Javier Cortes
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Quiz on Prueba, created by Javier Cortes on 24/04/2017.

15
1
0
Javier Cortes
Created by Javier Cortes about 7 years ago
Close

Prueba

Question 1 of 109

1

Which of the following core components of ARM enables intelligent distribution of clients across available channel capacity?

Select one of the following:

  • Multi-band scan

  • Spectrum load balancing

  • Rogue AP detection

  • Band steering

Explanation

Question 2 of 109

1

Which one of the following file types cannot be imported to Visual RF Plan?

Select one of the following:

  • dwg

  • jpg

  • TIFF

  • gif

Explanation

Question 3 of 109

1

When adding licenses in the startup wizard license screen a reboot is required:

Select one of the following:

  • After each license is installed

  • Before any other configuration can take place

  • Only if the Policy Enforcement Firewall license is installed

  • A reboot is not required until you have completed the configuration wizard

Explanation

Question 4 of 109

1

When looking at clients in the ‘Monitoring Clients’ section of the Controller, which of the following information is not visible?

Select one of the following:

  • Role

  • MAC Address

  • Output power of client radio

  • Method of authentication

Explanation

Question 5 of 109

1

When configuring a guest WLAN via the WLAN section of the startup wizard which security option is not available?

Select one of the following:

  • WEP encryption

  • Direct access to the internet with no captive portal

  • Captive portal with authentication via credentials

  • Captive portal with email registration

Explanation

Question 6 of 109

1

What information is required by an AP in order to boot? (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • AP’s IP Address, Netmask, Default Gateway

  • AP’s Name and Group

  • Aruba Controller’s Master IP Address

  • An established NTP connection to the Master Controller

Explanation

Question 7 of 109

1

Which of the following statements about management accounts is false?

Select one of the following:

  • The root account can be used to monitor access points connected to the controller

  • The guest-provisioning account can see the controller’s configuration but cannot change it

  • The read-only account cannot delete internal database entries

  • The guest-provisioning account can make changes to the internal database

Explanation

Question 8 of 109

1

The Guest Provisioning user account has the ability to do which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • Add a new employee to the internal database

  • Change the “look” and “feel” of the guest provisioning page

  • Change the available data fields on the guest provisioning page

  • Add a guest user to the internal database

Explanation

Question 9 of 109

1

In a Campus AP deployment, what is the difference between a Direct and an Overlay deployment?

Select one of the following:

  • In an overlay deployment APs are connected directly to the Controller while in a direct deployment, APs are connected to other Layer 2 or Layer 3 devices.

  • The Controller supplies PoE to APs in an Overlay Deployment while APs draw power from other PoE switches in a Direct deployment

  • In a direct deployment, APs are directly connected to the controller while in an overlay deployment APs are connected to other Layer 2 or Layer 3 devices.

  • In an overlay deployment, the APs cannot terminate their GRE tunnels at the controller, while in a direct deployment they can.

Explanation

Question 10 of 109

1

What does SET ORIENTATION option do in the Visual RF Plan edit tool?

Select one of the following:

  • Set the horizontal plane on each floor

  • Give the option to resize a floor

  • Sets the North/South orientation of the building

  • Sets the proper vertical floor plan alignment

Explanation

Question 11 of 109

1

How many roles should be created on a controller?

Select one of the following:

  • As many as necessary

  • the same number as firewall policies

  • one less than the number of firewall policies

  • the same number as SSIDs

Explanation

Question 12 of 109

1

802.1X authentication takes place

Select one of the following:

  • Prior to granting access to L2 media

  • After the user has an IP address

  • After the user sees the captive portal page

  • Prior to the user associating with the AP

Explanation

Question 13 of 109

1

Firewall policy should be written from:

Select one of the following:

  • Least specific to most specific

  • Most specific to least specific

  • Most important resources first

  • Order is not important

Explanation

Question 14 of 109

1

Which role is assigned prior to launching the captive portal splash screen?

