JOHANN ALVAREZ
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Quiz on 10. oración y novena 698-817, created by JOHANN ALVAREZ on 26/11/2016.

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JOHANN ALVAREZ
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10. oración y novena 698-817

Question 1 of 120

1

698
(Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    2,365 feet MSL

  • b.
    2,400 feet MSL

  • c.
    3,000 feet MSL.

Explanation

Question 2 of 120

1

699
The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach , or communications equipment, occurring in flight

  • b.
    Requested to contact a new controlling facility

  • c.
    Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes

Explanation

Question 3 of 120

1

700
(Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    One VOR receiver

  • b.
    One VOR receiver and DME

  • c.
    Two VOR receivers and DME

Explanation

Question 4 of 120

1

701
Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Used to separate IFR and known VFR traffic.

  • b.
    To facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures

  • c.
    Used at certain airports to relieve traffic congestion

Explanation

Question 5 of 120

1

702
While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Reaching the FAF

  • b.
    Advised to begin descent

  • c.
    Established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure.

Explanation

Question 6 of 120

1

703
(Refer to figure 34.) The symbol [9200] in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Denver VORTAC

  • b.
    Dymon outer marker

  • c.
    Cruup I-AQD DME fix

Explanation

Question 7 of 120

1

704
What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    A procedure turn is not authorized.

  • b.
    Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized

  • c.
    Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized

Explanation

Question 8 of 120

1

705
A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes

  • b.
    Receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix

  • c.
    Maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes

Explanation

Question 9 of 120

1

706
On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach

  • b.
    Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot

  • c.
    Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.

Explanation

Question 10 of 120

1

707
Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used

  • b.
    Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.

  • c.
    Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.

Explanation

Question 11 of 120

1

708
(Refer to figure 38) During the ILS RWY 13L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    1,420 feet

  • b.
    1,340 feet

  • c.
    1,121 feet.

Explanation

Question 12 of 120

1

709
For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.

  • b.
    Ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

  • c.
    Ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM

Explanation

Question 13 of 120

1

710
For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather minimums.

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision

  • b.
    Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision

  • c.
    Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.

Explanation

Question 14 of 120

1

711
(Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL

  • b.
    8,000 feet MSL

  • c.
    2,100 feet AGL.

Explanation

Question 15 of 120

1

712
VFR is the same as VMC and IFR is the same as IMC

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    True, they are both the same

  • b.
    False, one is the type of flight plan and the other the designation as per Ops. Specs.

  • c.
    False, but they are correlated

Explanation

Question 16 of 120

1

713
Hypoxia is the result of:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    The brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream

  • b.
    The brain not being used to a lack of oxygen

  • c.
    All of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic

Explanation

Question 17 of 120

1

714
A DME arc should be flown within ____ from the center of the arc:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    1.0 DME

  • b.
    2.0 DME to either side of the arc

  • c.
    0.0. (No deviations are allowed)

Explanation

Question 18 of 120

1

715
If you are flying at 18.000 Ft. and your DME reads 6.0 Nm, you are:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    6.0 Nm from the VOR

  • b.
    4.5 Nm from the VOR

  • c.
    3.0 Nm from the VOR

Explanation

Question 19 of 120

1

716
TERPs are a US standard used for:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    All ICAO special charts

  • b.
    IFR departure design criteria

  • c.
    Non Jeppesen stars

Explanation

Question 20 of 120

1

717
When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Continue flying the DP as published

  • b.
    Return for a landing

  • c.
    Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included

Explanation

Question 21 of 120

1

718
Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    True, except as published on STARs

  • b.
    False, every airport is different

  • c.
    True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs

Explanation

Question 22 of 120

1

719
Departure Procedures must:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Be flown if available for that airport

  • b.
    Be flown and no change request for another DP is allowed if on an IFR flight plan

  • c.
    Be flown if accepted but may be declined or changes made if coordinated with ATC

Explanation

Question 23 of 120

1

720
On a Jeppesen or NOA chart what does V344 mean

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    V stands for “very high speed” and 344 is the max. speed allowed in Kts for that direction of flight

  • b.
    V stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway allocation

  • c.
    V stands or “VictorCollins” who min1935 invented the airways between VOR sand 344 is the airway allocation

