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Quiz on CMA Practice Exam, created by traceysgirlz on 30/03/2014.

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CMA Practice Exam

Question 1 of 199

1

A patient with abdominal pain and respiratory difficulties should be placed in what position?

Select one of the following:

  • Prone

  • Fowler's

  • Dorsal Recumbent

  • Sim's

Explanation

Question 2 of 199

1

A CMA has duplicate orders for a patient. How should the CMA verify the order?

Select one of the following:

  • Call the provider to confirm

  • Match the requisition with the patients ordering provider

  • Draw both orders and discard the incorrect specimen

  • Confirm with the patient

Explanation

Question 3 of 199

1

A patient is angry about a large medical bill. The CMA should take which action?

Select one of the following:

  • Listen to the patient and try to resolve

  • Refer to the security officer

  • Have the patient write the complaint down

  • Call the police

Explanation

Question 4 of 199

1

A provider is caring for a patient who reports right flank pain, pain during urination, and nausea and vomiting. Which of the following conditions should the CMA document?

Select one of the following:

  • Nephritis

  • Nephrolithotripsy

  • Nephrolithiasis

  • Neprhoscleroris

Explanation

Question 5 of 199

1

A patient who is very talkative during and after the blood draw becomes very quiet and stares while the CMA is labeling the specimen. The CMA should:

Select one of the following:

  • Lower the patient to the floor

  • Ask the patient if they feel faint

  • Finish labeling the specimen

  • Call the nurse for assistance

Explanation

Question 6 of 199

1

A CMA is preparing a patient for a gynecological exam, which of the following positions is appropriate?

Select one of the following:

  • Supine

  • Lithomy

  • Sim's

  • Prone

Explanation

Question 7 of 199

1

When creating a business letter, which of the following steps should the CMA do first?

Select one of the following:

  • Organize key points

  • Compose a rough draft

  • Check spelling, grammar, and punctuation

  • Make sure the letter has a beginning, middle and end

Explanation

Question 8 of 199

1

A patient reports that she has missed three menstrual cycles, with no other symptoms, which of the following should the CMA use to document the information?

Select one of the following:

  • Oligomenorrhea

  • Menopause

  • Amenorrhea

  • Dysmenorrhea

Explanation

Question 9 of 199

1

Which component of the word Neuropathy means disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Root

  • Suffix

  • Prefix

  • Combining form

Explanation

Question 10 of 199

1

Which of the following drugs is prescribed for both local and systemic effects?

Select one of the following:

  • Elixirs

  • Ointment

  • Emulsions

  • Optic Solutions

Explanation

Question 11 of 199

1

A provider has ordered a CMA to administer a subcutaneous injection, but does not indicate the dosage needed. Which of the following actions should the CMA take?

Select one of the following:

  • Proceed using a pre-filled syringe

  • Call the provider to verify the order

  • Check the patients chart for dosage

  • Reschedule the patient's injection

Explanation

Question 12 of 199

1

A CMA is testing a patient for Ragweed allergens. Which of the following routes should the CMA take?

Select one of the following:

  • Z-track

  • Subcutaneous

  • Intradermal

  • Intramuscular

Explanation

Question 13 of 199

1

To assign an ICD-9 code, a CMA must identify the?

Select one of the following:

  • Etiology of the diagnosis

  • Main term in the diagnosis

  • Diagnosis in the tabular list

  • Volume 1 abbreviation

Explanation

Question 14 of 199

1

A CMA is told to redraw a patient's lipid profile. Which of the following reasons would cause this to occur?

Select one of the following:

  • Patient fasting for 12 hours but drank 4oz of water

  • Serum in the specimen was clear yellow

  • Specimen was sent to the lab in a gold top tube

  • Specimen was sent to the lab in a an EDTA (purple) top tube

Explanation

Question 15 of 199

1

A CMA is measuring an infant patient from heal to head. In which of the following positions should the CMA place the infant?

Select one of the following:

  • Supine

  • Fowlers

  • Sims

  • Lithomy

Explanation

Question 16 of 199

1

A cardiac patient is having a PT/INR done. Which additive would be in the collection tube?

Select one of the following:

  • Sodium Citrate

  • Heparin

  • EDTA

  • Potassium Oxalate

Explanation

Question 17 of 199

1

A CMA overhears two coworkers discussing a patients lab results. What type of violation occurred?

Select one of the following:

  • HIPPA

  • OSHA

  • JCAHO

  • AMA

Explanation

Question 18 of 199

1

A CMA is instructing a patient on how to collect a C&S stool specimen. Which of the following is a correct part of the explanation?

Select one of the following:

  • Retrieve 2cm of stool from toilet

  • Chill the stool in a container

  • Avoid urinating in the stool collection container

  • Collect the stool specimen in the morning

Explanation

Question 19 of 199

1

A patient was in a motor vehicle crash and is vomiting blood. Which of the following symptoms is this known as?

Select one of the following:

  • Hemostasis

  • Hematemesis

  • Homeostasis

  • Hemolysis

Explanation

Question 20 of 199

1

A CMA is collecting a Rapid Streptococcal test. The CMA should take the specimen from which area of the body?

Select one of the following:

  • Rectum

  • Throat

  • Ear

  • Nose

Explanation

Question 21 of 199

1

Which of the following requires documentation of the patient's Informed Consent?

