Router and Routing Basics Final Exam

Question 1 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of entering the command that is shown in the exhibit on R2 as part of the dynamic NAT configuration?

Select one of the following:

It will define a pool of addresses for translation.
It will identify an inside NAT interface.
It will bind NAT-POOL1 with ACL 1.
It will define the source ACL for the external interface.

Explanation

Question 2 of 80

1

A network engineer has configured a router with the command ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp overload. Why did the engineer use the overload option?

Select one of the following:

The company has more private IP addresses than available public IP addresses.
The company needs to have more public IP addresses available to be used on the Internet.
The company router must throttle or buffer traffic because the processing power of the router is not enough to handle the normal load of external-bound Internet traffic.
The company has a small number of servers that should be accessible by clients from the Internet.

Explanation

Question 3 of 80

1

What is the purpose of port forwarding?

Select one of the following:

Port forwarding allows an external user to reach a service on a private IPv4 address that is located inside a LAN.
Port forwarding allows users to reach servers on the Internet that are not using standard port numbers.
Port forwarding allows an internal user to reach a service on a public IPv4 address that is located outside a LAN.
Port forwarding allows for translating inside local IP addresses to outside local addresses.

Explanation

Question 4 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

Select one of the following:

dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses
PAT using an external interface
static NAT with one entry
static NAT with a NAT pool

Explanation

Question 5 of 80

1

Using NAT terminology, what is the address of the source host on a private network as seen from inside the network?

Select one of the following:

inside local
inside global
outside global
outside local

Explanation

Question 6 of 80

1

What is an advantage of deploying IPv4 NAT technology for internal hosts in an organization?

Select one of the following:

makes internal network access easy for outside hosts using UDP
provides flexibility in designing the IPv4 addressing scheme
increases the performance of packet transmission to the Internet
enables the easy deployment of applications that require end-to-end traceability

Explanation

Question 7 of 80

1

What are two of the required steps to configure PAT? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Define a pool of global addresses to be used for overload translation.
Create a standard access list to define applications that should be translated.
Define the range of source ports to be used.
Identify the inside interface
Define the hello and interval timers to match the adjacent neighbor router.

Explanation

Question 8 of 80

1

Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

Select one of the following:

unicast DHCPACK
broadcast DHCPACK
unicast DHCPREQUEST
broadcast DHCPREQUEST

Explanation

Question 9 of 80

1

Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

Select one of the following:

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1
dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.101.1
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

Explanation

Question 10 of 80

1

Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway
The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent.
The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts.
This is an ISP requirement.
The router has a fixed IP address

Explanation

Question 11 of 80

1

A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address?

Select one of the following:

It should contact a DHCPv6 server for all the information that it needs.
It should use the information that is contained in the RA message exclusively.
It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional information.
It should contact a DHCPv6 server for the prefix, the prefix-length information, and an interface ID that is both random and unique.

Explanation

Question 12 of 80

1

An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?

Select one of the following:

SLAAC
stateless DHCPv6
stateful DHCPv6
RA and EUI-64

Explanation

Question 13 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what kind of IPv6 addressing is being configured?

Select one of the following:

SLAAC
stateful DHCPv6
stateless DHCPv6
static link-local

Explanation

Question 14 of 80

1

Which two characteristics are shared by both standard and extended ACLs? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Both kinds of ACLs can filter based on protocol type.
Both can permit or deny specific services by port number.
Both include an implicit deny as a final entry.
Both filter packets for a specific destination host IP address.
Both can be created by using either a descriptive name or number.

Explanation

Question 15 of 80

1

A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255

Explanation

Question 16 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to the access list 10 ACEs if the router is rebooted before any other commands are implemented?

Select one of the following:

The ACEs of access list 10 will be deleted.
The ACEs of access list 10 will not be affected.
The ACEs of access list 10 will be renumbered.
The ACEs of access list 10 wildcard masks will be converted to subnet masks

Explanation

Question 17 of 80

1

An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?

Select one of the following:

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out
R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in
R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out

Explanation

Question 18 of 80

1

What is a limitation when utilizing both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs on a router?

Select one of the following:

A device can run only IPv4 ACLs or IPv6 ACLs.
Both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs can be configured on a single device, but cannot share the same name.
IPv4 ACLs can be numbered or named whereas IPv6 ACLs must be numbered
IPv6 ACLs perform the same functions as standard IPv4 ACLs.

Explanation

Question 19 of 80

1

What method is used to apply an IPv6 ACL to a router interface?