Explanation

Question 24 of 120

1

721
MEA guarantees adequate terrain clearance and:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Navigation signal

  • b.
    Both navigation and communications

  • c.
    1.500 ground clearance around mountains

Explanation

Question 25 of 120

1

722
When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Do nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side

  • b.
    Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway

  • c.
    Do nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line

Explanation

Question 26 of 120

1

723
1.000 Ft clearance from terrain and 2.000 Ft in mountainous areas is guaranteed on:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    MVA, MEA and MOCA

  • b.
    MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA

  • c.
    Neither,astheradioaltimeterisneveractivated(2.500Ftorless)whentheaircraftfliesinmountainousterrain

Explanation

Question 27 of 120

1

724
In order to fly a route where you plan to fly with an IFR approved GPS as the primary means of navigation from airport A direct to airport B, you need

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    A Hi or Lo enroute chart

  • b.
    A GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used

  • c.
    A WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for enroute navigation

Explanation

Question 28 of 120

1

725
When departing an airport in class B airspace you should advice ATC upon initial contact once handed off from TWR:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Your altitude assigned level/alt, squak code

  • b.
    Aircraft ID, present altitude, squak code

  • c.
    Aircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude assigned and squak code

Explanation

Question 29 of 120

1

726
When in radar contact, your aircraft DME equipment becomes unserviceable, you should:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Write a maintenance report at your next stop

  • b.
    Advice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate arrangements

  • c.
    Check the MEL to ensure the equipment is not required for the type of flight you are executing

Explanation

Question 30 of 120

1

727
Position reports when required should include:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Aircraft ID, position, ETA over next PT and following point

  • b.
    Nothing if you were advised to be in radar contact since in this condition ATL always knows where you are

  • c.
    Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next point, following compulsory point, remarks if any

Explanation

Question 31 of 120

1

728
You are in radar contact and ATC clears you to a lower altitude at pilot’s discretion, you should:

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Report leaving present altitude

  • b.
    Just descend at will since ATC will know your altitude at all times

  • c.
    Descend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of your traffic

Explanation

Question 32 of 120

1

729
You gave a position report and you recognize that your ETA at the following point is off, you should

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Advice ATC if more than 5 % error or 10 miles

  • b.
    If off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised time

  • c.
    Do nothing as you are on an IFR Flt

Explanation

Question 33 of 120

1

730
In a no wind condition you are asked at 12:00 Hrs. to hold at 8.000 Ft. until 12:12 Hrs.

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    You will fly two complete racetrack patterns

  • b.
    You will fly three complete racetrack patterns

  • c.
    The # of circuits you fly depends on the speed you are holding at.

Explanation

Question 34 of 120

1

731
If on a descent clearance you are cleared to hold at a fix, you should

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Slow down and enter the hold at VMC + 10 Kts

  • b.
    Reach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/category

  • c.
    Maintainthespeedupsoastoholdatthefastestspeedpossibletobethefirsttoleavethefixandexpedite ATC

Explanation

Question 35 of 120

1

732
When is an IFR flight plan required?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace

  • b.
    In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.

  • c.
    In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace

Explanation

Question 36 of 120

1

733
Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace

  • b.
    Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists

  • c.
    Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist

Explanation

Question 37 of 120

1

734
To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Entering controlled airspace

  • b.
    Entering weather conditions below VFR minimums

  • c.
    Takeoff.

Explanation

Question 38 of 120

1

735
To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments

  • b.
    Entering weather conditions in any airspace

  • c.
    Entering controlled airspace

Explanation

Question 39 of 120

1

736
When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    When operating in the Class E airspace

  • b.
    When operating in the Class A airspace.

  • c.
    When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet

Explanation

Question 40 of 120

1

737
When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Takeoff.

  • b.
    Entering IFR conditions

  • c.
    Entering Class E airspace.

