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Techniques in the Clinical Laboratory

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Detection and Identification of Microorganisms

Detection and Identification of Microorganisms

Question 1 of 33

1

In an outbreak situation molecular epidemiology is used to______

Select one of the following:

  • ascertain whether the isolates have a common or independent source.

  • ascertain whether the isolates have a evolved from control specimens

  • identify novel SNP

Explanation

Question 2 of 33

1

In molecular testing of microorganisms what are the analyses?

Select one of the following:

  • genome, transcriptome, proteome

  • genome, transcriptome, antibodies

  • lipids, transcriptome, proteome

  • sugars, lipids, amino acids

Explanation

Question 3 of 33

1

Match an organism with a resistance gene target.

Select one of the following:

  • Staphylococcus aureus mecA; Enterococcus: vanA, vanB, and vanC; M.tuberculosis: katG, inhA

  • Staphylococcus aureus vanA, vanB, and vanC; Enterococcus: mecA; M.tuberculosis: katG, inhA

  • Staphylococcus aureus vanA, vanB, and vanC; Enterococcus: katG, inhA; M.tuberculosis: mecA

  • Staphylococcus aureus katG, inhA ; Enterococcus: vanA, vanB, and vanC; M.tuberculosis: mecA

Explanation

Question 4 of 33

1

What are the primary molecular methods used in clinical microbiology laboratory?

Select one of the following:

  • PCR, real time PCR, reverse transcriptase PCR, pulsed field gel electrophoresis (PFGE)

  • PCR, real time PCR, reverse transcriptase PCR,

  • PCR, real time PCR, reverse transcriptase PCR, sequencing,

  • Bisulfite sequencing, PCR, real time PCR, reverse transcriptase PCR, Bisulfite sequencing,

Explanation

Question 5 of 33

1

Which of the following organisms is bardes to lyse?

Select one of the following:

  • Mycobacteria and fungi

  • Parasites and Bacteria

  • Parasites and Mycoplasma

  • Fungi and Mycoplasma

Explanation

Question 6 of 33

1

Removal of RNases is essential for analysis of with of the following targets?

Select one of the following:

  • RNA

  • DNA

  • Proteins

  • Ribosomes

  • Centromere

Explanation

Question 7 of 33

1

Which of the following PCR inhibitors is present in the sputum?

Select one of the following:

  • Acidic polysaccharides

  • Hemoglobin

  • Heparin

  • Amino acids

  • Aluminum

Explanation

Question 8 of 33

1

It is easier to isolate nucleic acid form the stool the the plasma.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 9 of 33

1

In a PCR procedure a sensitivity control is used to show____

Select one of the following:

  • lower level of detection

  • lack of contamination

  • quantity of positive product

  • lack of inhibition

Explanation

Question 10 of 33

1

B. pertussis and B. parapertussis target genes are IS481 and IS1001.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 11 of 33

1

Which of the following is a genotypic method for typing organisms?

Select one of the following:

  • Antibiogram patterns

  • Pulsed field gel electrophoresis

  • Serotyping

  • Bacteriophage typing

Explanation

Question 12 of 33

1

Pulsed field gel electrophoresis has been performed on two isolates of Escherichia coli that have been isolated from the blood of newborns in the same neonatal unit. The banding pattern of the two isolates differed by two bands. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of these results?

Select one of the following:

  • The isolates are indistinguishable.

  • The isolates are closely related.

  • The isolates are possibly related.

  • The isolates are different.

Explanation

Question 13 of 33

1

Define Epidemic

Select one of the following:

  • rapidly spreading outbreak of an infectious disease

  • a disease that sweeps across wide geographical areas

  • collection and analysis of environmental, microbiological, and clinical data

Explanation

Question 14 of 33

1

Define Pandemic

Select one of the following:

  • a disease that sweeps across wide geographical areas

  • rapidly spreading outbreak of an infectious disease

  • collection and analysis of environmental, microbiological, and clinical data

Explanation

Question 15 of 33

1

Define Epidemiology

Select one of the following:

  • collection and analysis of environmental, microbiological, and clinical data

  • a disease that sweeps across wide geographical areas

  • rapidly spreading outbreak of an infectious disease

Explanation

Question 16 of 33

1

Primary resistance mutations _______

Select one of the following:

  • affect drug sensitivity but may slow viral growth

  • increase drug sensitivity

  • increase drug uptake

Explanation

Question 17 of 33

1

Secondary-resistance mutations ______

Select one of the following:

  • compensate for the primary-resistance growth defects

  • do not compensate for the primary-resistance growth defects

  • cancel primary-resistance growth defects

Explanation

Question 18 of 33

1

Which of the following is the molecular target for most epidemiological investigations of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Select one of the following:

  • katG

  • inhA

  • IS6110

  • IS481

Explanation

Question 19 of 33

1

Which of the following typing methods has high typing capacity, discriminatory power, reproducibility, and moderate ease of use?

