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Structural Basis for Biological Function (Protein Modifications) Quiz on Regulatory Modifications, created by gina_evans0312 on 22/12/2013.

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Regulatory Modifications

Question 1 of 55

1

Regulatory modifications can be removed

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 2 of 55

1

What is added in Palmitoylation?

Select one of the following:

  • Palmitic Acid

  • Palmitoyl-5-Phosphate

  • Palmitite

Explanation

Question 3 of 55

1

The substrate in palmitoylation is added through a thio-ester bond

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 4 of 55

1

Where is the substrate in palmitoylation added?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The central cystine

  • The two flanking leucines

  • Of C/LCL/C

Explanation

Question 5 of 55

1

Describe Model 1 of regulatory modification

Select one of the following:

  • The modification changes the functional state (Active --> Inactive or vice versa)

  • The modification changes the affinity of the protein for its binding partner

Explanation

Question 6 of 55

1

In Model 2, what does the addition do?

Select one of the following:

  • Activates/deactivates the protein

  • Creates a new binding site that only exists with the modification

  • Marks the protein for destruction

Explanation

Question 7 of 55

1

Phosphorylation is the least used modification in eukaryotic cells

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 8 of 55

1

What is the donor for phosphorylation?

Select one of the following:

  • Gamma phosphate of ATP

  • Alpha phosphate of ATP

  • Beta phosphate of ATP

Explanation

Question 9 of 55

1

Name the two enzymes that add/remove the phosphate

Select one or more of the following:

  • Protein kinases

  • Protein phosphatases

  • Protein isomerases

  • Protein transferases

Explanation

Question 10 of 55

1

Phosphates are added to amino acids with OH groups on the R chain

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 11 of 55

1

Phosphorylation can be used for both Model 1 & 2

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 12 of 55

1

Give an example of a Model 1 phosphorylation

Select one of the following:

  • Phosphorylation of Erk Kinase

  • Phosphorylation of tyrosine kinase

  • Phosporylation of Ras

Explanation

Question 13 of 55

1

Describe a Model 2 pathway for phosphorylation

Select one or more of the following:

  • Platelet derived growth factor self phosphorylates on Tyr

  • Allows binding of other proteins SH2 domains

  • Phosphorylation of Raf

  • Phosphorylation of MEK

Explanation

Question 14 of 55

1

Acetylation is used almost exclusively for model 1

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 15 of 55

1

To which residue is the substrate for Acetylation added?

Select one of the following:

  • Lysine

  • Leucine

  • Tyrosine

Explanation

Question 16 of 55

1

Acetylysine is neutral

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 17 of 55

1

Acetyl-lysines are recognised by what?

Select one of the following:

  • Bromo-domains

  • Phosphoserine domains

  • KH4 domains

Explanation

Question 18 of 55

1

The donor for Acetylation is?

Select one of the following:

  • N-acetyl glucosamine

  • N-acetyl galactosamine

  • Acetyl CoA

Explanation

Question 19 of 55

1

Name the proteins that add/remove the substrate in acetylation

Select one or more of the following:

  • Acetyl Transferase

  • Deacetylases

  • Acetyl Isomerase

  • Acetylase

Explanation

Question 20 of 55

1

How is acetylation used for DNA density regulation?

Select one of the following:

  • The histone monomers (H3 & H4 especially) have tails rich in lysine for acetylation

  • T/A residues are acetylated, which signals to move them to the histone and be silenced

  • GTG repeats are acetylated to activate them, moving them away from the histone

Explanation

Question 21 of 55

1

Acetylation causes the DNA to relax

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 22 of 55

1

What is the role of bromodomains?

Select one or more of the following:

  • To interact with histones

  • To interact with nucleosoems

  • Bring in other proteins for the chromatin remodelling complex

Explanation

Question 23 of 55

1

What is the donor substrate for methylation?

Select one of the following:

  • S-adenosyl Methionine

  • Ethanol

  • N-acetyl methionine

Explanation

Question 24 of 55

1

Name the two protein sets that add/remove methyl groups

Select one or more of the following:

  • Methyl transferase

  • Demethylase

  • Methyl isomerase

  • Methylases

Explanation

Question 25 of 55

1

There are separate enzymes for lysine and arginine methylation

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 55

1

Methyl can be added to the same lysine how many times?

