Routing and Switching Final Exam v6.0

Question 1 of 120

1

Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

Select one of the following:

management
user-generated
untagged
tagged

Explanation

Question 2 of 120

1

Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number?

Select one or more of the following:

The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number.
An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.
Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP.
The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number.
The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

Explanation

Question 3 of 120

1

A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

Select one of the following:

access-group 11 in
access-class 11 in
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in

Explanation

Question 4 of 120

1

A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

vty lines
VTP domain
loopback address
default gateway
default VLAN
IP address

Explanation

Question 5 of 120

1

A network administrator configures a router to provide stateful DHCPv6 operation. However, users report that workstations do not receive IPv6 addresses within the scope. Which configuration command should be checked to ensure that statefull DHCPv6 is implemented?

Select one of the following:

The dns-server line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.
The ipv6 nd managed-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.
The ipv6 nd other-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.
The domain-name line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.

Explanation

Question 6 of 120

1

Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?

Select one of the following:

Frames are forwarded without any error checking.
Error-free fragments are forwarded, so switching occurs with lower latency.
Buffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.
Only outgoing frames are checked for errors.

Explanation

Question 7 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?

Select one of the following:

10.0.0.31
172.16.12.5
172.16.12.33
192.168.1.10
172.16.25.35

Explanation

Question 8 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

Select one of the following:

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.

Explanation

Question 9 of 120

1

Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

Select one of the following:

ip dhcp pool
ip address dhcp
service dhcp
ip helper-address

Explanation

Question 10 of 120

1

Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?

Select one of the following:

a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
a DHCPREQUEST unicast message
a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message

Explanation

Question 11 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?

Select one of the following:

A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.
R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

Explanation

Question 12 of 120

1

A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

Select one of the following:

ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365
No additional configuration is necessary.

Explanation

Question 13 of 120

1

What is a disadvantage of NAT?

Select one of the following:

There is no end-to-end addressing.
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.

Explanation

Question 14 of 120

1

Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

Select one of the following:

Telnet
IPsec
HTTP
ICMP
DNS

Explanation

Question 15 of 120

1

What benefit does NAT64 provide?

Select one of the following:

It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

Explanation

Question 16 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

R1 Gi0/1.12
R1 S0/0/0
R2 S0/0/1
R2 Gi0/1.20
inbound
outbound

Explanation

Question 17 of 120

1

Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

destination MAC address
ICMP message type
computer type
source TCP hello address
destination UDP port number

Explanation

Question 18 of 120

1

A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

Select one of the following:

in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device

Explanation

Question 19 of 120

1

Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

access list number between 1 and 99
access list number between 100 and 199
default gateway address and wildcard mask
destination address and wildcard mask
source address and wildcard mask
source subnet mask and wildcard mask
destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

Explanation

Question 20 of 120

1

A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

Select one of the following:

0.0.0.127
0.0.0.255
0.0.1.255
0.0.255.255
A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

Explanation

Question 21 of 120

1

The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

access-class 5 in
access-list 5 deny any
access-list standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
ip access-group 5 out
ip access-group 5 in

Explanation

Question 22 of 120

1

A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

Select one of the following:

permit ip any any
permit ip any host ip_address
permit icmp any any nd-na
deny ip any any

Explanation

Question 23 of 120

1

Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

Select one of the following:

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

Explanation

Question 24 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

Select one of the following:

The ip route command was used.
The ipv6 route command was used.
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.
The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.

Explanation

Question 25 of 120

1

Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

Select one of the following:

IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.
IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.

Explanation

Question 26 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

Select one of the following:

child route
ultimate route
default route
level 1 parent route

Explanation

Question 27 of 120

1

Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

scalability
ISP selection
speed of convergence
the autonomous system that is used
campus backbone architecture

Explanation

Question 28 of 120

1

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

Select one of the following:

directly attached static route
recursive static route
fully specified static route
floating static route

Explanation

Question 29 of 120

1

A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

Select one of the following:

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

Explanation

Question 30 of 120

1

Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

Select one of the following:

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0

Explanation

Question 31 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?

Select one of the following:

1
2
3
4

Explanation

Question 32 of 120

1

Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

Select one of the following:

OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.

Explanation

Question 33 of 120

1

What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

Select one of the following:

They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
They request more information about their databases.
They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.

Explanation

Question 34 of 120

1

What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

Select one of the following:

A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
Cost equals bandwidth.
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.

Explanation

Question 35 of 120

1

Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
the type of network link
the link next-hop IP address
the link bandwidth
the cost of that link

Explanation

Question 36 of 120

1

Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
The link interface subnet masks must match.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

Explanation

Question 37 of 120

1

A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

Explanation

Question 38 of 120

1

What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.

