Jasmine Boudreau
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Jasmine Boudreau
Created by Jasmine Boudreau over 7 years ago
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Human Nutrition Final Exam

Question 1 of 106

1

This course will be delivered using a modified type of ___

Select one of the following:

  • Problem Based Learning (PBL)

  • Team Based Learning (TBL)

  • Case Based Learning (CBL)

  • Flexible Based Learning (FBL)

Explanation

Question 2 of 106

1

There are ___ tRATs in this course. A tRAT is a ____

Select one of the following:

  • 10; team Readiness Assurance Test

  • 11; team Ready Answer Test

  • 12; team Readiness Assurance Test

  • lots of; rodents

Explanation

Question 3 of 106

1

Which component of the course do students have to pass to pass this course?

Select one of the following:

  • Both peer evalutations

  • the total iRAT (quiz) scores

  • the team assignments

  • iRATs

  • the final exam

Explanation

Question 4 of 106

1

the 'test drive a diet' project in this course requires students to

Select one of the following:

  • attain a healthier weight

  • help someone else lose weight

  • try a scientific or environmental diet

  • help someone else eat a healthier diet

Explanation

Question 5 of 106

1

a processed food is defined as a food that

Select one of the following:

  • has more than 5 ingredients

  • requires heating or cooking before it can be eaten

  • has had preservatives added

  • has been treated or changed from its natural state

Explanation

Question 6 of 106

1

an essential nutrient is required for health

Select one of the following:

  • and can be manufactured in the body from other constituents

  • but should be consumed within a narrow range of amounts

  • and can be acquired by either ingestion or made in the body

  • of trolls or they will become nasty

  • and must be acquired via ingestion

Explanation

Question 7 of 106

1

a food contains 10 g each of carbohydrate, protein, and lipid. How many kcal does it contain?

Select one of the following:

  • 145 kcal

  • 170 kcal

  • 200 kcal

  • 230 kcal

Explanation

Question 8 of 106

1

nutrient density refers to ________ ; ______ is a more nutrient dense food than _____.

Select one of the following:

  • the amount of energy per weight of a food; a potato, carrot

  • the amount of nutrients per energy in a food; broccoli, bread

  • the amount of nutrients per energy in a food; bread, kale

  • the amount of energy per volume of food; kale, rice

Explanation

Question 9 of 106

1

metabolic processes take place in the body to maintain a steady body temperature, heart rate, and blood glucose level. this stable state is called

Select one of the following:

  • homeostasis

  • an anabolic process

  • a catabolic process

  • metabolism

Explanation

Question 10 of 106

1

the instrument used to measure the energy in a food is a _____. contrary to the results from this test, people usually derive a lot more energy from _____ than from ________.

Select one of the following:

  • kjeldahl; protein, carb

  • kjeldahl; carb, protein

  • HPLC; carb, protein

  • bomb calorimeter; carb, protein

  • bomb calorimeter; protein, carb

Explanation

Question 11 of 106

1

if your daily intake of a vitamin dies not meet RDA

Select one of the following:

  • you necessarily have a poor diet

  • you are safe if you meet at least hafl the RDA

  • you may not be meeting your needs

  • this is of no consequences; the RDAs are designed for groups

Explanation

Question 12 of 106

1

which of he following values is the term used to described the average daily energy intake that is predicted to maintain energy balance in healthy adults?

Select one of the following:

  • EER

  • EAR

  • AI

  • UL

  • RDA

Explanation

Question 13 of 106

1

in Canada's Food Guide, how are dietary fats classified?

Select one of the following:

  • as part of the meat and alternatives group

  • as part as the grain products group

  • not as a food group, although recommendations are made for types and amounts

  • as an individual food group

Explanation

Question 14 of 106

1

for a 30-year old woman, Canada's Food Guide recommends _____ servings from the vegetables and fruit group each day

Select one of the following:

  • 9-11

  • 8-10

  • 6-7

  • 7-10

  • 7-8

Explanation

Question 15 of 106

1

orange juice is an excellent source of vitamin C, a dietary antioxidant. which statement best describes this claim?

