ICND 2

Question 1 of 63

1

Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

It can run on a UNIX server.
It authenticates against the user database on the local device.
It is more secure than AAA authentication.
It is enabled on Cisco routers by default.
It uses a managed database

Explanation

Question 2 of 63

1

About statement of HDLC IP address. (Choose Three)

Select one or more of the following:

It is local for the interface
It became default route after network reduce
It is in the same subnet address with other interfaces

Explanation

Question 3 of 63

1

Disadvantages of using proxy ARP:

Select one of the following:

IT rewrite MAC in the database
It can be used for DDos attack

Explanation

Question 4 of 63

1

Voice dsp value (never heard of this either)
incomplete answer choices:
Expedited Forwarding (EF), 46, 101110

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 5 of 63

1

Which version of SNMP first allowed user-based access?

Select one of the following:

SNMPv3 with RBAC
SNMPv3
SNMPv1
SNMPv2

Explanation

Question 6 of 63

1

Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?

Select one of the following:

ring
full mesh
hub-and-spoke
partial mesh

Explanation

Question 7 of 63

1

What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 user?

Select one of the following:

Configure server traps.
Configure the server group
Configure the server host.
Configure the remote engine ID.

Explanation

Question 8 of 63

1

How can you disable DTP on a switch port?

Select one of the following:

Configure the switch port as a trunk.
Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
Change the operational mode to static access.
Change the administrative mode to access.

Explanation

Question 9 of 63

1

Which two statement about proxy ARP are true ? choose two

Select one or more of the following:

It is supported on networks without ARP.
It allows machines to spoof packets.
It requires larger ARP tables.
It reduces the amount of ARP traffic.

Explanation

Question 10 of 63

1

Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to s specific OID tree?

Select one of the following:

server group
An access group
A community
A view record

Explanation

Question 11 of 63

1

Which configuration enables OSPF for network 192.168.1.0/24

Select one of the following:

router ospf 1
Area 0 virtual-link 192.168.1.0
router ospf 1
Network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
router ospf
Router-id 192.168.1.0
router ospf 1
Neighbor 192.168.1.0

Explanation

Question 12 of 63

1

Which three options are types of slow VLAN connectivity? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

slow inter-VLAN connectivity
slow collision domain connectivity
slow broadcast domain
slow default gateway connectivity
slow application domain connectivity
slow routing domain connectivity

Explanation

Question 13 of 63

1

Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?

Select one of the following:

The backup port
The alternate port
The root port
The designated port

Explanation

Question 14 of 63

1

Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?

Select one of the following:

Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN 2 through VLAN 4064
A switch in VTP transparent mode saves the VLAN database to the running configuration only
The switch must be in the VTP server or transparent mode before you configure a VLAN
The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN

Explanation

Question 15 of 63

1

Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?

Select one of the following:

It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic to a destination
It is configured in enable mode
It is used to determine the one-way delay between devices
The frequency of the operation is specified in milliseconds

Explanation

Question 16 of 63

1

Which WAN technology uses labels to make decisions about data forwarding?

Select one of the following:

Frame Relay
MPLS
VSAT
Metro Ethernet
ISDN

Explanation

Question 17 of 63

1

Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two

Select one or more of the following:

The bridge ID is transmitted in the IP header to elect the root bridge
The bridge priority must be incremented in blocks of 4096
It is composed of an 8-bit bridge priority and a 16-bit system ID extension
The system ID extension is a value between 1 and 4095
It is composed of a 4-bit bridge priority and a 12-bit system ID extension

Explanation

Question 18 of 63

1

After you configure a new router to connect to a host through the GigabitEthernet0/0 port of the router, you log in to the router and observe that the new link is down. Which action corrects the problem?

Select one of the following:

Configure the host to use R1 as the default gateway
Use a straight through cable between the host and R1
Use a crossover cable between the host and R1
Use a rollover cable between the host and R1

Explanation

Question 19 of 63

1

Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?

Select one of the following:

The VLAN priority
The interface number
The hello time
The port priority

Explanation

Question 20 of 63

1

Which VLAN bridge priority value is assigned by the set spantree root command?

Select one of the following:

16384
32768
28672
8192

Explanation

Question 21 of 63

1

Routers R1 and R2 are on the same network segment, and both routers use interface GigabitEthernet0/0. If R1 loses communication to R2, which two items should you check as you begin troubleshooting? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Verify the R1 and R2 both are using HDLC encapsulation
Verify that the R1 GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is up and the line protocol is down
Verify that the R1 GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is up and the line protocol is up
Verify that the GigabitEthernet0/0 interfaces on R1 and R2 are configured with the same subnet mask
Verify that R2 is using 802.1q encapsulation

Explanation

Question 22 of 63

1

Which purpose of the network command in OSPF configuration mode is true?