Select one of the following:

  • Throat swab

  • Capillary collection

  • Flu shot

  • Urine pregnancy test

Explanation

Question 22 of 199

1

Proper surgical asepsis technique will result in which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Reducing the likelihood of transmitting opportunistic infections

  • Decreasing the number of microorganisms after they leave the body

  • Decreasing the risk of transfer pathogens by direct or indirect contact

  • Destroying all microorganisms before they enter the body

Explanation

Question 23 of 199

1

A CMA is caring for a patient who has an accumulation of blood in his chest cavity. The CMA should recognize that which of the following terms refers to this condition?

Select one of the following:

  • Hemothorax

  • Hematuria

  • Hemoglobin

  • Hematoma

Explanation

Question 24 of 199

1

Which of the following must be performed when correcting an error in a medical record?

Select one of the following:

  • Use red ink to write the correction

  • Draw a single line through the error

  • Use corrective fluid

  • Have the provider initial the correction

Explanation

Question 25 of 199

1

A provider is running 2 hours behind schedule. The CMA should apologize for the delay and do which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Offer to reschedule the appointment

  • Proceed with regular schedule and seat patients

  • Cancel the rest of the appointments for the day

  • Double book per modified wave schedule

Explanation

Question 26 of 199

1

To follow OSHA guidelines and minimize exposure of the spread of organisms, lab specimens should be sent in a labeled:

Select one of the following:

  • Biohazard container

  • Brown paper bag

  • Plastic bag

  • Glass container

Explanation

Question 27 of 199

1

A provider orders a sample for capillary puncture. Which one should be drawn LAST?

Select one of the following:

  • Serum

  • Blood smear

  • Heparin

  • EDTA

Explanation

Question 28 of 199

1

To prevent the storage of expired drugs in a cabinet, a CMA should do which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Divide the drugs according to the month of expiration

  • Make an inventory in the computer and check every other day according to the policy

  • Check for expired drugs in the cabinet every day

  • Create an inventory and check periodically according to the office

Explanation

Question 29 of 199

1

Which of the following is commonly used for the take home evaluation of Pulmonary Function?

Select one of the following:

  • Meter-dose inhaler

  • Incentive Spirometer

  • Nebulizer

  • Peak flow meter

Explanation

Question 30 of 199

1

A patient is scheduled for an outpatient procedure. Which of the following forms explains the risks and procedures?

Select one of the following:

  • Consent form

  • Quality Assurance form

  • Medical release form

  • Registration form

Explanation

Question 31 of 199

1

Part of a CMA's job is to inform the patient about which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Treatment options

  • Patient's diagnosis

  • Lab result interpretation

  • Pre-op and Post-op instructions

Explanation

Question 32 of 199

1

A CMA is getting ready to perform a test on a patient who is a presumed rape victim. She notices the collection kit has been opened. After documentation that the kit was open, the CMA should:

Select one of the following:

  • Verify that all items are in the kit

  • Proceed with the test

  • Complete the specimen collection with a sealed kit

  • Report it to the provider and wait for his orders

Explanation

Question 33 of 199

1

Which of the following is the purpose of using an Electrode?

Select one of the following:

  • To help reduce friction

  • To prevent the patient from getting shocked

  • To ensure the wave forms are amplified

  • To promote lead attachment

Explanation

Question 34 of 199

1

Which of the following is used for routine Venipuncture's in patients who have fragile veins?

Select one of the following:

  • Winged infusion set (Butterfly)

  • Syringe

  • Evacuated tube system

  • Heal stick

Explanation

Question 35 of 199

1

A CMA draws a blood sample in a Red top tube for a patient. Which of the following blood components will be obtained as a result of centrifugation?

Select one of the following:

  • Plasma

  • Whole Blood

  • Serum

  • Formed elements

Explanation

Question 36 of 199

1

A patient diagnosed with TB is coming into the clinic for a routine follow up. Which of the following modes of transmission should the CMA be aware of when dealing with this patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Airborne

  • Vector borne

  • Droplet

  • Contact

Explanation

Question 37 of 199

1

While setting up a tray for a minor procedure, the CMA notices a coworker reaching across the sterile field. The CMA should:

Select one of the following:

  • Report the incident to OSHA

  • Break down the tray and start over

  • Report the incident to the provider

  • Cover the tray with a sterile drape

Explanation

Question 38 of 199

1

Anthropometric is used for which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • To assess lung volume

  • To determine if the patient is Hypertensive

  • To determine dosage for medications

  • To complete growth chart

Explanation

Question 39 of 199

1

A CMA is caring for a patient whose Blood Pressure drops dangerously low. The CMA should place the patient in what position?

Select one of the following:

  • Prone

  • Fowlers

  • Lithomy

  • Trendelenburg

Explanation

Question 40 of 199

1

The most common reason for glucose monitoring through point of care testing is to?

Select one of the following:

  • Check for sporadic glucose in the urine

  • Diagnose glucose metabolism problems

  • Monitor glucose levels

  • Control glucose induced hot flashes

Explanation

Question 41 of 199

1

A provider orders a Urine C&S, which of the following collection techniques should the CMA use?

Select one of the following:

  • First morning

  • Random specimen

  • Clean catch specimen

  • 24 hour urine specimen

Explanation

Question 42 of 199

1

Point of Care test regulations require quality control to:

Select one of the following:

  • Determine a test is a waived test classification

  • Ensure accuracy of test results

  • Enhance instrument productivity

  • Monitor use of instrumentation

Explanation

Question 43 of 199

1

Which of the following terms refers to the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life spores?

Select one of the following:

  • Disinfection

  • Srerilization

  • Decontamination

  • Sanitation

Explanation

Question 44 of 199

1

A CMA is looking at an EKG with an R-R interval of 20 small boxes. Which of the following is the appropriate heart rate?