Explanation

Question 39 of 120

1

Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?

Select one of the following:

to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding
to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows
to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
to determine which ports are functioning

Explanation

Question 40 of 120

1

Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

Select one of the following:

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict
switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect

Explanation

Question 41 of 120

1

Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

Select one of the following:

An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
A cable has not been attached to the port.
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.

Explanation

Question 42 of 120

1

What caused the following error message to appear?

01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state

01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.

01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

Select one of the following:

Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.

Explanation

Question 43 of 120

1

While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?

Select one of the following:

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.
Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.

Explanation

Question 44 of 120

1

Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
dynamic auto – dynamic auto
dynamic desirable – dynamic auto
dynamic desirable – trunk
access – trunk
access – dynamic auto

Explanation

Question 45 of 120

1

What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Change the native VLAN on both ports.
Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.
Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.

Explanation

Question 46 of 120

1

A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Select one of the following:

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

Explanation

Question 47 of 120

1

Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.
The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.
High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.

Explanation

Question 48 of 120

1

On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

Select one of the following:

Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
Switch(config)# no vlan 100

Explanation

Question 49 of 120

1

What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

Select one of the following:

The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.

Explanation

Question 50 of 120

1

A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

Select one of the following:

All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.

Explanation

Question 51 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

Select one of the following:

A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.
The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.

Explanation

Question 52 of 120

1

What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?

Select one of the following:

The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.
The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.
The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.

Explanation

Question 53 of 120

1

Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

Select one of the following:

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

Explanation

Question 54 of 120

1

Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)

Select one or more of the following:

Step 1 – Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.
Step 2 – Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks.
Step 3 – Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
Step 4 – Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
Step 5 – Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best

Explanation

Question 55 of 120

1

Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

Select one of the following:

the destination MAC address and the incoming port
the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
the source MAC address and the incoming port
the source MAC address and the outgoing port

Explanation

Question 56 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

Select one of the following:

10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains

Explanation

Question 57 of 120

1

What is a function of the distribution layer?

Select one of the following:

fault isolation
network access to the user
high-speed backbone connectivity
interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets

Explanation

Question 58 of 120

1

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

Select one of the following:

borderless switching
cut-through switching
ingress port buffering
store-and-forward switching

Explanation

Question 59 of 120

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

In IPv6, all routes are level ultimate routes.

Explanation

Question 60 of 120

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Static routes are configured by the use of the global configuration command.

Explanation

Question 61 of 120

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The OSPF Type 1 packet is the packet.

Explanation

Question 62 of 120

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The default administrative distance for a static route is .

Explanation

Question 63 of 120

1

When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

Select one of the following:

data VLAN ID
native VLAN ID
unused VLAN ID
management VLAN ID

Explanation

Question 64 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown
(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
(config)# ip routing

Explanation

Question 65 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

Select one of the following:

Add an administrative distance of 254.
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

Explanation

Question 66 of 120

1

How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

Select one of the following:

the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface
the lowest MAC address on an active interface

Explanation

Question 67 of 120

1

Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
They are not associated with a particular VLAN.

Explanation

Question 68 of 120

1

Match the switching characteristic to the correct term. (Not all options are used.)

Select one of the following:

I remember this.
I don't remember this.

Explanation

Question 69 of 120

1

A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?

Select one of the following:

static NAT
dynamic NAT
port address translation
DHCP

Explanation

Question 70 of 120

1

What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

Select one of the following:

They use hop count as their only metric.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.

Explanation

Question 71 of 120

1

Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

The path a static route uses to send data is known.
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.
Configuration of static routes is error-free. Static routes scale well as the network grows.

Explanation

Question 72 of 120

1

When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?

Select one of the following:

show active SSH ports on the switch
disconnect SSH connected hosts
create a public and private key pair
show SSH connected hosts
access the SSH database configuration

Explanation

Question 73 of 120

1

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?

Select one of the following:

The routers are using different OSPF process IDs.
The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.
No router ID has been configured on the routers.
The gigabit interfaces are passive.

Explanation

Question 74 of 120

1

Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

show processes show cdp neighbor
show access-lists
show ip route
show running-config

Explanation

Question 75 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?

Select one of the following:

192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.0.0/21

Explanation

Question 76 of 120

1

A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

Select one of the following:

auto secure MAC addresses
dynamic secure MAC addresses
static secure MAC addresses
sticky secure MAC addresses

Explanation

Question 77 of 120

1

Which value represents the “trustworthiness” of a route and is used to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

Select one of the following:

routing protocol
outgoing interface
metric
administrative distance

Explanation

Question 78 of 120

1

Which type of router memory temporarily stores the running configuration file and ARP table?