Select one of the following:

  • it is a combined nutrient content claim and therapeutic claim

  • it is a combined nutrient content and nutrient function claim

  • it is a combined nutrient content claim and a disease risk reduction claim

  • it is a nutrient function claim only

Explanation

Question 16 of 106

1

the order in which ingredients are listed on a food label is determined on the basis of

Select one of the following:

  • nutritional value

  • alphabetical order

  • contribution to total weight

  • contribution to total volume

Explanation

Question 17 of 106

1

the AMDR for carbohydrate ranges from

Select one of the following:

  • 20-35%

  • 10-35%

  • 5-10%

  • 45-65%

  • 66.6-97.8%

Explanation

Question 18 of 106

1

Dr. Yoni Freedhoff wants Health Canada to change the recommendation in Canada's Food Guide that half of grain products eaten each day be whole grain, with a recommendation that only whole grains be consumed. What is the basis for the current recommendation?

Select one of the following:

  • white but not whole wheat flour is fortified with folate

  • guidelines were based on what people already eat

  • the grain producers' lobby advocated for that

  • there is to much fiber in 100% whole grains

Explanation

Question 19 of 106

1

see question 10 in RAT 2.

Select one or more of the following:

  • correct answer is E

  • answer is not D.

Explanation

Question 20 of 106

1

which process would be affected by a diseased gallbladder?

Select one of the following:

  • fat digestion

  • chyme formation

  • carbohydrate buffering

  • regulation of blood glucose levels

  • amino acid deamination

Explanation

Question 21 of 106

1

most fat-soluble nutrients are absorbed into the

Select one of the following:

  • vascular system

  • neurological system

  • adrenal system

  • lymphatic system

  • transit system

Explanation

Question 22 of 106

1

the sections of the small intestine, in proximal to distal order are:

Select one of the following:

  • duodenum, ileum, jujunum

  • duodenum, jejunum, ileum

  • jejunum, ileum, duodenum

  • duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum

  • ileum, duodenum, jejunum, cecum

Explanation

Question 23 of 106

1

the stomach wall is protected from the acidity of the gastric juice by

Select one of the following:

  • the bacteria Helicobacter pylori

  • the hormone gastrin

  • the enzyme pepsin

  • Chief cells

  • a viscous mucus layer

Explanation

Question 24 of 106

1

what is it called when nutrients essential to life are provided directly into the bloodstream?

Select one of the following:

  • total parental nutrition

  • enteral feeding

  • tube-feeding

  • force feeding

  • gastric bypass

Explanation

Question 25 of 106

1

which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

  • heartburn results from occasional reflux of gastric material through the pyloric sphincter

  • GERD results from occasional reflux of gastric material through the gastro-esophageal sphincter.

  • GERD results from chronic reflux of gastric material through the pyloric sphincter

  • heartburn results from an occasional reflux of gastric material through the gastro-esophageal sphincter

Explanation

Question 26 of 106

1

the pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which contains digestive enzymes and

Select one of the following:

  • bile

  • cholecystokinin (CCK)

  • chyme

  • bicarbonate ions

  • intrinsic factor

Explanation

Question 27 of 106

1

the most common cause of ulcers is

Select one of the following:

  • stress

  • eating fatty foods

  • the pain reliever Tylenol

  • spicy food

  • Helicobacter pylori infection

Explanation

Question 28 of 106

1

which of the following is NOT one of the main processes that allow nutrients to be absorbed from the GI tract into circulation?

Select one of the following:

  • passive diffusion

  • facilitated diffution

  • active diffusion

  • active transport

Explanation

Question 29 of 106

1

gastric lipase is an enzyme that is produced in the stomach to

Select one of the following:

  • stimulate CCK and intrinsic factor

  • to stimulate secretion of gastric juices

  • break down carbs

  • break down fats

  • break down protein

Explanation

Question 30 of 106

1

which one of the following meals is likely to stay in the stomach the longest?

Select one of the following:

  • grilled chicken breast, mashed potato made with milk, green beans, skim milk

  • cheeseburger, small soft drink, ice cream

  • tuna sandwich on whole wheat, pickle, ice tea

  • rice krispies, skim milk, blueberries, coffee

  • squash soup with bread, coffee with soy milk and honey

Explanation

Question 31 of 106

1

Stella consumes 2400 kcal/day, with half of the kcal from carbohydrates. About how many grams of carbohydrate does she consume per day?

Select one of the following:

  • 1200

  • 4800

  • 450

  • 400

  • 300

Explanation

Question 32 of 106

1

what is the composition of sucrose?

