.

  • report (opinion) on financial statements, report on internal control, and report on compliance audit regarding laws and regulations.

  • disclaimer of opinion on financial statements, report on internal control, and report on compliance audit regarding laws and regulations.

Explanation

Question 35 of 111

1

Generally accepted government auditing standards (GAGAS) regarding performance reporting standards requires the reports to tell about which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Abuse of public money and property and internal control design and strength of operation.

  • Abuse of public money and property and management's noteworthy positive accomplishments.

  • Presentation of financial statements in accordance with GAAP and internal control design and strength of operation.

  • Presentation of financial statements in accordance with GAAP and abuse of public money and property.

Explanation

Question 36 of 111

1

In assessing the objectivity of internal auditors, an independent auditor should

Select one of the following:

  • determine the organizational level to which the internal auditors report.

  • test a sample of the transactions and balances that the internal auditors examined.

  • examine documentary evidence of the work performed by the internal auditors.

  • evaluate the quality control program in effect for the internal auditors.

Explanation

Question 37 of 111

1

The work of internal auditors may affect the independent auditor's

Select one of the following:

  • procedures performed in obtaining an understanding of the internal control structure and in assessing the risk of material misstatement and substantive tests performed in gathering direct evidence.

  • procedures performed in assessing the risk of material misstatement and substantive tests performed in gathering direct evidence only.

  • procedures performed in obtaining an understanding of the internal control structure and substantive tests performed in gathering direct evidence only.

  • procedures performed in obtaining an understanding of the internal control structure and in assessing the risk of material misstatement only.

Explanation

Question 38 of 111

1

When performing a fraud examination, the fraud examiner takes great care to preserve and identify any documents that may indicate fraud, which is called

Select one of the following:

  • forensic auditing.

  • marking an evidential exhibit.

  • establishing evidential procedure.

  • preserving the chain of custody of the evidence.

Explanation

Question 39 of 111

1

Which of the following would be considered in determining whether an internal audit department is independent?

Select one of the following:

  • The organizational level of the chief audit officer and the objectivity of the audit staff.

  • A requirement for the auditors to report to the audit committee and the composition of the audit committee.

  • The organizational status of the audit committee and the individual independence of internal auditors in the department.

  • The nature of the audit charter and the objectivity of the audit staff.

Explanation

Question 40 of 111

1

Which of the following would be considered an independence issue for an internal auditor?

Select one of the following:

  • The controller had authority to change the audit schedule before being sent to management and the audit committee.

  • The CAE reports directly to the audit committee.

  • The auditors participated in the employee stock plan and, therefore, owned stock in the company.

  • The company decreased every department's budget, including internal audit, by 5%.

Explanation

Question 41 of 111

1

Which of the following situations provides the greatest threat to an internal auditor's objectivity?

Select one of the following:

  • A warehouse employee assists an auditor in verifying the physical inventory of small motors.

  • An auditor recommends controls and performance measures for inclusion in a new contract with an outside service organization for the processing of payroll and employee benefits.

  • A former purchasing assistant performs a review of bidding procedures in the purchasing department four months after being transferred to the internal auditing department.

  • An auditor reviews the procedures for a new electronic data interchange (EDI) connection to a major customer before it is implemented.

Explanation

Question 42 of 111

1

An internal auditor's report should contain five elements for each finding. Which of the following are the correct elements?

Select one of the following:

  • Condition, relevance, evidence, effect, recommendation.

  • Condition, evidence, cause, effect, recommendation.

  • Condition, relevance, cause, effect, recommendation.

  • Condition, criteria, cause, effect, recommendation.

Explanation

Question 43 of 111

1

A university received a significant grant from the state in which it resides. Which of the following would be of greatest interest to a governmental auditor auditing that grant at the university?

Select one of the following:

  • The person applying for the grant was the person that was utilizing the grant money.

  • Grant money was spent in accordance with the purpose of the grant.

  • The grant is properly recorded on the university's financial statements.

  • Cash received by the university was deposited in the appropriate account.