Select one of the following:

  • Pre-authentication role

  • Post-authentication role

  • AAA role

  • AAA-CP role

Explanation

Question 15 of 109

1

When local controller is selected as the controller’s operation mode in the startup wizard, which is no longer configurable?

Select one of the following:

  • Licenses

  • WLANs

  • VLANs and IP addressing

  • Controller country code

Explanation

Question 16 of 109

1

The characteristics of 802.1X Authentication include (select all that apply):

Select one or more of the following:

  • L3 Authentication

  • Extensible Authentication Protocol

  • Support of RADIUS external authentication

  • Port based authentication

Explanation

Question 17 of 109

1

A reboot of the controller is necessary in which of the following scenarios? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Changing controller IP

  • Changing the VLAN of a Virtual AP Profile

  • Creating of a new AP Group

  • Changing of Controller Roles

Explanation

Question 18 of 109

1

Which of the following parameters are not needed by Visual RF Plan in order to Plan APs on a floor region?

Select one of the following:

  • AP Type

  • PHY Type

  • Distance to Controller

  • Environment

Explanation

Question 19 of 109

1

In decrypt-tunneled forwarding mode, which of the following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • Client sets up an IPSEC tunnel with the controller

  • The AP converts the 802.11 frame to an Ethernet frame and sends this in a GRE tunnel to the controller

  • The AP decrypts the 802.11 frame and bridges it on the wire

  • The AP decrypts the 802.11 frame, encrypts it as an Ethernet frame and sends it to the controller

Explanation

Question 20 of 109

1

When a client is blacklisted, the controller will:

Select one of the following:

  • Send a message telling the client it has been blacklisted

  • De-authenticate the client from the network but allow it to keep transmitting data

  • Only block the client if it hasn’t yet associated with an AP

  • Stop the client from associating with any SSID on the controller

Explanation

Question 21 of 109

1

Remote AP in tunnel mode, by default, uses which of the following to encrypt user traffic back to the mobility controller:

Select one of the following:

  • L2TP over IPSec is used to carry user traffic and control traffic

  • PPTP is used to tunnel user traffic

  • The AP does not encrypt user traffic. The user's link layer encryption is used.

  • Remote AP traffic is unencrypted

Explanation

Question 22 of 109

1

The AP Wizard allows the selection of APs to be provisioned using which of the following methods (select all that apply)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • APs in particular AP Group

  • All APs

  • APs designated as Air Monitors

  • APs meeting specified search criteria

Explanation

Question 23 of 109

1

What is the purpose of the validuser ACL?

Select one of the following:

  • When a user transmits data through the controller, the validuser ACL is used to check if the user is in the layer 3 user-table

  • Before a client is added to the controller’s user table, the validuser ACL is checked to make sure the client has a valid IP address

  • The validuser ACL is used during 802.1X authentication to check that the client is in the layer 3 user-table

  • When an AP needs to transmit data to a user, it checks the validuser ACL to make sure the user has a valid IP address

Explanation

Question 24 of 109

1

When configuring the Mobility Controller’s internal DHCP via the startup wizard which option is not available for configuration?

Select one of the following:

  • Pool name

  • Default router

  • Option 43

  • Domain name

Explanation

Question 25 of 109

1

An Aruba AP 125 is capable of supporting which of the following network types? (choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • 802.11b

  • 802.11n

  • 802.11a

  • 802.11w

Explanation

Question 26 of 109

1

Which of the following cannot be accomplished from the startup wizard?

Select one of the following:

  • Basic controller configuration

  • License installation

  • VPN configuration

  • WLAN configuration

Explanation

Question 27 of 109

1

WPA and WPA2 can use the following authentication methods: (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • WEP Keys

  • PSK

  • 802.1X

  • Captive Portal

Explanation

Question 28 of 109

1

When configuring roles under ‘Access Control’ in the Controller’s Configuration page, what does the ‘show reference’ action tell us?