Select one of the following:

  • two molecules of glucose

  • two molecules of frucose

  • many molecules of glucose linked together

  • one molecule of fructose and one molecule of glucose

Explanation

Question 33 of 106

1

which of the following sequences represent a monosaccharide followed by a disaccharide followed by a polysaccharide?

Select one of the following:

  • fructose, sucrose, starch

  • glucose, maltose, lactose

  • galactose, glycogen, starch

  • lactose, glucose, dietary fibre

  • sucrose, lactose, glycogen

Explanation

Question 34 of 106

1

when carbohydrates are not available, the body goes through a processes called _____ to synthesize glucose from non-carbohydrate substances

Select one of the following:

  • gluconeogenesis

  • glycogenolysis

  • glucogenolysis

  • ketosis

  • glycogen anabolism

Explanation

Question 35 of 106

1

when carbohydrates have not been consumed in a few hours, the body response by secreting ____ from the ____ to stimulate the breakdown of liver glycogen to increase blood glucose.

Select one of the following:

  • insulin, glycogen

  • glucagon, pancreas

  • insulin, pancreas

  • epinephrine, adrenal glands

Explanation

Question 36 of 106

1

____ is the storage form of carbohydrates in animals and ____ is the storage form of carbohydrates in plants.

Select one of the following:

  • starch; glycogen

  • fiber; oligosaccharide

  • oligosaccharide; fibre

  • amylopectin; amylose

  • glycogen; starch

Explanation

Question 37 of 106

1

dietary fibre is categorized by

Select one of the following:

  • its ability or inability to dissolve in water

  • its molecular weight

  • the number of branch points

  • the ratio of carbon to hydrogen molecules

  • the helix shape of the molecule

Explanation

Question 38 of 106

1

which of the following statements is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

  • the rate of digestion and absorption of low-glycemic foods is slower then high-glycemic foods

  • foods that have a glycemic index of 70 or less compared to glucose are considered high-glycemic-index foods

  • the processing of a food has no effect on its glycemic index

  • high-fibre and low-glycemic-index foods have exactly the same physiological properties

Explanation

Question 39 of 106

1

lactose intolerance is caused by

Select one of the following:

  • excess production of the enzyme lactase

  • an allergic reaction to proteins found in milk and milk products

  • the inability to produce the hormone insulin

  • insufficient amylase in their small intestine

  • inadequate production of the enzyme lactase

Explanation

Question 40 of 106

1

a well-documented health problem(s) associated with excess sugar intake in children is

Select one of the following:

  • type 1 diabietes

  • dental caries

  • diventicular disease

  • hyperactivity

  • B and D

Explanation

Question 41 of 106

1

which of the following statements about indigestible carbohydrates is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

  • they are not broken down until they reach the colon

  • the contribute more kcal than simple carbohydrates

  • they are a good source of prebiotics for microflora in the GI tract

  • they are not part of a high-fibre diet

Explanation

Question 42 of 106

1

the daily value for dietary fibre is 25 g in a 2000 kcal diet. a slice of whole-wheat bread is 8% of the daily value. the slice of whole-wheat bread contains how much fibre?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 g

  • 4 g

  • 8 g

  • 16 h

Explanation

Question 43 of 106

1

which one of the following components is NOT part of an amino acid?

Select one of the following:

  • an amino group

  • a phosphate group

  • an acid group

  • an R group or side chain (functional group_

  • an alpha-carbon

Explanation

Question 44 of 106

1

server PEM in adults can result in _____ and be caused by _____

Select one of the following:

  • kwashiorkor; AIDS

  • diabetes; AIDS

  • kwashiorkor; alcoholsim

  • anorexia nervosa; alcoholism

  • marasmus; alcoholism

Explanation

Question 45 of 106

1

describe a complete dietary protein

Select one of the following:

  • it does NOT contain the element sulphur

  • it has been hydrolyzed so that digestion is not necessary

  • it provides essential AA in the proportion needed to support protein synthesis

  • it has a low biological value

Explanation

Question 46 of 106

1

what happens when a protein is heated? when the heat is removed, it CAN/CANNOT retuned to its original shape

Select one of the following:

  • transamination; can

  • deamination; can

  • denaturation; cannot

  • deamination; cannot

  • denaturation; can

Explanation

Question 47 of 106

1

what is the AA pool?