Explanation

Question 44 of 111

1

In an audit of a municipality the auditor is most important audit objective is

Select one of the following:

  • purchases made by the municipality have sufficient encumbrances.

  • the municipality as sufficient documentation to support all purchases.

  • the municipality's internal controls are operating effectively.

  • the municipality is in compliance with laws, regulations, and the municipality's policy and procedures.

Explanation

Question 45 of 111

1

Which of the following is mostly concerned with the benefits derived from the expenditure of funds?

Select one of the following:

  • Financial statement auditing.

  • Management auditing.

  • Performance auditing.

  • Operational auditing.

Explanation

Question 46 of 111

1

A typical objective for internal auditors in the company's sustainability program is for the auditor to

Select one of the following:

  • report on the company's relative success in attaining sustainability objectives.

  • assist management in establishing measurements for achieving company objectives.

  • establish funding requirements for sustainability programs.

  • determine whether the financial statements fairly present the company's expenditures on regulatory compliance.

Explanation

Question 47 of 111

1

A governmental auditor assigned to audit the financial statements of the state highway department would not be considered independent if the auditor

Select one of the following:

  • reported the audit findings to the transportation committee of the state legislature.

  • performed audits of the state budget that included funding to the highway department.

  • lived in the state and utilized the highway system on a daily basis.

  • spouse was the CFO of the highway department.

Explanation

Question 48 of 111

1

Management has instated a new grievance process. When an employee has a grievance a manager, in another department is assigned as an independent mediator to evaluate the employee's complaint. That manager must submit a written report to the Vice President of Human Resources, who must act on the report and discuss the resolution with the employee, the employee's manager, and any other relevant personnel.
Management acknowledges that this process will mean that an employee will be paid for several hours of work during the grievance process and several managers will spend time in the process. However, this process will likely reduce employee turnover.
This process has been in place for 18 months. Management wants to know what the costs are for the grievance process and if the new process is achieving the stated objective of reducing employee turnover. What type of audit would internal perform?

Select one of the following:

  • Performance audit.

  • Compliance audit.

  • Governance audit.

  • Operational audit.

Explanation

Question 49 of 111

1

The purpose of the internal audit's evaluation of the effectiveness of existing risk management processes is to determine that

Select one of the following:

  • the organization's objectives and goals will be achieved in an accurate and timely manner and with minimal use of resources.

  • the organization's objectives and goals are established within risk limits established by the internal audit organization.

  • management's policies and procedures will achieve objectives and goals.

  • management has planned and designed operations to provide reasonable assurance of achieving objectives and goals.

Explanation

Question 50 of 111

1

Predication is

Select one of the following:

  • the amount of restitution that is made to the company when an individual is convicted of a fraud.

  • a reason to believe that a fraud has occurred.

  • evidence used in a court of law in proving fraudulent behavior.

  • the determination of the method used to enact a fraud.

Explanation

Question 51 of 111

1

In a fraud investigation, the first objective is

Select one of the following:

  • to determine if a fraud has been committed.

  • establish who the perpetrators are.

  • inspect documentation for tampering.

  • identify possible motives to commit a fraud.

Explanation

Question 52 of 111

1

Which of the following would not be an objective of a fraud investigation?

Select one of the following:

  • Determine the amount of restitution that should be received from the perpetrators.

  • Identify internal control weaknesses that allowed the fraud to occur.

  • Determine the scope of the fraud.

  • Determine from the evidence if a fraud has been committed.

Explanation

Question 53 of 111

1

Auditors of governmental units would not be presumed to be independent if they are

Select one of the following:

  • elected or appointed and reporting to a legislative body of government.

  • auditing the branch of government to which they are assigned.

  • independent under AICPA Code of Professional Conduct rules.

  • free from sources of personal impairment.

Explanation

Question 54 of 111

1

The services provided by internal auditors do not include

Select one of the following:

  • appraisals of the economy and efficiency of operations.

  • review of effectiveness in achieving program results in comparison to pre-established objectives and goals.

  • review of control systems that ensure compliance with company policies, laws, and regulations.

  • audits of financial statements for security registration statements.