Select one of the following:

  • Which firewall hits were detected that refer to the role

  • Which profiles refer to the role

  • What policies are inside the role

  • What users are currently assigned that role

Explanation

Question 29 of 109

1

Which of the following is true of an Aruba Mobility Controller acting as a layer 3 router? (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The Mobility Controller is the client's default router.

  • The Mobility Controller acts as a bridge.

  • DHCP can be provided by the network infrastructure or the Mobility Controller

  • The Mobility Controller supports BGP.

Explanation

Question 30 of 109

1

Which of the following can be configured in the GUI setup wizard: (choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Timezone

  • WLAN

  • WLAN trunck

  • Loopback address

Explanation

Question 31 of 109

1

Which of the following is not available for configuration in the startup wizard?

Select one of the following:

  • RF Plan

  • Administrator and enable passwords

  • Native VLANs on a per port basis

  • WPA-PSK encryption

Explanation

Question 32 of 109

1

Which of the following is true about configuring a server group?

Select one of the following:

  • Server rules are used to send information to the configured servers

  • A server group can have more than 1 server

  • If the internal database is used in the server group, then no external servers can be added

  • If multiple servers are assigned to the server group, all except the 1st will be ignored

Explanation

Question 33 of 109

1

Which is the strongest encryption type?

Select one of the following:

  • AES

  • TKIP

  • WEP

  • MSCHAPv2

Explanation

Question 34 of 109

1

Which of the following would be appropriate for standalone MAC Authentication?

Select one of the following:

  • Guest user

  • Internal user

  • Barcode scanner

  • Admin user

Explanation

Question 35 of 109

1

What is not a basic configuration in the startup wizard when configuring a WLAN?

Select one of the following:

  • SSID

  • VLAN

  • Radio Type

  • Anntena Type

Explanation

Question 36 of 109

1

What are some best practices when configuring the Aruba Firewall? Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Use aliases when possible

  • Write rules from least specific to most specific

  • Take actions like blacklisting when users violate policies

  • Create a different policy for each unique rule

Explanation

Question 37 of 109

1

Which firewall action is necessary in a guest pre-authentication role to display the captive portal login screen?

Select one of the following:

  • SRC-NAT

  • DST-NAT

  • allow all

  • allow CP

Explanation

Question 38 of 109

1

Clients connecting to a remote AP at a branch office can get an IP address through which of the following methods? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • DHCP server connected to the Remote AP’s controller

  • DHCP server at a branch office

  • DHCP server inside the Remote AP

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 39 of 109

1

What are the four views available in Visual RF Plan?

Select one or more of the following:

  • User View

  • Controller View

  • Access Point View

  • Floor Plan View

  • Network, Campus and Building View

Explanation

Question 40 of 109

1

Time range is applied directly to which of the following:

Select one of the following:

  • Role

  • Firewall Policy

  • Firewall Rule

  • Profile

Explanation

Question 41 of 109

1

In what order does the AP dynamically discover the Master controller?

Select one of the following:

  • DNS query, ADP Broadcast, ADP Multicast, DHCP option 43

  • DHCP option 43, ADP Multicast, ADP Broadcast, DNS query

  • DHCP option 43, DNS query, ADP Multicast, ADP Broadcast

  • ADP Multicast, ADP Broadcast, DHCP option 43, DNS query

Explanation

Question 42 of 109

1

Identify the benefits of using aliases when writing firewall policies (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Makes policies more readable

  • Changes to policy rules that use aliases are auto updated.

  • End users are applied to the proper role

Explanation

Question 43 of 109

1

Which of the following is true of an Aruba Mobility Controller acting as a layer 2 switch? (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The Mobility Controller is the client's default router.

  • The Mobility Controller acts as a bridge.

  • All stations must use the same VLAN

  • Uplink ports on the Mobility Controller can use 802.1q

Explanation

Question 44 of 109

1

A Remote AP uses which type of secure tunnel to communicate with a controller:

Select one of the following:

  • NAT-T

  • IPSec

  • PPTP

  • GRE

Explanation

Question 45 of 109

1

Which ARM function converts APs with excess capacity into Air Monitors?