Select one of the following:

  • 3

  • 4

  • 5

Explanation

Question 27 of 55

1

MeK, Me2K and Me3K are all created and recognised by the same enzyme

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 28 of 55

1

Some enzymes can mono/bi/ and tri methylate, some can only do one

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 29 of 55

1

Name the forms of dimethylated arginine

Select one or more of the following:

  • Me2R

  • Symmetrical Me2R

  • Asymmetrical Me2R

Explanation

Question 30 of 55

1

What's the difference between s & aMe2R

Select one of the following:

  • One is in Cis, the other is in trans formation

  • aMe2R has both methylations on the same arginine

  • aMe2R has both methylations on different arginines

Explanation

Question 31 of 55

1

Arginine has 5 nitrogens to be replaced

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 32 of 55

1

Tudor domains recognise methylation

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 33 of 55

1

Why is S-adenosyl methionine used as the donor

Select one of the following:

  • It has a 5-bonded carbon, which makes the methyl easy to remove

  • It has a 4-bonded phosphate, which makes the methyl easy to remove

  • It has a 3-bonded sulphur, which makes the methyl easy to remove

Explanation

Question 34 of 55

1

Tandem tudor cannot bind to Me3K as there is no longer a H for it to bind with

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 35 of 55

1

A type of tudor domain will recognise asymmetical Me2R

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 36 of 55

1

ADP ribosylation is mostly Model 2

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 37 of 55

1

What is the donor for ADP ribosylation?

Select one of the following:

  • NAD+

  • FAD+

  • NADH

Explanation

Question 38 of 55

1

How is the ADP gained from the substrate?

Select one of the following:

  • Cut off the nicotinamide and you're left with the ADP

  • Cut off the flavin and you're left with the ADP

Explanation

Question 39 of 55

1

Name the proteins that add/removed ADP

Select one or more of the following:

  • Poly-ADP Ribose Polymerase

  • ADP Transferase

  • De-ADPase

  • Poly-ADP Ribose Glycohydrolases

Explanation

Question 40 of 55

1

Which amino acids are the ADP(s) added to?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lysine

  • Glutamine

  • Valine

  • Glutaminc Acid

Explanation

Question 41 of 55

1

Which amino acid has the ADP(s) added?

Select one of the following:

  • Lysine

  • Glutamine

  • Valine

Explanation

Question 42 of 55

1

ADP ribose can be addded to ADP ribose in straight or branched chains

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 43 of 55

1

What is the role of glutamic acid ADP ribosylation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Happens to linker histones

  • Happens to open stretches of DNA

  • Recognised by DNA damage response proteins

  • Recognised by silencing proteins

Explanation

Question 44 of 55

1

Name the 3 enzymes used in the addition of Ubiquitin

Select one or more of the following:

  • E1- Ubiquitin Conjugating Enzyme

  • E1- Ubiquitin Activating Enzyme

  • E2- Ubiquitin Conjugating Enzyme

  • U2- Ubiquitin Ligase

  • U3- Ubiquitin Activating Enzyme

  • U3- Ubiquitin Ligase

Explanation

Question 45 of 55

1

De-Ubiquitinating Enzyme removes Ubiquitin

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 46 of 55

1

What type of bond forms between Ubiquitin and the target residue?

Select one of the following:

  • Thio-ester, between the COOH of the ubiquitin and the lysine on the target protein

  • Isopeptide, between the COOH of the ubiquitin and the lysine on the target protein

  • Disulphide, between the COOH of the ubiquitin and the lysine on the target protein

Explanation

Question 47 of 55

1

Ubiquitinated lysine 63 are open and flexible and acts a signalling site for complex formation
Ubiquitinated lysine 48 are compact and mark the protein for destruction

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 48 of 55

1

What is the first step of ubiquitination?

Select one of the following:

  • Ubiquitin is activated by ATP hydrolysis

  • Ubiquitin is activated by GTP hydrolysis

  • Ubiquitin is activated by UTP hydrolysis

Explanation

Question 49 of 55

1

Once Ub has been activated, what enzyme does it bind to, and what bond forms?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Thio-ester

  • Peptide

  • E1

  • E2

Explanation

Question 50 of 55

1

The Ub is then passed on to..

Select one of the following:

  • E1

  • E2

  • E3

Explanation

Question 51 of 55

1

What is the role of E3?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Binding of an E2-Ub complex

  • Binding on an E1-Ub complex

  • Binds to substrate protein & transfers ubiquitin to amino group of lysine

Explanation

Question 52 of 55

1

Protein specificity for Ubiquitination lives in E2

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 53 of 55

1

How many versions of E1 are there?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

Explanation

Question 54 of 55

1

There are 35 versions of E2

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 55 of 55

1

How many E3's are there?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 10's

  • 100's

Explanation