Select one of the following:

  • 75/ minute

  • 60/minute

  • 210/ minute

  • 100/ minute

Explanation

Question 45 of 199

1

A CMA is giving a patient a purified protein derivative injection. What amount of the vaccine should the CMA administer?

Select one of the following:

  • 10 ml

  • 0.01 ml

  • 1.0 ml

  • 0.1 ml

Explanation

Question 46 of 199

1

A CMA did not wash their hands during a dressing change. A week later the patient called to let the facility know that the wound was red and swollen. What type of infection has most likely occurred?

Select one of the following:

  • Nonsocomial

  • Bacterial

  • MRSA

  • Viral

Explanation

Question 47 of 199

1

What type of antiseptic is used for routine Venipuncture?

Select one of the following:

  • 60% isopropyl alcohol

  • Iodine

  • 70% isopropyl alcohol

  • None if the above

Explanation

Question 48 of 199

1

What needle is used for a Sclerosed Vein in the AC of an elderly patient?

Select one of the following:

  • ETS

  • Standard 21 gauge

  • Winged infusion set (Butterfly needle)

  • Syringe

Explanation

Question 49 of 199

1

Apical pulse is the preferred method for determining heart rate for which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Infants

  • Older adults

  • Adolescents

  • Adults

Explanation

Question 50 of 199

1

Which tube PREVENTS HEMOLYSIS?

Select one of the following:

  • Green

  • Blue

  • Purple

  • Tiger

Explanation

Question 51 of 199

1

What is the 3 way ID system?

Select one of the following:

  • Name, DOB, SS#

  • Name, DOB, ID Band

  • How to label the tube

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 52 of 199

1

What needle is used for Therapeutic Phlebotomy and Donations?

Select one of the following:

  • 16-18 gauge

  • 20-21

  • 23-25

  • 20-25

Explanation

Question 53 of 199

1

Where do you obtain a Capillary sample?

Select one of the following:

  • 3rd and 4th finger

  • Thumb

  • Index finger

  • 4th and 5th finger

Explanation

Question 54 of 199

1

Which of the following is the correct placement for the ground lead on a 3 lead EKG, looking at lead ll?

Select one of the following:

  • Right shoulder

  • Right abdomen

  • Left shoulder

  • Left abdomen

Explanation

Question 55 of 199

1

On a 5 lead EKG for Holter monitoring, the BLACK LEAD is?

Select one of the following:

  • The reference electrode on the right manubrium

  • Located on the right V4/V5 area centered over the rib

  • The reference electrode on the left manubrium

  • Located on the left V4/V5 area centered over the rib

Explanation

Question 56 of 199

1

A patient goes into Ventricular Fibrillation during an EKG, which of the following should the CMA do first?

Select one of the following:

  • Call for help

  • Apply an AED

  • Open the airway

  • Perform a second EKG

Explanation

Question 57 of 199

1

When performing an EKG on a LEFT LEG AMPUTEE, where should the CMA PLACE the lower ELECTRODES?

Select one of the following:

  • On the right ankle and left stump

  • On the lower torso

  • On the midaxillary line

  • On the upper abdomen

Explanation

Question 58 of 199

1

When placing Electrodes for a Holter monitor procedure, which of the following should the CMA consult?

Select one of the following:

  • The Facility's Operational Manual

  • The MSDS sheet

  • The Manufacturers Guide

  • The Physicians Desk Reference

Explanation

Question 59 of 199

1

Which of the following is the standard speed for an EKG?

Select one of the following:

  • 25 mm/ Second

  • 20 mm/ Second

  • 75 mm/ Second

  • 50 mm/ Second

Explanation

Question 60 of 199

1

Which of the following is the correct position for obtaining a Rectal Temperature?

Select one of the following:

  • Fowlers

  • Lithomy

  • Sims

  • Knee chest

Explanation

Question 61 of 199

1

When completing a Hemoccult exam, a CMA is testing for which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Imperceptible blood (Hidden)

  • Bacteria in the blood

  • Hemorrhoid blood

Explanation

Question 62 of 199

1

Specific Coding instructions for each CPT section are located in which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Index

  • Introduction

  • Guidelines

  • Appendix A

Explanation

Question 63 of 199

1

When preparing a patient for Holter Monitoring, which of the following statements by the patient indicates an understanding?

Select one of the following:

  • I may shower with it on

  • I should wear tight fitting clothing

  • I should avoid magnetic fields

  • I do not need to keep a diary

Explanation

Question 64 of 199

1

A CMA must perform a Spirometer Test on a patient who has been diagnosed with COPD, which of the following does this test measure?

Select one of the following:

  • Levels of Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen of the blood

  • Amount if air leaving the lungs and rate it is exhaled

  • Levels of Carbon Monoxide in the lungs

  • Amount if Oxygen saturation

Explanation

Question 65 of 199

1

Which of the following medications can be absorbed slowly to create constant, time released systemic effect?

Select one of the following:

  • Creams

  • Transdermal Patches

  • Liniments

  • Suppositories

Explanation

Question 66 of 199

1

When administering CPR, approximately how many compressions should the CMA do in 1 minute?

Select one of the following:

  • 110

  • 100

  • 90

  • 120

Explanation

Question 67 of 199

1

To perform an EKG on a patient with very large breasts, a CMA should take which of the following actions?

Select one of the following:

  • Place the Electrodes on the 5th intercostal space

  • Have the patient lift the breasts to put the Electrodes under them

  • Place on top of the breasts

Explanation

Question 68 of 199

1

When exposed to a needle stick, what should you do first?