Explanation

Question 55 of 111

1

Operational audits do not include determining

Select one of the following:

  • whether the department's goals are aligned with the organization's goals.

  • the causes of inefficiencies or uneconomical practices.

  • review of control systems to ensure compliance with company policies.

  • whether the entity is acquiring, practicing, and using resources economically and efficiently.

Explanation

Question 56 of 111

1

Program audits do not include determining

Select one of the following:

  • whether the financial statements of an audited entity fairly present the financial position in accordance with GAAP.

  • whether the agency has complied with laws and regulations applicable to the program.

  • the effectiveness of organizations, programs, activities, or functions.

  • the extent to which the desired results or benefits established by the legislature are being achieved.

Explanation

Question 57 of 111

1

The IIA Performance Standards do not include the standard for

Select one of the following:

  • engagement planning.

  • compliance with policies, plans, procedures, laws and regulations.

  • nature of work.

  • managing the internal audit activity.

Explanation

Question 58 of 111

1

The GAO Government Auditing Standards requirements for written reports in financial statement audits do not include

Select one of the following:

  • a report on the auditee's compliance with applicable laws and regulations.

  • a report on the auditee's internal control structure and the control risk assessment.

  • a report of any significant accomplishments and management improvements.

  • audit report on financial statements.

Explanation

Question 59 of 111

1

In a single audit of federal financial assistance programs, which of the following does the auditor not need to determine and report for each organization?

Select one of the following:

  • That the laws and regulations have been complied with.

  • That an adequate internal control system is in place.

  • That the financial statements are presented fairly in accordance with GAAP.

  • An expanded scope audit of economy, efficiency, and program results.

Explanation

Question 60 of 111

1

Which of the following auditors is responsible for designing and planning an audit to detect material illegal acts and frauds?

Select one of the following:

  • External auditors.

  • Internal auditors.

  • Governmental auditors.

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 61 of 111

1

Generally, fraud examiners are called when a fraud is already known or suspected. The term that means a reason to believe a fraud has occurred is

Select one of the following:

  • Admonition.

  • Predication.

  • Suspicion.

  • Prediction.

Explanation

Question 62 of 111

1

Fraud examiners must be concerned with the integrity of the evidence that they find. Preserving the evidence is called

Select one of the following:

  • admissibility of testimony.

  • evidence conservation.

  • chain of custody.

  • expert identification.

Explanation

Question 63 of 111

1

The AICPA Assurance Services Executive Committee identified five megatrends that can affect public accounting firms'' business. Which of the following is NOT one of the megatrends they identified?

Select one of the following:

  • Merging of corporations creating fewer audit opportunities

  • Globalization

  • The shift from the industrial age to the knowledge age

  • Information Technology

Explanation

Question 64 of 111

1

Assurance services are defined as independent professional services that

Select one of the following:

  • develop efficient and effective accounting systems to ensure compliance with accounting standards and policy.

  • attest to the adequacy of controls over business operations.

  • improve the quality of information, or its context, for decision makers.

  • establish criteria for effective measurement of business activity.

Explanation

Question 65 of 111

1

Many individuals are apprehensive about using the Internet to purchase items. This apprehension mainly arises from users' concerns about

Select one of the following:

  • the lack of CPA involvement in Internet company financial information.

  • a lack of security for information transmitted over the Internet.

  • the time delays in Internet purchases.

  • the reliability of computer technology.

Explanation

Question 66 of 111

1

The phrase "Trust services" refers to

Select one of the following:

  • all AICPA designated assurance services.

  • WebTrust and XBRL Services.

  • XBRL and SysTrust Services.

  • WebTrust and SysTrust Services.

Explanation

Question 67 of 111

1

Which of the following is NOT a principle of Trust Service engagements?

Select one of the following:

  • Confidentiality of information

  • Proficiency in preparing transactions

  • Availability of the system, products, or services

  • Security from unauthorized use

Explanation

Question 68 of 111

1

What is the appropriate name for an assurance service provided by a CPA regarding a client's commercial Internet site with reference to the principles of privacy, security, processing integrity, availability, and confidentiality?