Select one of the following:

It defines a wildcard mask to identify the size of the network.
It defines the area ID.
It defines the network by its classful entry.
It defines which networks are used for virtual links.

Explanation

Question 23 of 63

1

Which STP stability mechanism is used to prevent a rogue switch from becoming the root switch?

Select one of the following:

Source Guard
BPDU guard
root guard
loop guard

Explanation

Question 24 of 63

1

Which three checks must you perform when troubleshooting EIGRPv6 adjacencies? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Verify that IPv6 is enabled.
Verify that the network command has been configured.
Verify that auto summary is enabled.
Verify that the interface is up.
Verify that an IPv4 address has been configured.
Verify that the router ID has been configured.

Explanation

Question 25 of 63

1

Which two actions must you take to configure a PAgP EtherChannel between two switches, S1 and S2? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Configure the channel-group 1 mode auto command on S1.
Configure the channel-group 1 mode desirable command on S2.
Configure the channel-group 1 mode active command on S2.
Configure the channel-group 1 mode on command on S2.
Configure the channel-group 1 mode active command on S1.

Explanation

Question 26 of 63

1

Which Routing protocols are compatible with stubs?

Select one or more of the following:

OSPF
EIGRP
EBGP
BGP
IS_IS
RIP

Explanation

Question 27 of 63

1

Whats the minimum command to turn on encryption on SNMP?

Select one of the following:

SNMPV3authpriv
SMNPV3authnopriv
SNMPV3noauthpriv
SMNPV2authnopriv
SNMPV2NOAUTHPRIV
SNMPV2AUTHNOPRIV

Explanation

Question 28 of 63

1

What’s DTP’s default in a switch?

Select one of the following:

ON
OFF
Dynamic auto
Dynamic desirable

Explanation

Question 29 of 63

1

What about HSRP IP Address is true?

Select one of the following:

if its part of the LAN
Part of all other networks
Local to the interface
Appears in the routing table
acts as default route for that interface

Explanation

Question 30 of 63

1

Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?

Select one of the following:

The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.

Explanation

Question 31 of 63

1

Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?

Select one of the following:

1
64
100
299
1099

Explanation

Question 32 of 63

1

Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?

Select one of the following:

The frequency of the operation .s specified in milliseconds.
It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.
It is configured in enable mode.
It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.

Explanation

Question 33 of 63

1

Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?

Select one of the following:

Cisco Prime Infrastructure
Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
Cisco APIC-EM
Cisco IOS-XE

Explanation

Question 34 of 63

1

Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized managementsystem?

Select one of the following:

Cisco OpenDaylight
Cisco ACI
Cisco APIC
Cisco IWAN

Explanation

Question 35 of 63

1

What is the default VLAN on an access port?

Select one of the following:

0
1
10
1024

Explanation

Question 36 of 63

1

Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?

Select one of the following:

virtual-template interface
DHCP
dialer interface
AAA authentication

Explanation

Question 37 of 63

1

Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding stated?

Select one of the following:

BPDU guard
PortFast
loop guard
UDLD
Uplink Fast

Explanation

Question 38 of 63

1

Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?

Select one of the following:

show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
show ipv6 route eigrp
show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
show ip eigrp traffic

Explanation

Question 39 of 63

1

Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
multiple errors on switchport interfaces
congestion on the switch inband path
a failing NIC in an end device
an overloaded shared segment

Explanation

Question 40 of 63

1

What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?

Select one of the following:

Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
Only RADIUS uses TCP.
Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.

Explanation

Question 41 of 63

1

Which statement about DTP is true?

Select one of the following:

It uses the native VLAN.
It negotiates a trunk link after VTP has been configured.
It uses desirable mode by default.
It sends data on VLAN 1.

Explanation

Question 42 of 63

1

Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode responds to a topology change?

Select one of the following:

It immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
It sets a timer to delete all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.
It sets a timer to delete dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.

Explanation

Question 43 of 63

1

Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?

Select one of the following:

It prioritizes routing protocol traffic.
It remarks traffic that is below the CIR
It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.
It queues and then transmits traffic that exceeds the CIR.

Explanation

Question 44 of 63

1

Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

autonomous system number
version number
router ID
subnet mask
IP address

Explanation

Question 45 of 63

1

Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the LAN?

Select one of the following:

802.1d
802.11
802.1w
802.1x

Explanation

Question 46 of 63

1

Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by replicating it to another port or ports on the same switch?

Select one of the following:

copy run start
traceroute
the ICMP Echo IP SLA
SPAN

Explanation

Question 47 of 63

1

Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6?