Select one of the following:

  • Report the exposure to a supervisor

  • Wash the exposed area

  • Receive medical evaluation

  • Complete an incident report

Explanation

Question 69 of 199

1

A CMA witnesses a doctor using unsanitary instruments, which agency should it be reported to?

Select one of the following:

  • DOH

  • CDC

  • CLIA

  • OSHA

Explanation

Question 70 of 199

1

When does the timing for a Glucose Tolerance test begin?

Select one of the following:

  • When the test results are completed

  • After the patient finishes the Glucose drink

  • When the fasting sample is drawn

  • 30 minutes after the patient arrives

Explanation

Question 71 of 199

1

Which of the following is the appropriate action to take for a CMA when scheduling an INPATIENT ADMISSION?

Select one of the following:

  • Advise the patient to obtain their belongings

  • Call an ambulance

  • Call the facility to schedule the admission

  • Tell the patient to obtain his medical records

Explanation

Question 72 of 199

1

Disinfectants are used on Blood Pressure Cuffs to destroy which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Bacterial Spores

  • Pathogenic Microorganisms

  • Organic Material

  • Dirt and Sweat

Explanation

Question 73 of 199

1

A CMA opens the door to a patients room and enters without knocking, what type of violation is this?

Select one of the following:

  • Negligence

  • Malpractice

  • Breach of Confidentiality

  • Invasion of Privacy

Explanation

Question 74 of 199

1

When a CMA is taking a patients Blood Pressure, which of the following Korotkoff sounds represents the Systolic Blood Pressure?

Select one of the following:

  • Swooshing

  • Soft and Muffled

  • Faint and pulsing

  • Tapping

Explanation

Question 75 of 199

1

An Unconscious patient is admitted to the E.R. Which of the following Consents would be applicable?

Select one of the following:

  • Written

  • Implied

  • Parental

  • Informed

Explanation

Question 76 of 199

1

A CMA is prepping a patient with fragile skin for Telemetry Monitoring, which of the following measures should the CMA take?

Select one of the following:

  • Use lotion

  • Apply decreased pressure when abrading the skin

  • Use more tape

  • Assess the skin turgor

Explanation

Question 77 of 199

1

Which of the following devices requires a High Level Disinfectant?

Select one of the following:

  • Ear Specula

  • Stethoscope

  • Sigmoidoscope (Anal Scope)

  • Hemostat

Explanation

Question 78 of 199

1

Which of the following would indicate a Normal Sinus Rhythm?

Select one of the following:

  • The PR interval is 0.6 seconds

  • The P to R ratio is 2:1

  • The QRS duration is 0.20 seconds

  • The heart rate is 54/minute

Explanation

Question 79 of 199

1

Which is correct about BBP training?

Select one of the following:

  • It's available upon request

  • Training is provided at no cost

  • Training is required biannually

  • Training is provided post exposure

Explanation

Question 80 of 199

1

A CMA is to locate the code for a documented procedure performed in an office, which of the following forms should the CMA check?

Select one of the following:

  • Doctors assessment

  • Lab requisition

  • Progress notes (SOAP notes)

  • Discharge summary

Explanation

Question 81 of 199

1

A STAT Electrolyte panel was reported to have a critically elevated Sodium level. What pre-analytical error could have occurred?

Select one of the following:

  • A Lavender (Purple) top tube was used

  • A Gray top tube was used

  • A Gold top tube was used

  • A Red top tube was used

Explanation

Question 82 of 199

1

Which of the following can a CMA do to minimize Somatic Tremors?

Select one of the following:

  • Wipe off lotion and sweat

  • Check loose Electrodes

  • Cover the patient with a blanket

  • Unplug surrounding machines

Explanation

Question 83 of 199

1

Which of the following is the correct route of administration for a patients injection?

Select one of the following:

  • Sublingual

  • Transdermal

  • Buccal

  • Parenteral

Explanation

Question 84 of 199

1

A CMA has found an unconscious patient. Which of the following should the CMA do first?

Select one of the following:

  • Activate the EMS

  • Check for a pulse

  • Begin chest compressions

  • Open the airway

Explanation

Question 85 of 199

1

Which of the following is beyond the scope of practice of a Medical Assistant?

Select one of the following:

  • Throat Culture

  • Urinalysis

  • Occult blood

  • Pathogenic identification

Explanation

Question 86 of 199

1

The duties of a CMA include?

Select one of the following:

  • Calibrating instruments

  • Evaluating Blood Smears

  • Greeting and instructing patients

  • Establishing test protocols

Explanation

Question 87 of 199

1

A CMA should recognize that the pulse and respiration of a patient should be measured for:

Select one of the following:

  • 2 minutes

  • 1 minute

  • 10 seconds

  • 30 seconds

Explanation

Question 88 of 199

1

What is the correct procedure for collecting a Capillary specimen?

Select one of the following:

  • After the site has been punctured, wipe away first drop, and collect

  • Massage the site prior to collection

  • Allow for Capillary refill

  • Apply a cool pack

Explanation

Question 89 of 199

1

What should the CMA do to secure all operations in the HER (Health Electronic Record)?

Select one of the following:

  • Send a link to the office managers email

  • Make a duplicate copy of all files

  • Save all information in the computer desktop

  • Back up information in a storage device

Explanation

Question 90 of 199

1

A CMA is obtaining a stool sample from a patient. Which of the following action should the CMA take?

Select one of the following:

  • Apply one drop of developer

  • Apply the specimen to the window of the test pack

  • Check the expiration date of the developing solution

  • Obtain the sample rectally

Explanation

Question 91 of 199

1

A Color Deficiency test is determined by a?

