Jessica Levine
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Nursing (Cardiac) Quiz on Chapter 28, created by Jessica Levine on 06/10/2016.

223
1
0
Jessica Levine
Created by Jessica Levine over 7 years ago
Close

Chapter 28

Question 1 of 40

1

A patient with mitral stenosis exhibits new symptoms of a dysrhythmia. Based on the pathophysiology of this disease process, the nurse would expect the patient to exhibit what heart rhythm?

Select one of the following:

  • Ventricular fibrillation (VF)

  • Ventricular tachycardia (VT)

  • Atrial fibrillation

  • Sinus bradycardia

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

1

A patient who has undergone a valve replacement with a mechanical valve prosthesis is due to be discharged home. During discharge teaching, the nurse should discuss the importance of antibiotic prophylaxis prior to which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Exposure to immunocompromised individuals

  • Future hospital admissions

  • Dental procedures

  • Live vaccinations

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

1

A patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) has been admitted to the medical unit. During the nurse’s admission interview, the patient states that she takes over-the-counter “water pills” on a regular basis. How should the nurse best respond to the fact that the patient has been taking diuretics?

Select one of the following:

  • Encourage the patient to drink at least 2 liters of fluid daily.

  • Increase the patient’s oral sodium intake.

  • Inform the care provider because diuretics are contraindicated.

  • Ensure that the patient’s fluid balance is monitored vigilantly.

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

1

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving cyclosporine postoperative heart transplant. The patient asks the nurse to remind him what this medication is for. How should the nurse best respond?

Select one of the following:

  • Azathioprine decreases the risk of thrombus formation.

  • Azathioprine ensures adequate cardiac output.

  • Azathioprine increases the number of white blood cells.

  • Azathioprine minimizes rejection of the transplant.

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

1

A patient with a history rheumatic heart disease knows that she is at risk for bacterial endocarditis when undergoing invasive procedures. Prior to a scheduled cystoscopy, the nurse should ensure that the patient knows the importance of taking which of the following drugs?

Select one of the following:

  • Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

  • Metoprolol (Lopressor)

  • Azathioprine (Imuran)

  • Amoxicillin (Amoxil)

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

1

A patient with pericarditis has just been admitted to the CCU. The nurse planning the patient’s care should prioritize what nursing diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Anxiety related to pericarditis

  • Acute pain related to pericarditis

  • Ineffective tissue perfusion related to pericarditis

  • Ineffective breathing pattern related to pericarditis

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

1

A patient newly admitted to the telemetry unit is experiencing progressive fatigue, hemoptysis, and dyspnea. Diagnostic testing has revealed that these signs and symptoms are attributable to pulmonary venous hypertension. What valvular disorder should the nurse anticipate being diagnosed in this patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Aortic regurgitation

  • Mitral stenosis

  • Mitral valve prolapse

  • Aortic stenosis

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

1

The nurse is caring for a patient with mitral stenosis who is scheduled for a balloon valvuloplasty. The patient tells the nurse that he is unsure why the surgeon did not opt to replace his damaged valve rather than repairing it. What is an advantage of valvuloplasty that the nurse should cite?

Select one of the following:

  • The procedure can be performed on an outpatient basis in a physician’s office.

  • Repaired valves tend to function longer than replaced valves.

  • The procedure is not associated with a risk for infection.

  • Lower doses of antirejection drugs are required than with valve replacement.

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

1

The nurse is reviewing the echocardiography results of a patient who has just been diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM). What changes in heart structure characterize DCM?

Select one of the following:

  • Dilated ventricles with atrophy of the ventricles

  • Dilated ventricles without hypertrophy of the ventricles

  • Dilation and hypertrophy of all four heart chambers

  • Dilation of the atria and hypertrophy of the ventricles

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

1

A patient has been admitted to the medical unit with signs and symptoms suggestive of endocarditis. The physician’s choice of antibiotics would be primarily based on what diagnostic test?

Select one of the following:

  • Echocardiography

  • Blood cultures

  • Cardiac aspiration

  • Complete blood count

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

1

A community health nurse is presenting an educational event and is addressing several health problems, including rheumatic heart disease. What should the nurse describe as the most effective way to prevent rheumatic heart disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Recognizing and promptly treating streptococcal infections

  • Prophylactic use of calcium channel blockers in high-risk populations

  • Adhering closely to the recommended child immunization schedule

  • Smoking cessation

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

1

A patient with mitral valve prolapse is admitted for a scheduled bronchoscopy to investigate recent hemoptysis. The physician has ordered gentamicin to be taken before the procedure. What is the rationale for this?

Select one of the following:

  • To prevent bacterial endocarditis

  • To prevent hospital-acquired pneumonia

  • To minimize the need for antibiotic use during the procedure

  • To decrease the need for surgical asepsis

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

1

The nurse is admitting a patient with complaints of dyspnea on exertion and fatigue. The patient’s ECG shows dysrhythmias that are sometimes associated with left ventricular hypertrophy. What diagnostic tool would be most helpful in diagnosing cardiomyopathy?