Select one of the following:

Only EIGRP for IPv6 advertises all connected networks.
Only EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing process
AS numbers are configured in EIGRP but not in EIGRPv3.
Only EIGRP for IPv6 is enabled in the global configuration mode.

Explanation

Question 48 of 63

1

Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?

Select one of the following:

It reduces the need for a backup data center.
It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
It eliminates the need for a GSS.

Explanation

Question 49 of 63

1

Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?

Select one of the following:

It provides redundancy with no impact on resource usage.
It simplifies adding and removing hosts.
It supports better performance of high-needs applications.
It provides higher port density with better resource usage.

Explanation

Question 50 of 63

1

Which statement about MPLS is true?

Select one of the following:

It operates in Layer 1.
It operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3.
It operates in Layer 3.
it operates in Layer 2.

Explanation

Question 51 of 63

1

Which statement about named ACLs is true?

Select one of the following:

They support standard and extended ACLs
They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
They support standard ACLs only.
They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.

Explanation

Question 52 of 63

1

While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output. Which information is provided by the Load value?

Select one of the following:

the percentage of use of the link
the preference of the link
the session count of the link
the number source-destination pairs on the link

Explanation

Question 53 of 63

1

Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?

Select one of the following:

Ethernet
Dialer
serial
Frame Relay

Explanation

Question 54 of 63

1

Which configuration can you apply to enable encapsulation on a subinterface?

Select one of the following:

interface FastEthernet 0/0
encapsulation dot1Q 30
Ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
description subinterface vlan 30
interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
encapsulation dot1Q 30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0

Explanation

Question 55 of 63

1

Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?

Select one of the following:

Ports are untrusted by default.
VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
Packets are classified internally with an environment.
Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.

Explanation

Question 56 of 63

1

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume thediscarding role?

Select one of the following:

Switch3, port fa0/1
Switch3, port fa0/12
Switch4, port fa0/11
Switch4, port fa0/2
Switch3, port Gi0/1
Switch3, port Gi0/2

Explanation

Question 57 of 63

1

The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

Select one of the following:

O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0
208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0
208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0
208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0
208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0
208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0

Explanation

Question 58 of 63

1

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the
192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

Select one of the following:

The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2
The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1
The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Explanation

Question 59 of 63

1

What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

It requires the use of ARP.
It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
It routes over links rather than over networks.

Explanation

Question 60 of 63

1

Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?

Select one of the following:

RSA
L2TP
IPsec
PPTP

Explanation

Question 61 of 63

1

Host X and host Y are connected through the respective Gigabit Ethernet ports, but host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which option is the most probable reason for the problem?

Select one of the following:

Host Y is using a network ID as its IP address
Host Y is using an invalid IP address and subnet mask
Host X is using a broadcast address as its IP address
Host X is using an invalid subnet mask

Explanation

Question 62 of 63

1

Don’t the have question

Select one or more of the following:

Dev1(config)# bba-group pppoe bba 1.
Dev1(config-if)# pppoe-client dial-pool-number 1
Dev1(config-if)# pppoe enable group bba1.
Dev1(config-if)# pppoe enable.

Explanation

Question 63 of 63

1

You enter the show ipv6 route command on an OSPF device and the device displays a route. Which conclusion can you draw about the environment?

Select one of the following:

OSPF is distributing IPv6 routes to BGP
The router is designed as an ASR
The router is designed as totally stubby
OSPFv3 is in use

	Created by R Cruz about 7 years ago

All page references are from CCNA Routing and Switching ICND2 200-105 Official Cert Guide by WENDELL ODOM

Question 1 of 63

Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 63

About statement of HDLC IP address. (Choose Three)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 63

Disadvantages of using proxy ARP:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 63

Voice dsp value (never heard of this either) incomplete answer choices: Expedited Forwarding (EF), 46, 101110

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 63

Which version of SNMP first allowed user-based access?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 63

Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 63

What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 user?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 63

How can you disable DTP on a switch port?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 63

Which two statement about proxy ARP are true ? choose two

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 63

Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to s specific OID tree?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 63

Which configuration enables OSPF for network 192.168.1.0/24

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 63

Which three options are types of slow VLAN connectivity? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 63

Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 63

Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 63

Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 63

Which WAN technology uses labels to make decisions about data forwarding?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 63

Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 63

After you configure a new router to connect to a host through the GigabitEthernet0/0 port of the router, you log in to the router and observe that the new link is down. Which action corrects the problem?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 63

Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 63

Which VLAN bridge priority value is assigned by the set spantree root command?

Voice dsp value (never heard of this either)
incomplete answer choices:
Expedited Forwarding (EF), 46, 101110