Select one of the following:

  • Airtime fairness

  • Coordinated access to a single channel

  • Co-channel interference mitigation

  • Client aware scanning

Explanation

Question 46 of 109

1

Which roles must be configured via the startup wizard when captive portal is being configured (select all that apply)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Roles are not used on the Aruba system

  • Pre-Authentication role

  • Authenticated role

  • Unauthenticated role

Explanation

Question 47 of 109

1

Which of the following needs to be done prior to attempting to use the GUI quick setup of a factory defaulted Aruba S3500 Mobility Access Switch?

Select one of the following:

  • Set the S3500 IP address to the 172.16.0.0 range

  • Quick-Setup needs to be enabled on the LCD Panel

  • Connect the S3500 to the network for DHCP

  • Set the laptop IP address to the 192.168.0.0 range

Explanation

Question 48 of 109

1

Which of the following information is gathered by APs during scanning periods? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • MAC addresses of neighboring APs

  • Security threats in the surroundings

  • Type of non-802.11 interference detected

  • Interfering Clients connected to other APs

Explanation

Question 49 of 109

1

Which of the following statements about management accounts is false?

Select one of the following:

  • The root account can be used to monitor access points connected to the controller

  • The guest-provisioning account can see the controller’s configuration but cannot change it

  • The read-only account cannot delete internal database entries

  • The guest-provisioning account can make changes to the internal database

Explanation

Question 50 of 109

1

Which of the following deployment types is NOT a valid option when using the AP Wizard?

Select one of the following:

  • Campus

  • Mesh

  • Roaming

  • Remote Mesh

Explanation

Question 51 of 109

1

Which Aruba controllers are able to provide IEEE 802.3af POE? (Choose all the correct answers.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • 3200

  • 620

  • 650

  • 6000

Explanation

Question 52 of 109

1

Which of the following controllers has an integrated single radio AP?

Select one of the following:

  • 3200

  • 620

  • 650

  • 651

Explanation

Question 53 of 109

1

What is the maximum number of campus APs supported by a 620 controller?

Select one of the following:

  • 32

  • 8

  • 16

  • 24

Explanation

Question 54 of 109

1

Which access point models support concurrent operations in both the “b/g” band as well as the “a”
band? (Choose all the correct answers.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • RAP2

  • AP-120

  • AP-105

  • AP-125

  • AP-135

Explanation

Question 55 of 109

1

Which of the following APs do not support dual radio operations? (Choose all the correct
answers.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • RAP-5

  • AP-125

  • AP-120

  • AP-124

Explanation

Question 56 of 109

1

Which of the following APs support remote AP operation?

Select one of the following:

  • AP-105

  • AP-125

  • RAP2

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 57 of 109

1

An Aruba based network has a Master and three local controllers. No APs terminate on the Master
controller. IDS is desired, so the administrator wants to install the "RFProtect license."
On which controller should the license be installed?

Select one of the following:

  • master controller since it performs the IDS analysis

  • the local controllers since the APs terminate there

  • all of the controllers

  • this isn't the correct license for this purpose

Explanation

Question 58 of 109

1

What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?

Select one of the following:

  • controller's MAC address and the feature description

  • controller's MAC address and the certificate number

  • controller's Serial Number and the feature description

  • controller's Serial Number and the certificate number

Explanation

Question 59 of 109

1

What are the PEF-NG license limits based on?

Select one of the following:

  • Number of APs

  • Limit One per controller

  • Number of users

  • Number of local controllers

Explanation

Question 60 of 109

1

Which of the following licenses are consumed by RAP?

Select one of the following:

  • AP license

  • PEF-NG license

  • PEF-V license

  • No license required

Explanation

Question 61 of 109

1

The permanent licenses on the controller will be deleted with the use of which command?

Select one of the following:

  • delete license

  • write erase

  • Licenses cannot be deleted once activated

  • write erase all

Explanation

Question 62 of 109

1

Which statement is true about the Content Security License?