Select one of the following:

  • Cardiac catheterization

  • Arterial blood gases

  • Echocardiogram

  • Exercise stress test

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

1

The nurse is preparing a patient for cardiac surgery. During the procedure, the patient’s heart will be removed and a donor heart implanted at the vena cava and pulmonary veins. What procedure will this patient undergo?

Select one of the following:

  • Orthotopic transplant

  • Xenograft

  • Heterotropic transplant

  • Homograft

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

1

A patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for mitral stenosis. What statement by the patient during the nurse’s interview is most suggestive of this valvular disorder?

Select one of the following:

  • “I get chest pain from time to time, but it usually resolves when I rest.”

  • “Sometimes when I’m resting, I can feel my heart skip a beat.”

  • “Whenever I do any form of exercise I get terribly short of breath.”

  • “My feet and ankles have gotten terribly puffy the last few weeks.”

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

1

The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled to undergo mechanical valve replacement. Patient education should include which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Use of patient-controlled analgesia

  • Long-term anticoagulant therapy

  • Steroid therapy

  • Use of IV diuretics

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

1

The staff educator is presenting a workshop on valvular disorders. When discussing the pathophysiology of aortic regurgitation the educator points out the need to emphasize that aortic regurgitation causes what?

Select one of the following:

  • Cardiac tamponade

  • Left ventricular hypertrophy

  • Right-sided heart failure

  • Ventricular insufficiency

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

1

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient with a cardiomyopathy. What priority goal should underlie most of the assessments and interventions that are selected for this patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Absence of complications

  • Adherence to the self-care program

  • Improved cardiac output

  • Increased activity tolerance

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

1

An older adult patient has been diagnosed with aortic regurgitation. What change in blood flow should the nurse expect to see on this patient’s echocardiogram?

Select one of the following:

  • Blood to flow back from the aorta to the left ventricle

  • Obstruction of blood flow from the left ventricle

  • Blood to flow back from the left atrium to the left ventricle

  • Obstruction of blood from the left atrium to left ventricle

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

1

A patient who has undergone valve replacement surgery is being prepared for discharge home. Because the patient will be discharged with a prescription for warfarin (Coumadin), the nurse should educate the patient about which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • The need for regularly scheduled testing of the patient’s International Normalized Ratio (INR)

  • The need to learn to sleep in a semi-Fowler’s position for the first 6 to 8 weeks to prevent emboli

  • The need to avoid foods that contain vitamin K

  • The need to take enteric-coated ASA on a daily basis

Explanation

Question 21 of 40

1

A nurse is planning discharge health education for a patient who will soon undergo placement of a mechanical valve prosthesis. What aspect of health education should the nurse prioritize in anticipation of discharge?

Select one of the following:

  • The need for long-term antibiotics

  • The need for 7 to 10 days of bed rest

  • Strategies for preventing atherosclerosis

  • Strategies for infection prevention

Explanation

Question 22 of 40

1

A patient with mitral valve stenosis is receiving health education at an outpatient clinic. To minimize the patient’s symptoms, the nurse should teach the patient to do which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Eat a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.

  • Avoid activities that cause an increased heart rate.

  • Avoid large crowds and public events.

  • Perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.

Explanation

Question 23 of 40

1

A patient is admitted to the critical care unit (CCU) with a diagnosis of cardiomyopathy. When reviewing the patient’s most recent laboratory results, the nurse should prioritize assessment of which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Sodium

  • AST, ALT, and bilirubin

  • White blood cell differential

  • BUN

Explanation

Question 24 of 40

1

A patient has been admitted with an aortic valve stenosis and has been scheduled for a balloon valvuloplasty in the cardiac catheterization lab later today. During the admission assessment, the patient tells the nurse he has thoracolumbar scoliosis and is concerned about lying down for any extended period of time. What is a priority action for the nurse?

Select one of the following:

  • Arrange for an alternative bed.

  • Measure the degree of the curvature.

  • Notify the surgeon immediately.

  • Note the scoliosis on the intake assessment.

Explanation

Question 25 of 40

1

A patient is a candidate for percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty, but is concerned about how this procedure will affect her busy work schedule. What guidance should the nurse provide to the patient?

Select one of the following:

  • “Patients generally stay in the hospital for 6 to 8 days.”

  • “Patients are kept in the hospital until they are independent with all aspects of their care.”

  • “Patients need to stay in the hospital until they regain normal heart function for their age.”

  • “Patients usually remain at the hospital for 24 to 48 hours.”

Explanation

Question 26 of 40

1

A patient has been diagnosed with a valvular disorder. The patient tells the nurse that he has read about numerous treatment options, including valvuloplasty. What should the nurse teach the patient about valvuloplasty?

Select one of the following:

  • “For some patients, valvuloplasty can be done in a cardiac catheterization laboratory.”

  • “Valvuloplasty is a dangerous procedure, but it has excellent potential if it goes well.”

  • “Valvuloplasty is open heart surgery, but this is very safe these days and normally requires only an overnight hospital stay.”