Select one of the following:

  • AA present in body tissues and fluids that are available for protein synthesis

  • AA which are soluble in bodily fluids

  • AA used by the body for energy

  • AA that the body cannot synthesize and must be supplied by the diet

Explanation

Question 48 of 106

1

which statement describes a situation with positive nitrogen balance?

Select one of the following:

  • an individual is wasting as a result of protein-energy malnutrition

  • an individual is growing

  • protein intake does not meet the body's protein requirements

  • total body nitrogen balance does not change for 30 days

Explanation

Question 49 of 106

1

what is the RDA for protein for typical, moderately active adults in their 20's?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.5 g/kg body weight

  • 0.8 g/kg body weight

  • 1.5 g/kg body weight

  • 0.5 g/day

  • 0.8 g/day

Explanation

Question 50 of 106

1

what is a consequence of protein complementation?

Select one of the following:

  • all AA requirements are met

  • there is a decrease in biological value of a protein

  • AA requirements are more likely to be met in vegetarians

  • there is an increase in the nitrogen value of a protein

  • excretion of nitrogen in the urine increases

Explanation

Question 51 of 106

1

which AA are essential in the diet, but only under certain conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • conditionally essential AA

  • dispensable AA

  • polypeptides

  • dipeptides

  • branched chain

Explanation

Question 52 of 106

1

vegetarians have a lower risk of developing which medical condition?

Select one of the following:

  • diabetes mellitus

  • cardiovasuclar disease

  • high blood pressure

  • colorectal cancer

  • all the above are correct

Explanation

Question 53 of 106

1

what happens when excess energy is ingested?

Select one of the following:

  • it is excreted in the urine

  • it is converted into triglycerides and stored in adipose tissue

  • it is converted into cholesterol and stored in adipose tissue

  • it is a metabolized by the muscles and stored as ATP

  • less of it is absorbed by the mucosal cells

Explanation

Question 54 of 106

1

which is a characteristic of chylomicrons?

Select one of the following:

  • they transport lipids from the epithelial cells of the villi to other body cells

  • the are absorbed into the lymphatic system

  • they are all the largest lipoproteins formed in the body

  • all of the above answer choices are correct

  • none of the above answer choices are correct

Explanation

Question 55 of 106

1

choose the incorrect statement

Select one of the following:

  • most of the fat in our body is stored in the form of triglycerides

  • sterols are lipids containing a single ring structure

  • phospholipids aid in transporting fats in our bloodstream

  • in the small intestines, plant sterols block dietary cholesterol absorption

Explanation

Question 56 of 106

1

trans fatty acids are most abundant in what food product today?

Select one of the following:

  • partially hydrogenated oils

  • meat

  • canola oil

  • tub margrine

  • milk

Explanation

Question 57 of 106

1

what allows fat and water to mix by breaking large fat globules into smaller ones?

Select one of the following:

  • emulsifiers

  • cis fatty acids

  • eicosanoids

  • trans fatty acids

  • micelles

Explanation

Question 58 of 106

1

arrange the following lipid-containing compounds from largest to smallest:
(1)VLDL, (2) LDL, (3) HDL

Select one of the following:

  • 2, 1, 3

  • 1, 2, 3

  • 2, 3, 1

  • 3, 2, 1

  • 1, 3, 2

Explanation

Question 59 of 106

1

from what are bile, vitamin D, and some hormones such as testosterone and estrogen derived?

Select one of the following:

  • essential fatty acids

  • trans fatty acids

  • phospholipids

  • eicosanoids

  • cholesterol

Explanation

Question 60 of 106

1

which of the following statements is true about EPA and DHA?

Select one of the following:

  • they are long chain fatty acids with 3 and 4 double bonds, respectively

  • we can make enough of both EPA and DHA from ALA (alpha-linolenic acid)

  • they are both considered to be medium chain fatty acids

  • people with obesity can decrease the fat in their livers by supplementing with DHA and EPA

  • dietary DHA is correlated with lower HLD levels in the blood

Explanation

Question 61 of 106

1

RAT 6, question 9: picture of a lipid. know how to count the carbons properly;
the upper (right) end is

Select one of the following:

  • a methyl group and is hydrophobic

  • is a carboxyl group and is hydrophilic

  • a methyl group and is hydrophilic

  • a carboxyl group and is hydrophobic

  • trans because the oxygens oppose each other

Explanation

Question 62 of 106

1

the above picture represents (RAT6, Q9):

Select one of the following:

  • an essential lipid; the double bond occurs before the ninth omega carbon

  • a non-essential lipid; the double bone occurs after the ninth omega carbon

  • a non-essential lipid; the double bond occurs before the ninth omega carbon

  • an essential lipid; the double bond occurs after the night omega carbon

Explanation

Question 63 of 106

1

what is the effect of a decrease in the ability of LDL receptors to bind to LDLs?