Select one of the following:

  • Jaeger

  • Ishihara

  • Snellen

  • Pelli-Robson

Explanation

Question 92 of 199

1

A CMA is communicating with a patient who is hearing impaired and has a caregiver, which of the following modes of communication is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Position himself above the patients eye level

  • Speak directly to the patients caregiver

  • Speak louder to the patient for better understanding

  • Use written communication with the patient

Explanation

Question 93 of 199

1

When collecting a stool sample, which is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Avoid urinating in the sample container

  • Collect in the morning

  • Collect 2 cm of specimen from the toilet

  • Chill the specimen

Explanation

Question 94 of 199

1

An adolescent patients mother tells the CMA that she wants to talk to the provider about her daughters visit to obtain birth control. Which is the correct response?

Select one of the following:

  • Explain the HIPPA guidelines and advise the mother to speak to her daughter

  • Tell the mother she can talk to the physician

  • Advise the mother to contact the pharmacy

  • Tell the mother the daughter is sexually active

Explanation

Question 95 of 199

1

A CMA is caring for a patient with chronic asthma. Which of the following medications would be used for this?

Select one of the following:

  • Bronchodilator

  • Antipyretic

  • Antihistamine

  • Decongestant

Explanation

Question 96 of 199

1

A CMA is applying a Telemetry pack for an EKG. Which of the following is correct lead placement?

Select one of the following:

  • Anterior Thoracic Region

  • Abdominal Region

  • Posterior Thoracic

  • Abdominopelvic Region

Explanation

Question 97 of 199

1

Which of the following is associated with ST elevation?

Select one of the following:

  • Aortic Stenosis

  • Atrioseptial defects

  • Myocardial Infarction

  • Peripheral Vascular Disease

Explanation

Question 98 of 199

1

Lab duties include the following?

Select one of the following:

  • KUBRICK

  • POL testing

  • Blood typing

  • ABG's

Explanation

Question 99 of 199

1

Which agency enforces safety conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • OSHA

  • CLIA

  • FDA

  • DOH

Explanation

Question 100 of 199

1

A CMA is performing an EKG on a patient in the fetal position. Which of the following actions should the CMA take 1st?

Select one of the following:

  • Reposition the Electrodes of the Augmented leads

  • Notate the patients position

  • Increase the voltage

  • Increase the speed

Explanation

Question 101 of 199

1

A patients blood stains the uniform, which of the following should the CMA do first?

Select one of the following:

  • Clean the area

  • Dispose of the uniform

  • Finish the procedure

  • Report it to the supervisor

Explanation

Question 102 of 199

1

A CMA has orders to collect Blood Cultures, CBC, PTT, and an Iron Panel. He forgets to draw the PTT. What should the phlebotomist do?

Select one of the following:

  • Draw a discard tube and redraw the blood cultures

  • Call another CMA to obtain the sample

  • Obtain the PTT from the iron panel

  • Keep the specimens collected and draw the PTT

Explanation

Question 103 of 199

1

Quality Control testing of a Glucometer is important why?

Select one of the following:

  • Promotes accurate results

  • Ensure cleanliness

  • Contributes to HIPPA guidelines

  • Provide patient safety

Explanation

Question 104 of 199

1

If a patient is Diaphoretic, the CMA should do which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Dry the patients chest before applying the Electrodes

  • Apply the Electrodes to an alternate site

  • Apply to the lower abdomen

  • Shave the patients chest

Explanation

Question 105 of 199

1

What are the correct instructions regarding a 24 hour Urine?

Select one of the following:

  • Obtain a clean Catch Specimen

  • Store at room temp.

  • Discard the First Urine specimen prior to collection

  • Increase fluid intake

Explanation

Question 106 of 199

1

A patients vision in his left eye is 20/50. This means?

Select one of the following:

  • The patient is legally blind

  • The patient can see at 20 feet what the normal eye sees at 50 feet

  • The patient has above average vision

  • The patient can see at 50 feet what the normal eye can see at 20 feet

Explanation

Question 107 of 199

1

Which is the following accurate bleach solution?

Select one of the following:

  • 1:5

  • 1:10

  • 1:15

  • 1:9

Explanation

Question 108 of 199

1

What is the minimum amount of blood when collecting blood for cultures on an adult?

Select one of the following:

  • 5-7

  • 1-2

  • 8-10

  • 3-4

Explanation

Question 109 of 199

1

What is the correct term for Excessive Urination at Night?

Select one of the following:

  • Anuria

  • Polyuria

  • Oliguria

  • Nocturia

Explanation

Question 110 of 199

1

What hormone is detected during pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

  • FSH

  • LH

  • HCG

  • Hgb

Explanation

Question 111 of 199

1

A CMA is instructing a patient to collect a urine specimen for pregnancy. To ensure accurate results, the CMA must instruct the patient to collect:

Select one of the following:

  • In a sterile container

  • First Morning Urine

  • At least 5 tbsp. of urine

  • Urine at bedtime

Explanation

Question 112 of 199

1

When performing a 12 lead EKG, which is used as the ground lead to help with interference?

Select one of the following:

  • Right leg

  • Right arm

  • Left leg

  • Left arm

Explanation

Question 113 of 199

1

When retrieving voice mail messages, what is the most important information?

Select one of the following:

  • Allergy information

  • Pharmacy information

  • Phone number

  • Social security number

Explanation

Question 114 of 199

1

The patient begins to have a seizure, to protect against injury what do you do?