  • “It’s prudent to get a second opinion before deciding to have valvuloplasty.”

Explanation

Question 27 of 40

1

* The patient has just returned to the floor after balloon valvuloplasty of the aortic valve and the nurse is planning appropriate assessments. The nurse should know that complications following this procedure include what? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Emboli

  • Mitral valve damage

  • Ventricular dysrhythmia

  • Atrial-septal defect

  • Plaque formation

Explanation

Question 28 of 40

1

The nurse is caring for a patient with right ventricular hypertrophy and consequently decreased right ventricular function. What valvular disorder may have contributed to this patient’s diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Mitral valve regurgitation

  • Aortic stenosis

  • Aortic regurgitation

  • Mitral valve stenosis

Explanation

Question 29 of 40

1

The cardiac nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM). Echocardiography is likely to reveal what pathophysiological finding?

Select one of the following:

  • Decreased ejection fraction

  • Decreased heart rate

  • Ventricular hypertrophy

  • Mitral valve regurgitation

Explanation

Question 30 of 40

1

A 17-year-old boy is being treated in the ICU after going into cardiac arrest during a football practice. Diagnostic testing reveals cardiomyopathy as the cause of the arrest. What type of cardiomyopathy is particularly common among young people who appear otherwise healthy?

Select one of the following:

  • Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM).

  • Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)

  • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

  • Restrictive or constrictive cardiomyopathy (RCM)

Explanation

Question 31 of 40

1

The nurse is teaching a patient diagnosed with aortic stenosis appropriate strategies for attempting to relieve the symptom of angina without drugs. What should the nurse teach the patient?

Select one of the following:

  • To eat a small meal before taking nitroglycerin

  • To drink a glass of milk before taking nitroglycerin

  • To engage in 15 minutes of light exercise before taking nitroglycerin

  • To rest and relax before taking nitroglycerin

Explanation

Question 32 of 40

1

A patient has been living with dilated cardiomyopathy for several years but has experienced worsening symptoms despite aggressive medical management. The nurse should anticipate what potential treatment?

Select one of the following:

  • Heart transplantation

  • Balloon valvuloplasty

  • Cardiac catheterization

  • Stent placement

Explanation

Question 33 of 40

1

A patient has undergone a successful heart transplant and has been discharged home with a medication regimen that includes cyclosporine and tacrolimus. In light of this patient’s medication regimen, what nursing diagnosis should be prioritized?

Select one of the following:

  • Risk for injury

  • Risk for infection

  • Risk for peripheral neurovascular dysfunction

  • Risk for unstable blood glucose

Explanation

Question 34 of 40

1

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute pericarditis. What nursing management should be instituted to minimize complications?

Select one of the following:

  • The nurse keeps the patient isolated to prevent nosocomial infections.

  • The nurse encourages coughing and deep breathing.

  • The nurse helps the patient with activities until the pain and fever subside.

  • The nurse encourages increased fluid intake until the infection resolves.

Explanation

Question 35 of 40

1

A patient who has recently recovered from a systemic viral infection is undergoing diagnostic testing for myocarditis. Which of the nurse’s assessment findings is most consistent with myocarditis?

Select one of the following:

  • Sudden changes in level of consciousness (LOC)

  • Peripheral edema and pulmonary edema

  • Pleuritic chest pain

  • Flulike symptoms

Explanation

Question 36 of 40

1

The nurse on the hospital’s infection control committee is looking into two cases of hospital-acquired infective endocarditis among a specific classification of patients. What classification of patients would be at greatest risk for hospital-acquired endocarditis?

Select one of the following:

  • Hemodialysis patients

  • Patients on immunoglobulins

  • Patients who undergo intermittent urinary catheterization

  • Children under the age of 12

Explanation

Question 37 of 40

1

The nurse is caring for a recent immigrant who has been diagnosed with mitral valve regurgitation. The nurse should know that in developing countries the most common cause of mitral valve regurgitation is what?

Select one of the following:

  • A decrease in gamma globulins

  • An insect bite

  • Rheumatic heart disease and its sequelae

  • Sepsis and its sequelae

Explanation

Question 38 of 40

1

Most individuals who have mitral valve prolapse never have any symptoms, although this is not the case for every patient. What symptoms might a patient have with mitral valve prolapse? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Anxiety

  • Fatigue

  • Shoulder pain

  • Tachypnea

  • Palpitations

Explanation

Question 39 of 40

1

A cardiac surgery patient’s new onset of signs and symptoms is suggestive of cardiac tamponade. As a member of the interdisciplinary team, what is the nurse’s most appropriate action?

Select one of the following:

  • Prepare to assist with pericardiocentesis.

  • Reposition the patient into a prone position.

  • Administer a dose of metoprolol.

  • Administer a bolus of normal saline.

Explanation

Question 40 of 40

1

The nurse is auscultating the breath sounds of a patient with pericarditis. What finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Wheezes

  • Friction rub

  • Fine crackles

  • Coarse crackles

Explanation