Select one of the following:

flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM

Explanation

Question 79 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?

Select one of the following:

Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.
Router R2 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

Explanation

Question 80 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. The Branch Router has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the HQ router over the 198.51.0.4/30 network. The 198.51.0.8/30 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/1/1 100 was issued on Branch and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?

Select one of the following:

Add the next hop neighbor address of 198.51.0.8.
Change the administrative distance to 1.
Change the destination network to 198.51.0.5.
Change the administrative distance to 120.

Explanation

Question 81 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker on PC X sends a frame with two 802.1Q tags on it, one for VLAN 40 and another for VLAN 12. What will happen to this frame?

Select one of the following:

SW-A will drop the frame because it is invalid.
SW-A will leave both tags on the frame and send it to SW-B, which will forward it to hosts on VLAN 40.
SW-A will remove both tags and forward the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 40.
SW-A will remove the outer tag and send the rest of the frame across the trunk link, where SW-B will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN 12.

Explanation

Question 82 of 120

1

A new network policy requires an ACL to deny HTTP access from all guests to a web server at the main office. All guests use addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:DB8:19:C::/64. The web server is configured with the address 2001:DB8:19:A::105/64. Implementing the NoWeb ACL on the interface for the guest LAN requires which three commands? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80 deny tcp host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 any eq 80
deny tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80
permit ipv6 any any
deny ipv6 any any
ipv6 traffic-filter NoWeb in
ip access-group NoWeb in

Explanation

Question 83 of 120

1

An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 172.16.0.0/16, 172.16.1.0/16, and 172.16.2.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 172.16.1.0 network to neighbors?

Select one of the following:

router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

Explanation

Question 84 of 120

1

Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 192.135.250.27?

Select one of the following:

255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224

Explanation

Question 85 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

Select one of the following:

1
5
8
20
25
30

Explanation

Question 86 of 120

1

The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?

Select one of the following:

Flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM

Explanation

Question 87 of 120

1

A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source address are dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?

Select one of the following:

off
restrict
protect
shutdown

Explanation

Question 88 of 120

1

A standard ACL has been configured on a router to allow only clients from the 10.11.110.0/24 network to telnet or to ssh to the VTY lines of the router. Which command will correctly apply this ACL?

Select one of the following:

access-group 11 in
access-class 11 in
access-list 11 in
access-list 110 in

Explanation

Question 89 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit.What address will summarize the LANs attached to routers 2-A and 3-A and can be configured in a summary static route to advertise them to an upstream neighbor?

Select one of the following:

10.0.0.0/24
10.0.0.0/23
10.0.0.0/22
10.0.0.0/21

Explanation

Question 90 of 120

1

A security specialist designs an ACL to deny access to a web server from all sales staff. The sales staff are assigned addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:db8:48:2c::/64. The web server is assigned the address 2001:db8:48:1c::50/64. Configuring the WebFilter ACL on the LAN interface for the sales staff will require which three commands? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

deny tcp host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 any eq 80
deny tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80
permit ipv6 any any
deny ipv6 any any
ip access-group WebFilter in
ipv6 traffic-filter WebFilter in

Explanation

Question 91 of 120

1

To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 192.168.5.64 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

Select one of the following:

192.168.5.64
192.168.5.0
192.168.0.0
No address is displayed.

Explanation

Question 92 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. An ACL preventing FTP and HTTP access to the interval web server from all teaching assistants has been implemented in the Board Office. The address of the web server is 172.20.1.100 and all teaching assistants are assigned addresses in the 172.21.1.0/24 network. After implement the ACL, access to all servers is denied. What is the problem?

Select one of the following:

inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed
the ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers
named ACLs requite the use of port numbers
the ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction

Explanation

Question 93 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

Select one of the following:

1
2
3
4
5
6

Explanation

Question 94 of 120

1

A router learns of multiple toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for specific situation?

Select one of the following:

Metric
Colour
Meter
Bread

Explanation

Question 95 of 120

1

What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?

Select one of the following:

Ipv6
OSPF
Link-access
To have only a link-local IPv6 address
Protocol

Explanation

Question 96 of 120

1

Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.
Half duplex has only one channel.
All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.
Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.

Explanation

Question 97 of 120

1

Fill in the blank. The acronym describes the type of traffic that has strict QoS requirements and utilizes a one-way overall delay less than 150 ms across the network.

Select one of the following:

VOIP
DNS
TCP
UDP

Explanation

Question 98 of 120

1

Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan
S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

Explanation

Question 99 of 120

1

Which command will enable auto-MDIX on a device?