Select one of the following:

  • an increase of LDL loss in the urine

  • increased HDLs levels in the blood

  • an increased risk of atherosclerosis

  • increased chylomicrons levels in the blood

Explanation

Question 64 of 106

1

a factor that can result in increased body weight as people age is

Select one of the following:

  • a decrease in BMR

  • a decrease in food intake

  • an increase in exercise

  • an increase in BMR

Explanation

Question 65 of 106

1

what is the total energy content of an energy bar that contains 5 grams of fat, 30 grams of carbs, and 10 grams of protein?

Select one of the following:

  • 195 kcal

  • 205 kcal

  • 210 kcal

  • 255 kcal

  • 286 kcal

Explanation

Question 66 of 106

1

which of the following methods divides body composition into three components?

Select one of the following:

  • the bod pod

  • underwater wighing

  • bioelectrical impedance

  • BMI

  • DXA

Explanation

Question 67 of 106

1

dietary fat has a lower metabolic cost than protein. what does this mean?

Select one of the following:

  • it requires more energy to oxidize or store dietary fat than protein

  • fat metabolism generates more toxic metabolic waste than protein

  • fat metabolism generates less toxic metabolic wastes than protein metabolism

  • high protein foods are more expensive than high fat foods to buy

  • it requires less energy to oxidize and store dietary fat than protein

Explanation

Question 68 of 106

1

resting energy expenditure (REE) involves all of the following body functions except:

Select one of the following:

  • digestion

  • breathing

  • growth and repair of tissue

  • snoring

Explanation

Question 69 of 106

1

____ % of adults in Nova Scotia is considered to be overweight or obese, which is (lower/higher/the same as_ the Canadian average

Select one of the following:

  • 25-29, lower

  • 33-40, the same as

  • 51-55, the same as

  • 51-55, higher

  • 59-65, higher

Explanation

Question 70 of 106

1

for a typical, moderately-active young adult, rank the components of energy expenditure from greatest amount

Select one of the following:

  • REE, physical activity, thermic effect of food

  • REE, thermic effect of food, physical activity

  • thermic effect of food, physical activity, REE

  • physical activity, thermic effect of food, REE

  • physical activity, REE, thermic effect of food

Explanation

Question 71 of 106

1

an adult with a BMI of 22 would be considered to be

Select one of the following:

  • underweight

  • overweight

  • of healthy weight

  • obese

Explanation

Question 72 of 106

1

which statement best describes fat and car metabolism in the fasting state?

Select one of the following:

  • there is no carb metabolism in the fasting state; instead adipose tissue releases fatty acids and ketone bodies as sources of energy

  • muscle proteins and glycogen are converted to fatty acids; adipose tissue converts glycerol into glucose

  • muscle proteins and glycogen are converted to glucose; adipose tissue releases fatty acids into the blood.

  • muscle proteins are converted to glucose, while glycogen remains in the liver, unmetabolized. adipose tissue releases fatty acids.

Explanation

Question 73 of 106

1

which of the following behaviour results in lower food intake in North America?

Select one of the following:

  • keeping the thermostat lower in winter months

  • larger plates

  • playing video games while eating

  • less sleep

  • using chop sticks instead of a fork

Explanation

Question 74 of 106

1

some vitamins are lost in grain processing. which nutrient is removed during processing of flour and typically is NOT added during 'enrichment'?

Select one of the following:

  • vitamin B6

  • thiamin

  • folic acid

  • niacin

  • riboflavin

Explanation

Question 75 of 106

1

many B vitamins are essential for the metabolism of energy-yielding nutrients. they perform this function by binding to and promoting the activity of enzymes. in this role, B vitamins act as

Select one of the following:

  • provitamins

  • transport proteins

  • hormones

  • coenzymes

  • previtamins

Explanation

Question 76 of 106

1

which one of the following nutrients can be converted into niacin and prevent pellagra?