Select one of the following:

the use of the access-class command
the use of the ip access-group command
the use of the ipv6 traffic-filter command
the use of the ipv6 access-list command

Explanation

Question 20 of 80

1

Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

deny ip any any
deny ipv6 any any
permit ipv6 any any
deny icmp any any
permit icmp any any nd-ns
permit icmp any any nd-na

Explanation

Question 21 of 80

1

Which three statements describe the similarities between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

They both are link-state protocols.
They both use the global address as the source address when sending OSPF messages.
They both share the concept of multiple areas.
They both support IPsec for authentication.
They both use the same DR/BDR election process.
They both have unicast routing enabled by default.

Explanation

Question 22 of 80

1

What is a function of OSPF hello packets?

Select one of the following:

to send specifically requested link-state records
to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them
to ensure database synchronization between routers
to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers

Explanation

Question 23 of 80

1

What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

to facilitate the establishment of network convergence
to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain
to facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full
to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router
to enable the SPF algorithm to determine the lowest cost path to remote networks

Explanation

Question 24 of 80

1

Which wildcard mask would be used to advertise the 192.168.5.96/27 network as part of an OSPF configuration?

Select one of the following:

0.0.0.32
0.0.0.31
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.223

Explanation

Question 25 of 80

1

Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

FE80::1
FF02::5
FF02::6
FF02::A
FF02::1:2
2001:db8:cafe::1

Explanation

Question 26 of 80

1

What does a Cisco router use automatically to create link-local addresses on serial interfaces when OSPFv3 is implemented?

Select one of the following:

the highest MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-48 process
the FE80::/10 prefix and the EUI-48 process
the MAC address of the serial interface, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process
an Ethernet interface MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process

Explanation

Question 27 of 80

1

A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64 in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command?

Select one of the following:

The router will be assigned an autonomous system number of 64.
The router will be assigned a router ID of 64
The reference bandwidth will be set to 64 Mb/s.
The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64.

Explanation

Question 28 of 80

1

Which command will provide information specific to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table?

Select one of the following:

show ip route ospf
show ip route
show ipv6 route
show ipv6 route ospf

Explanation

Question 29 of 80

1

What is a disadvantage of using dynamic routing protocols?

Select one of the following:

They are only suitable for simple topologies.
Their configuration complexity increases as the size of the network grows.
They send messages about network status insecurely across networks by default.
They require administrator intervention when the pathway of traffic changes.

Explanation

Question 30 of 80

1

Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

sends subnet mask information in routing updates
sends complete routing table update to all neighbors
is supported by RIP version 1
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
reduces the amount of address space available in an organization

Explanation

Question 31 of 80

1

While configuring RIPv2 on an enterprise network, an engineer enters the command network 192.168.10.0 into router configuration mode.

Select one of the following:

The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending version 1 and version 2 update
The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is receiving version 1 and version 2 updates
The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending only version 2 updates.
The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending RIP hello messages.

Explanation

Question 32 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the exhibited commands in an attempt to activate RIPng on interface gig0/0. What is causing the console message that is shown after RIP is enabled?

Select one of the following:

Interface gig0/0 is shutdown
Interface gig0/0 does not have a valid IPv6 address.
IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled on this router.
IPv6 is not supported on this IOS.

Explanation

Question 33 of 80

1

When does a link-state router send LSPs to its neighbors?

Select one of the following:

every 30 seconds
immediately after receiving an LSP from neighbors with updates
only when one of its neighbors requests an update
only when one of its interfaces goes up or down

Explanation

Question 34 of 80

1

Which routing protocol uses link-state information to build a map of the topology for computing the best path to each destination network?

Select one of the following:

OSPF
EIGRP
RIP
RIPng

Explanation

Question 35 of 80

1

Which type of route will require a router to perform a recursive lookup?

Select one of the following:

an ultimate route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is not using CEF
a level 2 child route that is using an exit interface on a router that is not using CEF
a level 1 network route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is using CEF
a parent route on a router that is using CEF

Explanation

Question 36 of 80

1

A router is configured to participate in multiple routing protocol: RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF. The router must send a packet to network 192.168.14.0. Which route will be used to forward the traffic?

Select one of the following:

a 192.168.14.0 /26 route that is learned via RIP
a 192.168.14.0 /24 route that is learned via EIGRP
a 192.168.14.0 /25 route that is learned via OSPF
a 192.168.14.0 /25 route that is learned via RIP

Explanation

Question 37 of 80

1

What is different between IPv6 routing table entries compared to IPv4 routing table entries?