Select one of the following:

  • WebSecure

  • XBRL

  • SysTrust

  • WebTrust

Explanation

Question 69 of 111

1

Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL) provides a computer readable identifying tag for each individual item of data. The advantages of XBRL include all of the following except

Select one of the following:

  • permits automatic checking of information.

  • improves the full disclosure of financial information.

  • reduces the chance of error.

  • increases the speed of handling of financial data.

Explanation

Question 70 of 111

1

Enhanced Business Reporting (EBR) focuses on improving business reporting by developing a voluntary framework for presentation and disclosure of value drivers and non-financial measures of performance. The advantages of EBR include all of the following except

Select one of the following:

  • better footnote disclosure in the companies' SEC filings.

  • better allocation of capital by investors.

  • reduced financing costs for companies.

  • more efficient and effective regulatory process.

Explanation

Question 71 of 111

1

Attestation engagements include

Select one of the following:

  • examinations, reviews, compilations, agreed-upon procedures and assurance services.

  • examinations, reviews, and agreed-upon procedures.

  • examinations and assurance services.

  • only examinations.

Explanation

Question 72 of 111

1

The accountant's standard report for a compilation service would not include a statement that

Select one of the following:

  • financial statements have not been audited or reviewed and the accountant does not express an opinion or any other form of assurance.

  • compilation service consists primarily of inquiries of company personnel and analytical procedures applied to financial data.

  • financial statement information is the representation of the owners of the business.

  • a compilation service has been performed in accordance with standards established by the AICPA.

Explanation

Question 73 of 111

1

Shelly's Bank has loaned money to Pete's Auto Supply. The loan is collateralized by inventory. The loan also requires a CPA to observe the count of the inventory and trace sampled items to the vendor invoices in order to determine the value of inventory is not misstated. This service would be

Select one of the following:

  • a compilation engagement.

  • a review engagement.

  • an attestation engagement.

  • an assurance service engagement.

Explanation

Question 74 of 111

1

The reporting standards for an attestation are different from that of an audit because they require

Select one of the following:

  • the report requires a disclosure of the procedures performed during the attestation.

  • the report requires a statement that the presentation is not in accordance with GAAP.

  • the report to identify the subject matter of the assertion being reported on.

  • the report to include an opinion.

Explanation

Question 75 of 111

1

Attestation engagements may be more difficult than financial statement audits when

Select one of the following:

  • when the report may be submitted to individuals with insufficient knowledge of the nature of an attestation engagement.

  • when management may not understand the underlying assumptions of the attestation.

  • internal controls are difficult to assess.

  • the establishment of suitable measurement criteria is difficult.

Explanation

Question 76 of 111

1

In an agreed-upon procedures engagement, an accountant must

Select one of the following:

  • all of these are true.

  • include negative assurance explicitly in the report.

  • follow the attestation standard related to evidential matter.

  • follow the attestation standard related to internal control.

Explanation

Question 77 of 111

1

A responsible party for information to subject to an attestation engagement would not include

Select one of the following:

  • a client employee named in a contract or regulation as being responsible for the information.

  • the client's Vice President of Marketing.

  • the independent accountant.

  • the client's controller.

Explanation

Question 78 of 111

1

Which of the following procedures would not be performed in a review of financial statements of a nonpublic company?

Select one of the following:

  • Study the financial statements for indications that they conform to generally accepted accounting principles.

  • Obtain an attorney's letter regarding litigation and unasserted claims.

  • Perform analytical procedures to identify relationships and individual items that appear to be unusual.

  • Inquire about the accounting system and bookkeeping procedures.

Explanation

Question 79 of 111

1

ABC Company prepares financial statements showing the last two years, years X and Y (Year X is the year prior to year Y). The auditor performed an audit of year X and a review of year Y. The auditor may

Select one of the following:

  • notify the client that prior year audited financial statements cannot be presented when the current years statements have not been audited.

  • reissue the year X audit report with an explanatory paragraph disclosing that only a review was performed on year Y.

  • provide only the report concerning the year Y review.

  • report on the year Y review and reissue the year X audit report.