Select one of the following:

  • vitamin B6

  • tryptophan

  • thiamin

  • vitamin B12

  • homocysteine

Explanation

Question 77 of 106

1

scurvy is caused by

Select one of the following:

  • a lack of the proviamin for vitamin C

  • a protein-vitamin C deficiency

  • taking long cruises

  • a lack of sunshine

  • a lack of vitamin C

Explanation

Question 78 of 106

1

vitamin E would be most plentiful in which three types of food?

Select one of the following:

  • nuts, oils, and seeds

  • fruit, dairy, and vegetables

  • meat, fats, and fruit

  • milk, meat, and grains

Explanation

Question 79 of 106

1

which of the following is not a good source of vitamin B12?

Select one of the following:

  • oysters

  • beef liver

  • milk

  • Wendy's bacon cheeseburger

  • lentils

Explanation

Question 80 of 106

1

which form of vitamin D comes from animal sources and is also made in our bodies?

Select one of the following:

  • D2 = cholecalciferol

  • D2 = ergocalciferol

  • D3 = Ergocalciferol

  • D3 = Cholecalciferol

Explanation

Question 81 of 106

1

an elevation in homocysteine has been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. in clinical studies, which vitamins have been shown to decrease levels of homocysteine in the blood?

Select one of the following:

  • vitamin A, vitamin E, and vitamin C

  • riboflavin, vitamin A, and folate

  • niacin, riboflavin, and thiamine

  • vitamin D, vitamin A, and vitamin B6

  • vitamin B6, folate, and vitamin B12

Explanation

Question 82 of 106

1

since vitamin A and carotenoids are bound to proteins in foods, which enzyme is required for absorption?

Select one of the following:

  • bile

  • amylase

  • pepsin

  • lactoase

Explanation

Question 83 of 106

1

the intake of ____ and _____ reduce the risk of macular degeneration

Select one of the following:

  • beta-carotene; lycopene

  • alpha-carotene; beta-cryptoxanthin

  • lycopene; alpha-carotene

  • lutein; zeaxanthin

Explanation

Question 84 of 106

1

why does long term use of antibiotics increase the risk of vitamin k deficiency?

Select one of the following:

  • antibiotics interfere directly with absorption of the vitamin

  • antibiotics prevent vitamin k from functioning properly

  • antibiotics change the bacterial flora in the gut, decreasing vitamin k production

  • antibiotics enhance the absorption of other vitamins which compete with vitamin k for absorption

Explanation

Question 85 of 106

1

which statement describes the relationship of bone calcium to blood calcium?

Select one of the following:

  • if dietary calcium is low, both blood and bone levels will decline

  • if dietary calcium is low, bone calcium is sacrifice to maintain blood calcium

  • if dietary calcium is low, blood calcium is sacrificied to maintain bone calcium

  • blood levels of calcium are a good indiciator of of the calcium status of bone

Explanation

Question 86 of 106

1

the mineral MOST associated with wound healing is:

Select one of the following:

  • calcium

  • iron

  • cobalt

  • magnesium

  • zinc

Explanation

Question 87 of 106

1

which is NOT a major function of magnesium in the body?

Select one of the following:

  • maintenance of bones

  • cofactor for several hundred enzymes

  • blood clotting

  • division of growing cells

Explanation

Question 88 of 106

1

which statement about the processing of foods is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

  • processing destroys minerals

  • as the structure of foods is broken down, sodium is lost from processed foods

  • the processing of grains causes the loss of magnesium, selenium, and zinc

  • potassium is often added during food processing

Explanation

Question 89 of 106

1

spinach contains notable amounts of calcium and _____. the latter constituent ____ absorption of calcium

Select one of the following:

  • oxalate; decreases

  • phytate; increases

  • oxalate; increases

  • phytate; decreases

Explanation

Question 90 of 106

1

iron is a component of the protein, _____, which binds and transports oxygen in the blood stream

Select one of the following:

  • ferritin

  • hemoglobin

  • hematocrit

  • hemosiderin

  • transferrin

Explanation

Question 91 of 106

1

iodine deficiency during pregnancy may cause ____ in the infant

Select one of the following:

  • diabetes

  • cretinism

  • fetal goiter syndrome

  • hypoglycemia

  • sickle cell disease

Explanation

Question 92 of 106

1

which food combination would yield more iron absorption?

Select one of the following:

  • peanut-butter on brown bread with glass of milk

  • bran cereal with fortified soy milk

  • vegetable beef soup with a tomato base

  • a high-fibre english muffin with cup of green tea

  • a spinach salad

Explanation

Question 93 of 106

1

what substance in whole grains and cereals can bind with minerals and render them unabsorbable?