Select one of the following:

IPv6 routing tables include local route entries which IPv4 routing tables do not
By design IPv6 is classless so all routes are effectively level 1 ultimate routes
The selection of IPv6 routes is based on the shortest matching prefix, unlike IPv4 route selection which is based on the longest matching prefix.
IPv6 does not use static routes to populate the routing table as used in IPv4.

Explanation

Question 38 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?

Select one of the following:

ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252
ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10

Explanation

Question 39 of 80

1

What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
Static routing scales well with expanding networks.
Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation
Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing
Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks

Explanation

Question 40 of 80

1

What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?

Select one of the following:

ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 serial 0/0/0
ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.248.0.0 10.0.0.1

Explanation

Question 41 of 80

1

Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?

Select one of the following:

recursive static route
directly connected static route
fully specified static route
default static route

Explanation

Question 42 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure a default route on the Border router. Which command would the administrator use to configure a default route that will require the least amount of router processing when forwarding packets?

Select one of the following:

Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.5
Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.6
Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1
Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

Explanation

Question 43 of 80

1

What two pieces of information are needed in a fully specified static route to eliminate recursive lookups? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

the interface ID exit interface
the interface ID of the next-hop neighbor
the IP address of the next-hop neighbor
the administrative distance for the destination network
the IP address of the exit interface

Explanation

Question 44 of 80

1

What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?

Select one of the following:

utilize one subnet mask throughout a hierarchical network
utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system
utilize one dynamic routing protocol throughout the entire network
utilize multiple different subnet masks in the same IP address space
utilize one public IP address to translate multiple private addresses

Explanation

Question 45 of 80

1

What is a valid summary route for IPv6 networks 2001:0DB8:ACAD:4::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:5::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:6::/64, and 2001:0DB8:ACAD:7::/64?

Select one of the following:

2001:0DB8:ACAD:0000::/63
2001:0DB8:ACAD:0000::/64
2001:0DB8:ACAD:0004::/62
2001:0DB8:ACAD:0004::/63

Explanation

Question 46 of 80

1

Consider the following command:
ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5
How would an administrator test this configuration?

Select one of the following:

Delete the default gateway route on the router
Ping any valid address on the 192.168.10.0/24 network
Manually shut down the router interface used as a primary route
Ping from the 192.168.10.0 network to the 10.10.10.2 address

Explanation

Question 47 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. The small company shown uses static routing. Users on the R2 LAN have reported a problem with connectivity. What is the issue?

Select one of the following:

R2 needs a static route to the R1 LANs
R1 and R2 must use a dynamic routing protocol
R1 needs a default route to R2
R1 needs a static route to the R2 LAN.
R2 needs a static route to the Internet

Explanation

Question 48 of 80

1

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into the down state?

Select one of the following:

The static route is removed from the routing table.
The router polls neighbors for a replacement route
The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static
The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface

Explanation

Question 49 of 80

1

What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

Select one of the following:

does not support VLAN-tagged packets
requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing
does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs
requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links

Explanation

Question 50 of 80

1

How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?

Select one of the following:

Traffic is routed via physical interfaces
Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces
Traffic is broadcast out all physical interfaces
Traffic is routed via subinterfaces

Explanation

Question 51 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best practices are being used?

Select one of the following:

access
trunk
native
auto

Explanation

Question 52 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. Communication between the VLANs is not occurring. What could be the issue?

Select one of the following:

The wrong port on the router has been used.
The Gi1/1 switch port is not in trunking mode
A duplex issue exists between the switch and the router
Default gateways have not been configured for each VLAN

Explanation

Question 53 of 80

1

Inter-VLAN communication is not occurring in a particular building of a school. Which two commands could the network administrator use to verify that inter-VLAN communication was working properly between a router and a Layer 2 switch when the router-on-a-stick design method is implemented? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

From the router, issue the show ip route command.
From the router, issue the show interfaces trunk command
From the router, issue the show interfaces interface command
From the switch, issue the show interfaces trunk command.
From the switch, issue the show interfaces interface command

Explanation

Question 54 of 80

1

What is a characteristic of a routed port on a Layer 3 switch?

Select one of the following:

It supports trunking.
It is not assigned to a VLAN
It is commonly used as a WAN link
It cannot have an IP address assigned to it.

Explanation

Question 55 of 80

1

Which statement describes a disadvantage of using router subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing?

Select one of the following:

It is more expensive than using individual router interfaces.
Routed traffic must contend for bandwidth on a single router interface.
Trunking cannot be used to connect the router to the switch
All untagged traffic is dropped

Explanation

Question 56 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?

Select one of the following:

Dot1q does not support subinterfaces
There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway
RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30
The no shutdown command should have been issued on Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30

Explanation

Question 57 of 80

1

What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?