Explanation

Question 80 of 111

1

In an agreed-upon procedures engagement, an accountant

Select one of the following:

  • follows all of the Fundamental Principles of GAAS.

  • restricts the report to specified users.

  • includes negative assurance in the report.

  • gives a qualified audit report.

Explanation

Question 81 of 111

1

Which of the following procedures should an accountant perform during an engagement to review the financial statements of a nonpublic entity?

Select one of the following:

  • Examine cash disbursements in the subsequent period for unrecorded liabilities.

  • Send bank confirmation letters to the entity's financial institutions.

  • Obtain a client representation letter from members of management.

  • Communicate reportable conditions discovered during the assessment of control risk.

Explanation

Question 82 of 111

1

When an accountant is engaged to compile a nonpublic entity's financial statements that omit substantially all disclosures required by GAAP, the accountant should indicate in the compilation report that the financial statements

Select one of the following:

  • are special-purpose financial statements that are not comparable to those of prior periods.

  • are not compiled in accordance with Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services.

  • are prepared in conformity with a comprehensive basis of accounting other than GAAP.

  • might influence users' conclusions about the business, if the disclosures were included.

Explanation

Question 83 of 111

1

Which of the following procedures ordinarily should be applied when an independent accountant conducts a review of interim financial information of a publicly held entity?

Select one of the following:

  • Perform cut-off tests for cash receipts and disbursements.

  • Inspect the open purchase order file.

  • Read the minutes of the board of directors' meetings.

  • Verify changes in key account balances.

Explanation

Question 84 of 111

1

An auditor's special report on financial statements prepared in conformity with the cash basis of accounting should include a separate explanatory paragraph before the opinion paragraph that

Select one of the following:

  • explains how the results of operations differ from financial statements prepared in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles.

  • refers to the note to the financial statements that describes the special purpose framework.

  • states whether the financial statements are fairly presented in conformity with a special purpose framework.

  • justifies the reasons for departing from generally accepted principles.

Explanation

Question 85 of 111

1

Which of the following best describes an engagement to report on an entity's internal control over financial reporting for a nonpublic company?

Select one of the following:

  • A consulting engagement to provide constructive advice to the entity on its internal control structure

  • A prospective engagement to project, for a period of time not to exceed one year, and report on the expected benefits of the entity's internal control structure

  • An audit engagement to render an opinion on the entity's internal control structure

  • An attestation engagement to examine and report on management's written assertions about the effectiveness of its internal control structure

Explanation

Question 86 of 111

1

Delta Life Insurance Co. prepares its financial statements on an accounting basis insurance companies use pursuant to the rules of a state insurance commission. Wall, CPA, is Delta's auditor. If Wall discovers that the statements are not suitably titled, Wall should

Select one of the following:

  • explain in the notes to the financial statements the terminology used.

  • issue a special statutory basis report that clearly disclaims any opinion.

  • apply to the state insurance commission for an advisory opinion.

  • disclose any reservations in an explanatory paragraph and qualify the opinion.

Explanation

Question 87 of 111

1

When providing limited assurance that the reviewed financial statements of a nonpublic entity require no material modifications to be in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, the accountant should

Select one of the following:

  • develop audit plans to determine whether the entity's financial statements are fairly presented.

  • understand the accounting principles of the industry in which the entity operates.

  • confirm with the entity's lawyer that material loss contingencies are disclosed.

  • assess the risk that a material misstatement could occur in a financial statement assertion.

Explanation

Question 88 of 111

1

Which of the following procedures is ordinarily performed by an accountant in a compilation engagement of a nonpublic entity?

Select one of the following:

  • Applying analytical procedures designed to corroborate management's assertions that are embodied in the financial statement components

  • Making inquiries of management concerning actions taken at meetings of the stockholders and the board of directors

  • Obtaining written representations from management indicating that the compiled financial statements will not be used to obtain credit

  • Reading the financial statements to consider whether they are free of obvious mistakes in the application of accounting principles

Explanation

Question 89 of 111

1

In reporting on a nonpublic entity's internal control over financial reporting, an accountant should include a paragraph that describes the

Select one of the following:

  • inherent limitations of internal control.