Select one of the following:

S1(config-if)# mdix auto
S1# auto-mdix S1(config-if)# auto-mdix
S1# mdix auto S1(config)# mdix auto
S1(config)# auto-mdix

Explanation

Question 100 of 120

1

What is the effect of issuing the passive-interface default command on a router that is configured for OSPF?

Select one of the following:

Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
It prevents OSPF messages from being sent out any OSPF-enabled interface.
All of above

Explanation

Question 101 of 120

1

A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

Select one of the following:

routers that are reachable over a TCP session
routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
routers that reside in the same area
routers that exchange LSAs

Explanation

Question 102 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Address translation is working.
Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.
The name of the NAT pool is refCount.
A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.
Two types of NAT are enabled.
One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

Explanation

Question 103 of 120

1

Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

Select one or more of the following:

console access –> Not Scored
full operating system –> flash
limited operating system –> ROM
routing table –> RAM
startup configuration file –> NVRAM

Explanation

Question 104 of 120

1

Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.
Configure SSH for remote management.
Configure all unused ports to a “black hole.”
Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.

Explanation

Question 105 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

Select one of the following:

0.0.0.0
10.16.100.128
10.16.100.2
110
791

Explanation

Question 106 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Select one of the following:

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
Source IP: 10.1.1.10
Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.1
Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 192.168.1.1
Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10
Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Explanation

Question 107 of 120

1

Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

Select one of the following:

a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer
a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer
a collapsed core network design
a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

Explanation

Question 108 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

Select one of the following:

1
2
3
4
5
6
11

Explanation

Question 109 of 120

1

A router learns of multiple routes toward the same destination. Which value in a routing table represents the trustworthiness of learned routes and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table for this specific situation?

Select one of the following:

routing protocol
outgoing interface
metric
administrative distance

Explanation

Question 110 of 120

1

Which value in a routing table represents trustworthiness and is used by the router to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

Select one of the following:

administrative distance
metric
outgoing interface
routing protocol

Explanation

Question 111 of 120

1

The network address 172.18.9.128 with netmask 255.255.255.128 is matched by which wildcard mask?

Select one of the following:

0.0.0.31
0.0.0.255
0.0.0.127
0.0.0.63

Explanation

Question 112 of 120

1

Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

FF02::5
FF02::6
FF02::A
2001:db8:cafe::1
FF02::1:2
FE80::1

Explanation

Question 113 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from East?

Select one of the following:

65
20
1
0

Explanation

Question 114 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the R2 LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from R1?

Select one of the following:

782
74
128
65

Explanation

Question 115 of 120

1

A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the interfaces?

Select one of the following:

off
restrict
protect
shutdown

Explanation

Question 116 of 120

1

A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

Select one of the following:

172.16.20.2
172.16.26.254
172.16.47.254
172.16.48.5

Explanation

Question 117 of 120

1

What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces
a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is used
use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces
one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a GigabitEthernet port
mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers

Explanation

Question 118 of 120

1

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs as many switch ports as possible for end devices and the business is using the most common type of inter-VLAN method. What type of inter-VLAN interconnectivity is best to use between the switch and the router if R1 routes for all VLANs?

Select one of the following:

one link between the switch and the router with the router using three router subinterfaces
one link between the switch and the router with the one switch port being configured in access mode
three links between the switch and the router with the three switch ports being configured in access mode
two links between the switch and the router with the two switch ports being configured in access mode

Explanation

Question 119 of 120

1

Router R1 routes traffic to the 10.10.0.0/16 network using an EIGRP learned route from Branch2. The administrator would like to install a floating static route to create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down. Which static route meets this goal?

Select one of the following:

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100
ip route 255.255.0.0 10.10.0.0 209.165.200.225
ip route 255.255.0.0 10.10.0.0 209.165.200.225 100
ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225

Explanation

Question 120 of 120

1

Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

Select one of the following:

172.16.100.64
255.255.255.0

	Created by Jesse Collins about 7 years ago

A cumulative final exam! Please note that some exhibits may be missing.

Routing and Switching Final Exam v6.0

Question 1 of 120

Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 120

Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 120

A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 120

A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 120

A network administrator configures a router to provide stateful DHCPv6 operation. However, users report that workstations do not receive IPv6 addresses within the scope. Which configuration command should be checked to ensure that statefull DHCPv6 is implemented?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 120

Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 120

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 120

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 120

Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 120

Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?​

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 120

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 120

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 120

What is a disadvantage of NAT?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 120

Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 120

What benefit does NAT64 provide?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 120

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 120

Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 120

A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 120

Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 120

A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 21 of 120

Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?