Select one of the following:

The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled
All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers
All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN
Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick.

Explanation

Question 58 of 80

1

Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route
A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path
The metric is always determined based on hop count.
The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.

Explanation

Question 59 of 80

1

Which software is used for a network administrator to make the initial router configuration securely?

Select one of the following:

SSH client software
Telnet client software
HTTPS client software
terminal emulation client software

Explanation

Question 60 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. PC A sends a request to Server B. What IPv4 address is used in the destination field in the packet as the packet leaves PC A?

Select one of the following:

192.168.10.10
192.168.11.1
192.168.101.1
192.168.12.16

Explanation

Question 61 of 80

1

What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface on a Cisco IOS router?

Select one of the following:

The no shutdown command is required to place this interface in an UP state
It is a logical interface internal to the router
Only one loopback interface can be enabled on a router
It is assigned to a physical port and can be connected to other devices

Explanation

Question 62 of 80

1

Which two items are used by a host device when performing an ANDing operation to determine if a destination address is on the same local network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

destination IP address
destination MAC address
source MAC address
subnet mask
network number

Explanation

Question 63 of 80

1

Which two parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

hop count
bandwidth
jitter
resiliency
delay
confidentiality

Explanation

Question 64 of 80

1

Consider the following routing table entry for R1:
D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0
What is the significance of the Serial0/0/0?

Select one of the following:

It is the interface on R1 used to send data that is destined for 10.1.1.0/24
It is the R1 interface through which the EIGRP update was learned
It is the interface on the final destination router that is directly connected to the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
It is the interface on the next-hop router when the destination IP address is on the 10.1.1.0/24 network

Explanation

Question 65 of 80

1

A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?

Select one of the following:

to forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
to add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table
to forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table

Explanation

Question 66 of 80

1

What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?

Select one of the following:

the ipv6 route ::/0 command
a static route
the ip routing command
the ipv6 unicast-routing command

Explanation

Question 67 of 80

1

Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

Select one of the following:

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table

Explanation

Question 68 of 80

1

Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when crossing a trunk port?

Select one of the following:

data
default
native
management

Explanation

Question 69 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. A frame is traveling between PC-A and PC-B through the switch. Which statement is true concerning VLAN tagging of the frame?

Select one of the following:

A VLAN tag is added when the frame leaves PC-A.
A VLAN tag is added when the frame is accepted by the switch
A VLAN tag is added when the frame is forwarded out the port to PC-B
No VLAN tag is added to the frame.

Explanation

Question 70 of 80

1

What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

Select one of the following:

Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode
Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

Explanation

Question 71 of 80

1

Which two characteristics match extended range VLANs? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

CDP can be used to learn and store these VLANs.
VLAN IDs exist between 1006 to 4094.
They are saved in the running-config file by default.
VLANs are initialized from flash memory
They are commonly used in small networks

Explanation

Question 72 of 80

1

A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?

Select one of the following:

It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.
It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.
It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.
It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5

Explanation

Question 73 of 80

1

Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?

Select one of the following:

S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none

Explanation

Question 74 of 80

1

What is the default DTP mode on Cisco 2960 and 3560 switches?

Select one of the following:

dynamic desirable
dynamic auto
trunk
access

Explanation

Question 75 of 80

1

Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?

Select one of the following:

switchport nonegotiate
switchport mode dynamic auto
switchport trunk native vlan 66
switchport trunk allowed vlan add 99

Explanation

Question 76 of 80

1

Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs and is not VLAN 1.
Change the management VLAN to a distinct VLAN that is not accessible by regular users.
Statically configure all ports that connect to end-user host devices to be in trunk mode
Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports
Use SSH for all remote management access.

Explanation

Question 77 of 80

1

Which two modes does Cisco recommend when configuring a particular switch port? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

access
trunk
FastEthernet
Gigabit Ethernet
ISL
IEEE 802.1Q

Explanation

Question 78 of 80

1

In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?

Select one of the following:

to determine if remote access is enabled
when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host
when an end device can reach local devices, but not remote devices
to determine the MAC address of a directly attached network device on a particular interface

Explanation

Question 79 of 80

1

Which two features on a Cisco Catalyst switch can be used to mitigate DHCP starvation and DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

port security
extended ACL
DHCP snooping
DHCP server failover
strong password on DHCP servers

Explanation

Question 80 of 80

1

Which two basic functions are performed by network security tools? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from monitoring network traffic
educating employees about social engineering attacks
simulating attacks against the production network to determine any existing vulnerabilities
writing a security policy document for protecting networks
controlling physical access to user devices

	Created by Anthony Schulmeister almost 11 years ago