  • documentary evidence regarding the control environment factors.

  • potential benefits from the accountant's suggested improvements.

  • changes in the entity's internal control since the prior report.

Explanation

Question 90 of 111

1

Compiled financial statements of a nonpublic entity should be accompanied by a report stating that

Select one of the following:

  • a compilation consists primarily of inquiries of entity personnel and analytical procedures applied to financial data.

  • the accountant does not express an opinion or any other form of assurance on the financial statements.

  • the accountant assessed the accounting principles used and significant estimates made by management.

  • the scope of the accountant's procedures has not been restricted in testing the financial information that is the representation of management.

Explanation

Question 91 of 111

1

Hamell Corporation is making a presentation to a prospective investor. The presentation includes a projection showing that the company's sales will be between $25,000,000 and $27,000,000 within the next three years. Hamell believes the information will be better received if its CPA provides an attestation report on the projection. In order to provide such a report the CPA must do all of the following EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

  • identify key factors affecting the information.

  • confirm expected sales with customers.

  • evaluate the assumptions used in preparing the projection.

  • obtain knowledge about the client's business.

Explanation

Question 92 of 111

1

Hamell Corporation is making a presentation to a perspective investor. The presentation includes a projection showing that the company's sales will be between $25,000,000 and $27,000,000 within the next three years. Hamell believes the information will be better received if its CPA provides an attestation report on the projection. The CPA should insure that proper disclosure is made to indicate that

Select one of the following:

  • projections are limited in their information content due to uncontrollable changes in the business environment.

  • the range does not indicate a "best" and "worst" case scenario.

  • the range of the projection is appropriate given the circumstances.

  • the $27,000,000 estimate is a best case scenario.

Explanation

Question 93 of 111

1

Which of the following is NOT a condition that must be met before an accountant can conduct an engagement concerning a nonpublic entity's internal control over financial reporting?

Select one of the following:

  • Management accepts responsibility for the effectiveness of its internal control.

  • Management presents a written assertion about the effectiveness of its internal control.

  • Management's evaluation of control can be supported by sufficient evidence.

  • Management has appropriately documented the internal controls.

Explanation

Question 94 of 111

1

Which of the following steps is NOT required in performing a compliance attestation engagement?

Select one of the following:

  • Consider subsequent events

  • Confirm restrictions with applicable third-parties

  • Assess inherent risk

  • Assess planning materiality

Explanation

Question 95 of 111

1

An accountant's report includes the phrase "We are not aware". This phrase indicates

Select one of the following:

  • an attestation was not performed.

  • a disclaimer of opinion is presented.

  • the auditor is providing negative assurance.

  • management had not established sufficient criteria for an opinion to be issued.

Explanation

Question 96 of 111

1

The procedures used in a review engagement are

Select one of the following:

  • physical examination, inquiry, and obtaining a management representation letter.

  • analytical procedures, inquiry, and obtaining a management representation letter.

  • analytical procedures, reperformance, and obtaining a management representation letter.

  • physical examination, reperformance, and obtaining a management representation letter.

Explanation

Question 97 of 111

1

In a compilation engagement, the accountant

Select one of the following:

  • does not express an opinion.

  • provides a list of procedures performed and results found.

  • provides assurance that no material misstatement came to the auditors attention.

  • provides reasonable assurance that no material misstatements exist.

Explanation

Question 98 of 111

1

In a compilation engagement,

Select one of the following:

  • all appropriate disclosures must be presented.

  • managers or owners may choose to omit all the footnote disclosures.

  • an auditor provides only negative assurance.

  • financial statements must be presented in prescribed forms.

Explanation

Question 99 of 111

1

In order to perform a review of interim financial information, the auditor must

Select one of the following:

  • established sufficient criteria to form an opinion on the fair presentation of the financial information.

  • sent confirmation to third-parties concerning significant related-party transactions.

  • tested the entity's internal controls to determine that financial information is reliable.

  • have audited or be in the process of auditing the entity's latest financial statements.