Select one of the following:

  • Place an object in the patients mouth

  • Observe the patient

  • Begin CPR

  • Restrain the patient

Explanation

Question 115 of 199

1

What is the process to find whether a patients insurance will cover a procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • Pre-qualification

  • Pre-determination

  • Pre-authorization

  • Pre-existence

Explanation

Question 116 of 199

1

When maintaining an exam room, what should the CMA's priority be?

Select one of the following:

  • Prepare exam instruments

  • Disinfect the exam room

  • Stocking supplies

  • Remove biohazard containers

Explanation

Question 117 of 199

1

Urine spills on the floor, what should you use to clean it up?

Select one of the following:

  • Gluteraldehyde

  • 70% Alcohol

  • Omnicide

  • 10% Bleach

Explanation

Question 118 of 199

1

A PR interval measures which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • The end of the P wave to beginning of QRS complex

  • The beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex

  • The end of the P wave to the end of the QRS wave

  • The peak of the P wave to the peak of the R wave

Explanation

Question 119 of 199

1

What type of specimen should be collected to detect a UTI?

Select one of the following:

  • 24 Hour Urine

  • First Morning Urine

  • In a clean container

  • Midstream Urine

Explanation

Question 120 of 199

1

What is Surgical Fixation of the small intestine to the abdominal wall?

Select one of the following:

  • Colonopathy

  • Colopexy

  • Enteropexy

  • Enteropathy

Explanation

Question 121 of 199

1

Which of the following factors determines whether a child should have his capillary collection by the heel stick or finger stick method?

Select one of the following:

  • Most accessible body part

  • Pain tolerance

  • Age and development

  • Patients preference

Explanation

Question 122 of 199

1

When entering a patients room, what should the CMA do first?

Select one of the following:

  • ID the patient

  • Wash hands

  • Vital signs

  • Complete medical history

Explanation

Question 123 of 199

1

What does an ESR (Estimated Sediment Rate) measure?

Select one of the following:

  • Decreased CRP

  • Estrogen serum ration

  • The distance the patients Erythrocytes have settled

  • Clotting factors

Explanation

Question 124 of 199

1

When giving vaccinations, how should you ID the patient?

Select one of the following:

  • ID patient by medical record

  • ID patient by full name

  • ID patient by SS#

  • Use the ID number

Explanation

Question 125 of 199

1

What should be used to Disinfect the workspace ?

Select one of the following:

  • Ammonia

  • Antibacterial

  • Antiseptic

  • Antimicrobial

Explanation

Question 126 of 199

1

How does an infectious agent move from host to which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Portal of exit

  • Infectious reservoir

  • Means of transmission

  • Susceptible host

Explanation

Question 127 of 199

1

Once you have anchored a patients vein, what should you do next?

Select one of the following:

  • Reapply the tourniquet

  • Clean the site

  • Examine the needle

  • Perform the procedure

Explanation

Question 128 of 199

1

Information regarding chemicals should be found?

Select one of the following:

  • MSDS

  • HHD

  • LCSP

  • CSP

Explanation

Question 129 of 199

1

What is the following Angle for an IM (Intramuscular) injection?

Select one of the following:

  • 30 degrees

  • 90 degrees

  • 15 degrees

  • 45degrees

Explanation

Question 130 of 199

1

Hemostasis is important after Venipuncture procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • Promotes destruction of RBC

  • Promotes Vasoconstriction

  • Fibrinolysis

  • Clot formation

Explanation

Question 131 of 199

1

What do you need when sending a patient to a specialist?

Select one of the following:

  • Insurance number

  • Method of referral

  • Diagnosis code

  • Family history

Explanation

Question 132 of 199

1

You should transport an ABG specimen?

Select one of the following:

  • Warm

  • On ice

  • Protected from ice

  • In an SST

Explanation

Question 133 of 199

1

What steps should the CMA take when dealing with a Psychiatric Patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Only bring the necessary equipment

  • Bring the patient to a common area

  • Bring entire tray in

  • Bring another CMA

Explanation

Question 134 of 199

1

In the event of a fire, you should do what first?

Select one of the following:

  • Extinguish the fire

  • Alert emergency personal

  • Rescue/evacuate patients

  • Contain fire

Explanation

Question 135 of 199

1

Which of the following is a CLIA waived test?

Select one of the following:

  • CBC

  • Manual testing for HCG

  • Automated ESR

  • Microscope

Explanation

Question 136 of 199

1

Which of the following is an appropriate response to a conscious, adult patient experiencing a Hypoglycemic Emergency?

Select one of the following:

  • Offer the patient a glass of water

  • Offer patient orange juice

  • Offer patient a sandwich

  • Offer patient a piece of sugar free candy

Explanation

Question 137 of 199

1

Laboratory duties for a CMA include performing which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • POL testing

  • ABG's

  • Blood typing

  • KUB

Explanation

Question 138 of 199

1

A health care professional is allowed to report confidential protected health information to outside agencies, if:

Select one of the following:

  • A patient is positive for VDRL

  • The patients family requests information

  • A patient volunteered for clinical study

  • In patient suffered injuries in a plane crash

Explanation

Question 139 of 199

1

What are used to determine BMI (Body Mass Index)?

Select one of the following:

  • Height and age

  • Weight and gender

  • Weight and activity level

  • Height and Weight

Explanation

Question 140 of 199

1

What label color is used for Biohazard waste?

Select one of the following:

  • Red

  • Blue

  • Yellow

  • White

Explanation

Question 141 of 199

1

The following situation can be reported to an outside facility?