Explanation

Question 41 of 120

1

738
No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    And receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff

  • b.
    Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway

  • c.
    And receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

Explanation

Question 42 of 120

1

739
During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

  • b.
    Then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

  • c.
    And then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

Explanation

Question 43 of 120

1

740
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    And fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

  • b.
    Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

  • c.
    Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Explanation

Question 44 of 120

1

741
What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.

  • b.
    800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility

  • c.
    1,000-footceilingandvisibilitytoallowdescentfromminimumenroutealtitude(MEA),approach,andlanding under basic VFR

Explanation

Question 45 of 120

1

742
What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

  • b.
    600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility

  • c.
    800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

Explanation

Question 46 of 120

1

743
When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Ceiling200feetabovetheapproachminimumsandatleast1statutemilevisibility,butnotlessthantheminimum visibility for the approach

  • b.
    600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility

  • c.
    Ceiling200feetabovefieldelevationandvisibility1statutemile,butnotlessthantheminimumvisibilityfor the approach

Explanation

Question 47 of 120

1

744
What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively

  • b.
    The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.

  • c.
    The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR

Explanation

Question 48 of 120

1

745
When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    600-1 if the airport has an ILS

  • b.
    Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum, visibility 2 miles.

  • c.
    The landing minimums for the approach to be used.

Explanation

Question 49 of 120

1

746
If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Minimums specified for the approach procedure selected

  • b.
    Alternate minimums shown on the approach chart.

  • c.
    Minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums.”

Explanation

Question 50 of 120

1

747
When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).

  • b.
    The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport

  • c.
    The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

Explanation

Question 51 of 120

1

748
An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions

  • b.
    Be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.

  • c.
    Allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions

Explanation

Question 52 of 120

1

749
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    The established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.

  • b.
    An instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors

  • c.
    Direct route only.

Explanation

Question 53 of 120

1

750
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    The ATIS broadcast.

  • b.
    The FSS.

  • c.
    Notices to Airmen (Class II).

Explanation

Question 54 of 120

1

751
What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach

  • b.
    The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach

  • c.
    The point of first intended landing

Explanation

Question 55 of 120

1

752
For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively

  • b.
    Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively

  • c.
    Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.

Explanation

Question 56 of 120

1

753
For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA

  • b.
    600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.

  • c.
    800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA

Explanation

Question 57 of 120

1

754
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?, TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.

  • b.
    No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively

  • c.
    Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.

Explanation

Question 58 of 120

1

755
For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles

  • b.
    From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles

  • c.
    From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles

Explanation

Question 59 of 120

1

756
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.

  • b.
    Advise departure control upon initial contact

  • c.
    Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan

Explanation

Question 60 of 120

1

757
Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    MOCA.

  • b.
    MRA.

  • c.
    MCA.

Explanation

Question 61 of 120

1

758
ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    22 NM of a VOR.

  • b.
    25 NM of a VOR

  • c.
    30 NM of a VOR

Explanation

Question 62 of 120

1

759
For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigation aids used to describe the “route of flight” should be

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    40 NM apart

  • b.
    70 NM apart

  • c.
    80 NM apart

Explanation

Question 63 of 120

1

760
At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Abeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever occurs last

  • b.
    When the wings are level at the completion of the 180° turn outbound.

  • c.
    When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.

Explanation

Question 64 of 120

1

761
MEA is an altitude which assures

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Obstacleclearance,accuratenavigationalsignalsfrommorethanoneVORTAC,andaccurateDMEmileage.

  • b.
    A 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage

  • c.
    Acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements

Explanation

Question 65 of 120

1

762
To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    230 knots

  • b.
    265 knots

  • c.
    200 knots

Explanation

Question 66 of 120

1

763
What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility

  • b.
    1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.

  • c.
    500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility

Explanation

Question 67 of 120

1

764
When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Whenthewingsarelevelandthewinddriftcorrectionangleisestablishedaftercompletingtheturntothe outbound heading.

  • b.
    When the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix, whichever occurs first.

  • c.
    When abeam the holding fix

Explanation

Question 68 of 120

1

765
(Refer to Figures 39 and 40.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    It signifies a localizer-only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.

  • b.
    The localizer has an additional navigation function

  • c.
    GRICEintersectionalsoservesastheFAFfortheILSapproachproceduretoHarryP.WilliamsMemorial

Explanation

Question 69 of 120

1

766
To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum indicated airspeed above 14,000 feet?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    220 knots

  • b.
    265 knots.

  • c.
    200 knots.