Select one of the following:

  • phytate

  • cellulose

  • tryptophan

  • oxalate

  • amylopectin

Explanation

Question 94 of 106

1

too much fluoride in the body can cause

Select one of the following:

  • arthritis

  • diarrhea

  • hives and dermatitis

  • microcytic anemia

  • mottled teeth

Explanation

Question 95 of 106

1

the level of calcium in the blood is maintained within a narrow limit by two hormones; _____ lowers blood calcium and ____ raised blood calcium

Select one of the following:

  • parathyroid hormone (PTH); calcitonin

  • aldosterone; thyroid stimulating hormone

  • calcitonin; aldosterone

  • calcitonin; PTH

  • thyroid stimulating hormone; calcitonin

Explanation

Question 96 of 106

1

if a food contains 135 mg of sodium per serving, the company can claim on the food label that the food is

Select one of the following:

  • no claim can be made

  • reduced sodium

  • sodium-free

  • salt-free

  • low sodium

Explanation

Question 97 of 106

1

the primary role of water in urine is to

Select one of the following:

  • provide a medium for chemical reactions

  • detoxify

  • maintain acid-base balance

  • transport waste products out of the bonde

  • keep us from sitting too much

Explanation

Question 98 of 106

1

the DASH diet is high in

Select one of the following:

  • potassium, calcium, and magnesium while low to moderate in sodium

  • calcium and magnesium while low in sodium and potassium

  • sodium while low in calcium, magnesium, and potassium

  • sodium and potassium while low in calcium and magnesium

Explanation

Question 99 of 106

1

healthy resting blood pressure is defined as

Select one of the following:

  • 120/80 mm of mercury or less

  • 140/90 mm of mercury or less

  • 160/100 mm of mercury or less

  • between 120/80 and 140/90

Explanation

Question 100 of 106

1

the current upper limit (UL) for sodium per day is the amount found in

Select one of the following:

  • 1/2 teaspoon of salt

  • 1 teaspoon of salt

  • 2 teaspoons of salt

  • 3 teaspoons of salt

Explanation

Question 101 of 106

1

exercise-associated hyponatremia occurs more often in

Select one of the following:

  • people who continue to exercise for several hours

  • people who consume too many sports drinks while exervising

  • people who over drink water while exercising

  • people who become dehydrated during prolonged exercise

  • both A and C are criteria

Explanation

Question 102 of 106

1

which of the following is NOT a tip for reducing sodium intake?

Select one of the following:

  • drink 8-10 glasses of water per day to dilute salt in diet

  • use food labels to select foods low in sodium

  • prepare meals from scratch to control the amount of salt added

  • cut down on the consumption of processed cheese

Explanation

Question 103 of 106

1

which hormone signals the kidneys to reabsorb water back into the bloodstream?

Select one of the following:

  • antidiruretic hormone (ADH)

  • absorption hormone (AH)

  • calcitonin

  • parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Explanation

Question 104 of 106

1

which one of the following interactions is most likely to occur?

Select one of the following:

  • K will be attracted to the hydrogen side of the water molecule

  • Cl will be attracted to the oxygen side of the water molecule

  • Na will be attracted to the hydrogen side of the water molecule

  • both Na and K are attracted to the oxygen side of the water molecule

  • Na will be attracted to the oxygen side of the water molecule

Explanation

Question 105 of 106

1

Elmer has just consumed a large bowl of canned soup, which is very high in sodium. he is salt-sensitive. how will his body react, compared to someone who is not salt-sensitive?

Select one of the following:

  • Elmer will excrete sodium more readily and his blood vessels will dilate, causing his blood pressure to remain normal

  • Elmer will excrete sodium more slowly and his blood vessels will constrict, causing his blood pressure to rise

  • Elmer will excrete sodium more readily and his blood vessels will constrict, causing his blood pressure to rise

  • Elmer will excrete sodium at the same rate and his blood vessels will dilate, causing his blood pressure to remain normal

Explanation

Question 106 of 106

1

Shipwrecked! you drank ocean water and become dehydrated because

Select one of the following:

  • body fluids absorbed more water than usual from the gastrointestinal tract

  • the gastrointestinal tract absorbed more water from the body

Explanation

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