Select one of the following:

  • Applied to the master controller

  • Applied to all the controllers in the network

  • It is based on number of users

  • It is based on number of APs

Explanation

Question 63 of 109

1

What is the best practice regarding licensing for a backup master to support Master Redundancy?

Select one of the following:

  • Backup master only requires the AP license

  • License limits should be the same on primary master and backup Master

  • Licenses are pushed from the primary to the backup Master along with the configuration

  • Backup Master does not require licenses to support master redundancy

Explanation

Question 64 of 109

1

Which may be applied directly to an interface? (Choose all the correct answers.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Access List (ACL)

  • Firewall Policy

  • Roles

  • RF Plan Map

Explanation

Question 65 of 109

1

What new firewall action was added specifically for use with Aruba's Content Security Service?
VisualRF supports import of floor plans from:

Select one of the following:

  • dst-nat

  • dual-nat

  • route dst-nat

  • redirect to tunnel

Explanation

Question 66 of 109

1

When creating a firewall policy, which of the following parameters are required? (Choose all the
correct answers.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Destination

  • Service

  • Source

  • Log

  • Action

Explanation

Question 67 of 109

1

In all unmodified default AAA profiles, in which default initial role is the user placed?

Select one of the following:

  • trusted-ap

  • guest

  • pre-guest

  • logon

Explanation

Question 68 of 109

1

When are the system-defined default roles added to the configuration on the controller?

Select one of the following:

  • when the controller is first booted

  • when an RF Proctect license is added to the controller

  • when created manually

  • when a PEF-NG license is added to the controller

Explanation

Question 69 of 109

1

When a user first associates to the WLAN, what role are they given?

Select one of the following:

  • the guest role

  • the stateful role

  • the initial role in the server group profile

  • the initial role in the AAA profile

Explanation

Question 70 of 109

1

Which of the following could be used to set a user's post-authentication role or VLAN association?
(Choose all the correct answers.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • AAA default role for authentication method

  • Server Derivation Rule

  • Vendor Specific Attributes

  • AP Derivation Rule

Explanation

Question 71 of 109

1

Which describe "roles" as used on Aruba Mobility Controllers? (Choose all the correct answers.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Roles are assigned to users.

  • Roles are applied to interfaces.

  • Policies are built from roles.

  • A user can belong to only one role at a time.

Explanation

Question 72 of 109

1

Which netdestination aliases are built into the controller? (Choose all the correct answers.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • mswitch

  • any

  • user

  • guest

Explanation

Question 73 of 109

1

What are aliases used for?

Select one of the following:

  • improve performance

  • simplify the configuration process

  • tie IP addresses to ports

  • assign rules to policies

Explanation

Question 74 of 109

1

Which of the following statements allows a user to initiate an HTTP session to other devices?

Select one or more of the following:

  • any alias internal-nets svc-dns permit

  • user any svc-http permit

  • user user svc-http permit

  • any any svc-http permit

Explanation

Question 75 of 109

1

The Aruba Policy Enforcement Firewall (PEF) module supports destination network address
translation (dst-nat).
Which is a common use of this statement in an Aruba configuration?

Select one of the following:

  • source the IP addresses of users to specific IP address

  • redirect HTTP sessions to Captive Portal

  • redirect Access Points to another Aruba controller

  • provide a telnet connection to the controller

Explanation

Question 76 of 109

1

The Aruba Policy Enforcement Firewall (PEF) module supports source network address
translation (src-nat).
Which is a common use of this statement in an Aruba configuration?

Select one of the following:

  • provide a single source IP address for users in a role

  • redirect Captive Portal HTTP sessions

  • redirect Access Points to another Aruba controller

  • provide IP addresses to clients

Explanation

Question 77 of 109

1

The network administrator wishes to terminate the VPN encryption on the Aruba controller.
When writing a firewall rule to accomplish the task of automatically moving the VPN traffic for the
wireless clients from a third party VPN concentrator to an Aruba controller, which action needs to
be configured in the rule?