Explanation

Question 100 of 111

1

When interim financial information is presented as supplementary information accompanying audited financial statements, the auditor should make reference to the information

Select one of the following:

  • in all cases.

  • when it has not been labeled as "unaudited".

  • when it is material to the financial statement users.

  • when the information has been reviewed rather than audited.

Explanation

Question 101 of 111

1

Other Comprehensive Basis of Accounting (OCBOA) includes all of the following EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

  • statements prepared on a cash basis.

  • statements that conform to accounting principles that are generally accepted.

  • statements prepared on a tax basis.

  • statements that conform to a regulatory agency.

Explanation

Question 102 of 111

1

Which of the following account titles would not be appropriate for a company that prepared its financial statements using the tax basis of accounting?

Select one of the following:

  • Statement of Change in Partners' Capital Accounts

  • Statement of Revenue and Expenses

  • Statement of Assets, Liabilities, and Owner's Equity

  • Balance Sheet

Explanation

Question 103 of 111

1

When a company uses a service organization to prepare its payroll, the company's auditors

Select one of the following:

  • should include the audit report of the service company's auditors with their auditors' report.

  • must audit the internal controls at the service organization.

  • need to understand the internal controls over the transaction regardless of the location of the control.

  • have no obligation concerning the internal controls at the service organization.

Explanation

Question 104 of 111

1

Auditors can gain sufficient understanding of the internal controls at a service organization by

Select one of the following:

  • sending a confirmation concerning internal controls to the service organization's auditors.

  • reviewing a report on internal controls provided by the service organization's auditors.

  • inquiry with management of the service organization.

  • reviewing the contract with the service organization.

Explanation

Question 105 of 111

1

Reports on an entity's internal control over financial reporting

Select one of the following:

  • is limited to inquiry and analytical procedures for reports for non-SEC companies.

  • is required by the PCAOB for large public companies and may be performed by a CPA for nonpublic companies.

  • is optional for all companies whether they report to the SEC or not.

  • is required for all companies whether they report to the SEC or not.

Explanation

Question 106 of 111

1

During a review engagement, which of the following is NOT a required inquiry of management?

Select one of the following:

  • The changes made to internal controls during the period under review

  • Status of uncorrected misstatements identified in previous engagements

  • Significant transactions occurring near the end of the reporting period

  • The accounting principles and practices used

Explanation

Question 107 of 111

1

During a review the auditor is required to obtain written representations from management. Which of the following is NOT one of the required elements of the representation?

Select one of the following:

  • Management has disclosed information about subsequent events

  • Management has made all adjustments identified during the review

  • Management's belief that it has answered all inquiries fully and truthfully

  • Management's responsibility for the fair presentation of the financial statements

Explanation

Question 108 of 111

1

AR 90 requires adequate documentation for a review engagement. Which items are required to be documented?

Select one of the following:

  • Analytical procedures: Yes; Management representations: Yes; Understanding of internal controls: Yes

  • Analytical procedures: Yes; Management representations: Yes; Understanding of internal controls: No

  • Analytical procedures: Yes; Management representations: No; Understanding of internal controls: No

  • Analytical procedures: No; Management representations: Yes; Understanding of internal controls: No

Explanation

Question 109 of 111

1

At a minimum, in order to comply with PCAOB AS 5, an auditor of a public company that has material transactions processed by a service organization would have to request from the service organization

Select one of the following:

  • a Service Organization Control (SOC) 3 report.

  • a type two service auditors' report.

  • a type one service auditors' report.

  • a description of its internal controls.

Explanation

Question 110 of 111

1

An auditor that is requested to provide a report on application of requirements of an appropriate financial reporting framework may not

Select one of the following:

  • issue an opinion on the accounting treatment of a hypothetical transaction.

  • state that differences in facts, circumstances or assumptions might change the conclusion.

  • limit the report to the sole use of specified parties.

  • discuss the requirements with the client's current auditors.

Explanation

Question 111 of 111

1

A report on sustainability, as defined by the AICPA, might include all of the following except

Select one of the following:

  • internal control over financial reporting.

  • environmental responsibility.

  • social responsibility.

  • economic viability.

Explanation

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