Explanation

Question 70 of 120

1

767
What is the definition of MEA?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.

  • b.
    The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage

  • c.
    Analtitudewhichmeetsobstacleclearancerequirements,assuresacceptablenavigationsignalcoverage, two-way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.

Explanation

Question 71 of 120

1

768
To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    230 knots.

  • b.
    200 knots

  • c.
    210 knots

Explanation

Question 72 of 120

1

769
What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later

  • b.
    Timing for the inbound leg begins when initiating the turn inbound

  • c.
    Adjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg.

Explanation

Question 73 of 120

1

770
Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    12 NM

  • b.
    22 NM.

  • c.
    25 NM

Explanation

Question 74 of 120

1

771
Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    IFR Planning Chart

  • b.
    IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart

  • c.
    IFR High Altitude En Route Chart

Explanation

Question 75 of 120

1

772
When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    At pilot’s discretion

  • b.
    Only in an emergency

  • c.
    Only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

Explanation

Question 76 of 120

1

773
(Refer to Figure 41.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing Gymme intersection is

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    6,400 feet

  • b.
    6,500 feet.

  • c.
    7,000 feet.

Explanation

Question 77 of 120

1

774
Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    MRA

  • b.
    MCA

  • c.
    MOCA.

Explanation

Question 78 of 120

1

775
Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non-mountainous area.)

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Adequate navigation signals

  • b.
    Adequate communications

  • c.
    1,000-foot obstacle clearance

Explanation

Question 79 of 120

1

776
If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    The MEA at which the fix is approached

  • b.
    The MRA at which the fix is approached

  • c.
    The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.

Explanation

Question 80 of 120

1

777
(Refer to Figure 42.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    122.1, 126.4

  • b.
    123.6, 122.65.

  • c.
    122.2, 122.3

Explanation

Question 81 of 120

1

778
How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    All fixes that are labeled IAF

  • b.
    Any fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other than the FAF or stepdown fix

  • c.
    The procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder facility ring.

Explanation

Question 82 of 120

1

779
(Refer to Figures 43 and 43A.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    15 feet

  • b.
    18 feet

  • c.
    22 feet

Explanation

Question 83 of 120

1

780
(Refer to Figure 44.) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    3,000 feet MSL

  • b.
    1,800 feet MSL.

  • c.
    1,690 feet MSL

Explanation

Question 84 of 120

1

781
When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach

  • b.
    As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

  • c.
    At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight

Explanation

Question 85 of 120

1

782
Aircraft approach categories are based on

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.

  • b.
    1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight

  • c.
    1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight

Explanation

Question 86 of 120

1

783
(Refer to Figure 45.) If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the flight would be expected to Category A aircraft Last assigned altitude 3,000 feet

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER

  • b.
    Proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart

  • c.
    Proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1.

Explanation

Question 87 of 120

1

784
If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Arrival at the DH on the glide slope

  • b.
    Arrival at the middle marker

  • c.
    Expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

Explanation

Question 88 of 120

1

785
(Refer to Figure 46.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM

  • b.
    It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured

  • c.
    ItistheminimumvectoraltitudeforradarvectorsinthesectorsoutheastofPUCbetween020°and290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR

Explanation

Question 89 of 120

1

786
(Refer to Figure 43A.) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability

  • b.
    Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available

  • c.
    Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability

Explanation

Question 90 of 120

1

787
(Refer to Figures 47 and 48.) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 27?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    A

  • b.
    B

  • c.
    C

Explanation

Question 91 of 120

1

788
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    To all pilots wherever STAR’s are available.

  • b.
    Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the “Remarks” section of the flight plan

  • c.
    When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”

Explanation

Question 92 of 120

1

789
(Refer to Figure 49.) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 2,400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    200 feet per minute.

  • b.
    400 feet per minute

  • c.
    600 feet per minute

Explanation

Question 93 of 120

1

790
(Refer to Figure 50.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Land straight in on runway 31.

  • b.
    Comply with straight-in landing minimums

  • c.
    Begin final approach without making a procedure turn

Explanation

Question 94 of 120

1

791
(Refer to Figure 51.) The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Denver VORTAC

  • b.
    Gandi outer marker

  • c.
    Denver/Stapleton International Airport

Explanation

Question 95 of 120

1

792
Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    The 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.