Select one of the following:

  • Plasmid analysis

  • Ribotyping

  • PCR-RFLP

  • PFGE

Explanation

Question 20 of 33

1

DNA is isolated from a test organism and cut with restriction enzymes. The fragments are ligated to adapters that are complementary to primers that are added to perform a PCR. In a second PCR, selective primers are used to amplify some of the amplicons produced in the first PCR. Finally, the products of the second PCR are separated by gel electrophoresis and analyzed. Which of the following methods was described?

Select one of the following:

  • Restriction fragment length polymorphism

  • Amplified fragment length polymorphism

  • Pulsed field gel electrophoresis

  • Arbitrarily primed PCR

Explanation

Question 21 of 33

1

In the interpretation of pulsed field gel electrophoresis patterns, what is the maximum number of bands that can differ between two organisms before those organisms are determined to be different?

Select one of the following:

  • 2

  • 3

  • 5

  • 7

Explanation

Question 22 of 33

1

A PCR assay that uses short primers that amplify random sequences found throughout the genome of the test organism is what variation of PCR?

Select one of the following:

  • Arbitrarily primed

  • Amplified fragment length polymorphism

  • Repetitive extragenic palindromic

  • Enterobacterial repetitive intergenic consensus

Explanation

Question 23 of 33

1

The ability of a typing method to distinguish between unrelated strains is which of the following criteria?

Select one of the following:

  • Typing capacity

  • Discriminatory power

  • Reproducibility

  • Ease of interpretation

Explanation

Question 24 of 33

1

When a typing method is repeated and the results are the same each time, the method has high:

Select one of the following:

  • ease of test performance

  • discriminatory power

  • typing capacity

  • reproducibility

Explanation

Question 25 of 33

1

Which of the following genes is a target in molecular-based assays and confers resistance to vancomycin in the enterococci?

Select one of the following:

  • inhA

  • mecA

  • vanA

  • gyrA

Explanation

Question 26 of 33

1

A PCR assay on DNA isolated from a nasopharyngeal swab was performed with the following results: amplification using primers to IS481 was positive and using primers to IS1001 was negative. All controls were acceptable. Which of the following organisms was present in this sample?

Select one of the following:

  • Bordetella pertussis

  • Bordetella parapertussis

  • Bordetella holmesii

  • Legionella pneumophila

Explanation

Question 27 of 33

1

A PCR assay using primers specific for the autolysin (lytA) gene was performed on a sputum specimen from a 10-year-old girl. The specimen was positive, and all controls were acceptable. Which of the following is the best interpretation of these results?

Select one of the following:

  • Definitive diagnosis of Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae is present but clinical significance questionable

  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis detected and girl should be isolated

  • Patient has Chlamydophila pneumoniae pneumonia

Explanation

Question 28 of 33

1

Which of the following molecular-based assay and detected organism combinations has been FDA-approved?

Select one of the following:

  • NASBA for hepatitis C virus

  • TMA for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

  • Hybridization protection assay for group A streptococci

  • Sequencing for Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Explanation

Question 29 of 33

1

PCR with RFLP analysis and reverse hybridization of the 5′ untranslated region of hepatitis C virus is the principle of which of the following commercial assays?

Select one of the following:

  • TRUGENE

  • Cleavase fragment length polymorphism

  • Amplicor HCV

  • Inno-LiPA

Explanation

Question 30 of 33

1

HIV genotyping is performed for which of the following reasons?

Select one of the following:

  • Monitor development of antiretroviral drug resistance

  • Confirmation of HIV infection

  • Quantitate amount of HIV in the patient

  • Determine source of HIV

Explanation

Question 31 of 33

1

Which of the following genes is the target in molecular-based assays that are used to quantitate the amount of HIV in a patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Protease

  • gag

  • Hemaglutinin

  • ctx-m

Explanation

Question 32 of 33

1

Which of the following molecular-based assays is FDA-approved for the detection of human papillomavirus in endocervical specimens?

Select one of the following:

  • qPCR

  • NASBA

  • TMA

  • Hybrid capture

Explanation

Question 33 of 33

1

Which of the following organisms was one of the first targets for the development and implementation of molecular-based assays used for direct detection of the organism in a clinical specimen?

Select one of the following:

  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae

  • Treponema pallidum

  • Chlamydia trachomatis

  • Legionella pneumophila

Explanation

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