Select one of the following:

  • Patient has received an MMR

  • If the patient received a blood transfusion

  • The patient has active Tuberculosis (TB)

  • Clinical study

Explanation

Question 142 of 199

1

Which of the following is correct for a Phlebotomy procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • Make a fist and pump once

  • Make a fist and pump twice

  • Make a fist and pump three times

  • Make a fist and do not pump

Explanation

Question 143 of 199

1

A dead body used for dissection, study and tissue samples is called what?

Select one of the following:

  • Organ donor

  • Corpse

  • Cadaver

  • Dead body

Explanation

Question 144 of 199

1

Pain that is sharp, severe and sudden. Having a sudden onset is?

Select one of the following:

  • Ischemic

  • Acute

  • Anelgesic

  • Chronic

Explanation

Question 145 of 199

1

A group of tissues making a structure with a particular function?

Select one of the following:

  • Structure

  • System

  • Organ

  • Body

Explanation

Question 146 of 199

1

Decreased blood supply?

Select one of the following:

  • Acute

  • Hypotension

  • Low blood pressure

  • Ischemic

Explanation

Question 147 of 199

1

A Prediction of the outcome of a disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Outcome

  • Prognosis

  • Chief complaint

Explanation

Question 148 of 199

1

Branch of science that studies disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Cardiology

  • Scientology

  • Epidemiology

  • Histology

Explanation

Question 149 of 199

1

The understanding of and sensitivity to the feelings if others?

Select one of the following:

  • Sympathy

  • Compassion

  • Awareness

  • Empathy

Explanation

Question 150 of 199

1

Pain reducing?

Select one of the following:

  • Sedative

  • Analgesic

  • Exercise

  • Assessment

Explanation

Question 151 of 199

1

Of long duration, often with slow progression?

Select one of the following:

  • Prognosis

  • Ischemic

  • Chronic

  • Acute

Explanation

Question 152 of 199

1

Facility providing care for terminally ill, at home or hospice setting?

Select one of the following:

  • Hospital

  • Nursing home

  • Hospice

  • Mental health facility

Explanation

Question 153 of 199

1

The patient bill of rights focuses on including the patient in the decision making process?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 154 of 199

1

When fixing a medical error on a patients medical record, the CMA must do what?

Select one of the following:

  • Leave it, do nothing

  • Use white out and rewrite it

  • Infirm them you will fix it later

  • Cross a line through, correct and initial

Explanation

Question 155 of 199

1

Body gestures, facial expressions, and eye contact are all firms of what type of communication?

Select one of the following:

  • Verbal

  • Visual

  • Non verbal

  • Written

Explanation

Question 156 of 199

1

Long term pain affects a persons what?

Select one of the following:

  • Personality

  • Physical state

  • Sleep

  • Mental state

Explanation

Question 157 of 199

1

A common diagnosis for psychological pain is?

Select one of the following:

  • Neurological

  • Psychological

  • Depression

  • Dementia

Explanation

Question 158 of 199

1

Physical pain on the body's surface?

Select one of the following:

  • Superficial

  • Visceral

  • Internal

  • Acute

Explanation

Question 159 of 199

1

The average Life Span in the United States is ?

Select one of the following:

  • 90 years

  • 80 years

  • 76 years

  • 84 years

Explanation

Question 160 of 199

1

What is a Tissue?

Select one of the following:

  • A group of tissues making a structure with a particular function.

  • A group of cells that act together for a particular body function.

Explanation

Question 161 of 199

1

What is the maximum waiting period for a Cold Ischemic Cadaver (Refrigerated)?

Select one of the following:

  • Time cannot exceed 12 hours after circulation and respiration have ceased.

  • Time cannot exceed 4 hours after circulation and respiration have ceased.

Explanation

Question 162 of 199

1

What is the maximum waiting period for a Warm Ischemic Cadaver (Not Refrigerated) ?

Select one of the following:

  • Time cannot exceed 12 hours after circulation and respiration have ceased.

  • Time cannot exceed 4 hours after circulation and respiration have ceased.

Explanation

Question 163 of 199

1

Minimum age for Organ donation?

Select one of the following:

  • 18 years with written intent.

  • 13 with written intent

  • 21 with written intent

Explanation

Question 164 of 199

1

What is an Ophthalmoscope?

Select one of the following:

  • Instrument used to examine the eyes

  • Instrument used to examine the ears

  • Instrument used to rectal examination

Explanation

Question 165 of 199

1

What us an Otoscope?

Select one of the following:

  • Instrument used to examine the eyes

  • Instrument used to examine the nose and throat

  • Instrument used to examine the ears

Explanation

Question 166 of 199

1

What is Triage?

Select one of the following:

  • A specific area of the ER for extreme cases

  • Sorting and setting priorities for patient treatment

  • Medical care received in the emergency room

Explanation

Question 167 of 199

1

What is Conduction?

Select one of the following:

  • Heat transfer by air

  • Heat transfer by direct contact through fluids, solids, or other substances

  • Thermal heat used for a patient with hypothermia

Explanation

Question 168 of 199

1

What us Convection?

Select one of the following:

  • Heat transfer by air

  • Heat transfer by direct contact through fluids, solids, or other substances

  • The use of an autoclave to sterilize instruments

Explanation

Question 169 of 199

1

What is Malignant hypertension?

Select one of the following:

  • Elevated blood pressure

  • Below normal blood pressure

  • Rapidly developing, SEVERE elevation of blood pressure

Explanation

Question 170 of 199

1

What is Turgor?

Select one of the following:

  • Normal appearance of the skin and it's ability to return to normal after being pinched.

  • Abnormal appearance of the skin

  • An abnormal mark on the skins surface

Explanation

Question 171 of 199

1

What is Mensuration?