  • b.
    A radius of 5 miles from the holding fix.

  • c.
    10 knots of the specified holding speed

Explanation

Question 96 of 120

1

793
Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.

  • b.
    Use Category B minim ums

  • c.
    Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches

Explanation

Question 97 of 120

1

794
When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    180 knots IAS

  • b.
    200 knots IAS

  • c.
    250 knots IAS

Explanation

Question 98 of 120

1

795
What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Take off minimums are 1 mile for aircraf thavingtwo engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines

  • b.
    Instrument takeoffs are not authorized

  • c.
    Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

Explanation

Question 99 of 120

1

796
When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    On tower frequency

  • b.
    On approach control frequency

  • c.
    One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency

Explanation

Question 100 of 120

1

797
When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Astraight-inlanding may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle to land on the runway.

  • b.
    The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.

  • c.
    Astraight-inlanding may be made if the pilot has the runway insight insufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

Explanation

Question 101 of 120

1

798
What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    A procedure turn is not authorized.

  • b.
    Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized

  • c.
    Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.

Explanation

Question 102 of 120

1

799
(Refer to Figure 43A.) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed.)

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    425 feet per minute

  • b.
    530 feet per minute.

  • c.
    635 feet per minute

Explanation

Question 103 of 120

1

800
Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches.

  • b.
    Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure

  • c.
    Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF

Explanation

Question 104 of 120

1

801
(Refer to Figure 52.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    70 feet MSL

  • b.
    54 feet MSL.

  • c.
    46 feet MSL

Explanation

Question 105 of 120

1

802
(Refer to Figure 53.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    363 feet MSL

  • b.
    365 feet MSL.

  • c.
    396 feet MSL

Explanation

Question 106 of 120

1

803
What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope

  • b.
    The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.

  • c.
    The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.

Explanation

Question 107 of 120

1

804
(Refer to Figure 53) Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    415 feet per minute

  • b.
    480 feet per minute

  • c.
    555 feet per minute

Explanation

Question 108 of 120

1

805
(Refer to Figure 54.) With a ground speed of 120 knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent will be required between I-GPO 7 DME fix (ROBOT) and the I-GPO 4 DME fix?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    1,200 fpm

  • b.
    500 fpm.

  • c.
    800 fpm.

Explanation

Question 109 of 120

1

806
What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions

  • b.
    You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions

  • c.
    You must have the airport insight or a preceding aircraft to be followed ,and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

Explanation

Question 110 of 120

1

807
Assume this clearance is received: “CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.” When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

  • b.
    Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix

  • c.
    After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right.

Explanation

Question 111 of 120

1

808
(Refer to Figure 55.) What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure turn at LABER?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    4 DME miles from LABER.

  • b.
    10 DME miles from the MAP

  • c.
    12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC.

Explanation

Question 112 of 120

1

809
(Refer to Figure 54.) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    5,957 feet.

  • b.
    7,000 feet

  • c.
    7,900 feet.

Explanation

Question 113 of 120

1

810
If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet

  • b.
    As an RVR of 2,400 feet

  • c.
    As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

Explanation

Question 114 of 120

1

811
(Refer to Figure 56.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF

  • b.
    When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.

  • c.
    After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.

Explanation

Question 115 of 120

1

812
Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Parallel ILS approach runway center lines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR separation is provided on the adjacent runway

  • b.
    Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course

  • c.
    Landing minimums to the adjacent runway willbe higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.

Explanation

Question 116 of 120

1

813
The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility

  • b.
    RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system

  • c.
    RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

Explanation

Question 117 of 120

1

814
If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver

  • b.
    Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures

  • c.
    Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first

Explanation

Question 118 of 120

1

815
(Refer to Figure 54.) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer.

  • b.
    CREAK outbound

  • c.
    intercepting the glide slope.

Explanation

Question 119 of 120

1

816
(Refer to Figure 57.) If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,000 feet commence?

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    As soon as intercepting LOC inbound

  • b.
    Immediately

  • c.
    Only at the point authorized by ATC

Explanation

Question 120 of 120

1

817
If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is

Select one of the following:

  • a.
    Required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure

  • b.
    Permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.

  • c.
    Permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway

Explanation

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