Select one of the following:

  • A females monthly menstral cycle

  • Measurement of height and weight done for medical exam

  • Profuse sweating

Explanation

Question 172 of 199

1

What method is used to diagnose HIV and AIDS?

Select one of the following:

  • ELISA method, using Serologic testing

  • Any basis blood test would tell you

  • Medical records, Health evaluation and urine sample

Explanation

Question 173 of 199

1

What is the body's Drug Processing order?

Select one of the following:

  • Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Exertion

  • Distribution, Absorption, Metabolism, Exertion

  • Distribution, Metabolism, Exertion, Absorption

Explanation

Question 174 of 199

1

What is an Idiosyncratic drug effect?

Select one of the following:

  • Effect that cannot be explained or predicted

  • Adverse reaction to medications

  • An overdose, allergic reaction, or negative interaction with other drugs

Explanation

Question 175 of 199

1

The most commonly used and Medically accurate Drug dosage system is?

Select one of the following:

  • Metric System

  • Apothecary measurement system

  • Percentages

Explanation

Question 176 of 199

1

What is the AC when pertaining to Phlebotomy?

Select one of the following:

  • Antecubital Fossa

  • Accurate care

  • Anterior Capillary

Explanation

Question 177 of 199

1

Where is the AC (Antecubital Fossa) located?

Select one of the following:

  • Medial aspect of the arm

  • The upper deltoid region

  • The shallow depression in arm, anterior to & below bend of elbow

Explanation

Question 178 of 199

1

How many veins are located in the AC?

Select one of the following:

  • 4

  • 1

  • 3

  • 2

Explanation

Question 179 of 199

1

What is Angioplasty?

Select one of the following:

  • Weakening and dilation of an artery

  • A type of surgery pertaining to the heart

  • A Balloon on a Cardiac Catheter inflated to compress plaque against the artery walls

Explanation

Question 180 of 199

1

What is an Artifact?

Select one of the following:

  • Appearance of electrical activity or waveforms from sources outside the heart

  • A mass found on the heart, through observation of an xray.

  • Originating from more than one area of focus

Explanation

Question 181 of 199

1

Another name for Isoelectric line is?

Select one of the following:

  • Flatlined

  • Isometric

  • Inconsistent

Explanation

Question 182 of 199

1

What is a Holter Monitor?

Select one of the following:

  • A Portable Heart monitor patients can use at home

  • An electric blood pressure meter

  • A portable monitor that reads your blood pressure

Explanation

Question 183 of 199

1

What is a P Wave?

Select one of the following:

  • Contraction of the Atrium

  • Relaxation of the Ventricle

  • Contraction of the Ventricle

Explanation

Question 184 of 199

1

What is the QRS complex?

Select one of the following:

  • Contraction of the Ventricle

  • Relaxation of the Ventricle

  • Contraction of the Atrium

Explanation

Question 185 of 199

1

What is the T Wave?

Select one of the following:

  • Relaxation of the Ventricle ( Repolarization)

  • Contraction of the Ventricle

  • Contraction of the Atrium

Explanation

Question 186 of 199

1

Normal Sinus Rythm:

Select one of the following:

  • Average/ Normal wave form

  • Waveforms are farther apart and slower

  • Waveforms are closer together and faster

Explanation

Question 187 of 199

1

Bradycardia Sinus Rhythm:

Select one of the following:

  • Normal/average waveforms

  • Waveforms are farther apart and slower

  • Waveforms are closer together and faster

Explanation

Question 188 of 199

1

Tachycardia Sinus Rhythm:

Select one of the following:

  • Normal/average waveforms

  • Waveforms are farther apart and slower

  • Waveforms are closer together and faster

Explanation

Question 189 of 199

1

Normal P wave measures?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.12 - 2.0 seconds

  • 0.12 seconds

  • 2.0 or higher

Explanation

Question 190 of 199

1

Normal QRS measurement:

Select one of the following:

  • 0.12 - 2.0 seconds

  • 2.0 or higher

  • Less than 0.12 seconds

Explanation

Question 191 of 199

1

T wave has what measurement?

Select one of the following:

  • Positive deflection at 60-100 normal BPM (beats per minute)

  • Only less than 60 BPM

  • Greater than 100 BPM

Explanation

Question 192 of 199

1

Bradycardia =

Select one of the following:

  • Less than 60 BPM ( beats per min.)

  • Higher than 60 BPM

  • Higher than 100 BPM

Explanation

Question 193 of 199

1

Tachycardia=

Select one of the following:

  • Less than 60 BPM

  • Higher than 60 BPM

  • Higher than 100 BPM

Explanation

Question 194 of 199

1

Atrial Fibrillation ( A-fib) are?

Select one of the following:

  • Irregularly spaced patterns in Waveform

  • Flutter or Sawtooth patterns in Waveform

  • Fatal arrhythmia with no contractions

Explanation

Question 195 of 199

1

Atrial Flutter (A-Flu) is?

Select one of the following:

  • Irregularly spaced complexes in the waveform

  • Flutter or Sawtooth patterns in the waveform

  • Fatal arrhythmia with no contractions

Explanation

Question 196 of 199

1

What is the Pacemaker of the Heart?

Select one of the following:

  • SA Node

  • Tricuspid

  • AV Node

Explanation

Question 197 of 199

1

Which us considered BACKUP for the HEART?

Select one of the following:

  • SA Node

  • Vena Cava

  • AV Node

Explanation

Question 198 of 199

1

What is Depolarization?

Select one of the following:

  • Contraction

  • Relaxation

Explanation

Question 199 of 199

1

What is Repolarization?

Select one of the following:

  • Relaxation

  • Contraction

Explanation