Select one of the following:

  • redirect to ESI group

  • source NAT

  • destination NAT

  • redirect to tunnel

Explanation

Question 78 of 109

1

Review the following truncated output from an Aruba controller for this item.
Based on the above output from an Aruba controller, an unauthenticated user assigned to the
logon role attempts to start an http session to IP address 172.16.43.170.
What will happen?

Select one of the following:

  • the user's traffic will be passed to the IP address because of the policy statement:
    user any svc-http dst-nat 8080

  • the user's traffic will be passed to the IP address because of the policy statement:
    user any svc-https dst-nat 8081

  • the user's traffic will be passed to the IP address because of the policy statement:
    user any svc-http-proxy1 dst-nat 8088

  • the user will not reach the IP address because of the policy statement:
    user any svc-http dst-nat 8080

  • the user will not reach the IP address because of the implicit deny any any at the end of the
    policy.

Explanation

Question 79 of 109

1

Refer to the following configuration segment for this item.
ip access-list session anewone
user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit
user host 10.1.1.1 any deny
user any any permit
Based on the above Aruba Mobility Controller configuration segment, which statements best
describe this policy? (Choose all the correct answers.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • The rule user host 10.1.1.1 any deny is redundant because of the implicit deny all at the end.

  • The rule user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit is redundant because of the user any
    any permit at the end.

  • The two rules user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit and user host 10.1.1.1 any deny
    need to be re-sequenced.

  • This list is fine as is.

Explanation

Question 80 of 109

1

Refer to the following configuration segment for this item.
netdestination "internal"
no invert
network 172.16.43.0 255.255.255.0 position 1
range 172.16.11.0 172.16.11.16 position 2
!
ip access-list session "My-Policy"
alias "user" alias "internal" service_any permit queue low
!
A user frame is evaluated against this access-list with the following attributes:
Source IP: 172.17.49.3 Destination IP: 10.100.86.37 Destination Port: 80
Referring to the above file segment, how will the frame be handled by this access-list?

Select one of the following:

  • The frame will be dropped because of the implicit deny all at the end of the netdestination definition

  • The frame will be dropped because of the implicit deny all at the end of the access list.

  • The frame will be forwarded because of the implicit permit all at the end of the access list.

  • The frame will be passed because there is no service specified in the access list.

  • The frame will be dropped because there is no service specified in the access list.

Explanation

Question 81 of 109

1

ip access-list session anewone
user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit
user any any permit
host 10.1.1.1 host 10.2.2.2 any deny
A user sends a frame with the following attributes:
Source IP: 10.1.1.1 Destination IP: 10.2.2.2 Destination Port: 25
Based on the above Mobility Controller configuration file segment, what will this policy do with the
user frame?

Select one of the following:

  • The frame is discarded because of the implicit deny all at the end of the policy.

  • The frame is discarded because of the statement: user host 10.1.1.1 host 10.2.2.2 deny.

  • The frame is accepted because of the statement: user any any permit.

  • The frame is accepted because of the statement: user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit.

  • This is not a valid policy.

Explanation

Question 82 of 109

1

ip access-list session anewone
user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit
user host 10.1.1.1 any deny
user any any permit
Referring to the above portion of a Mobility Controller configuration file, what can you conclude?
(Choose all of the correct answers.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • This is a session firewall policy.

  • This is an extended Access Control List (ACL).

  • Any traffic going to destination 10.1.1.1 will be denied.

  • Any traffic going to destination 10.2.2.2 will be denied.

  • Any traffic going to destination 172.16.100.100 will be permitted.

Explanation

Question 83 of 109

1

As a user moves through the authentication process, which of the following is not used in a
derivation rule?

Select one of the following:

  • MAC address

  • OS version

  • SSID

  • Radius attribute

Explanation

Question 84 of 109

1

Other than a user role, what attribute can be applied to a user with a derivation rule?

Select one of the following:

  • SSID

  • MAC

  • VLAN

  • IP Address

Explanation

Question 85 of 109

1

Which is an Aruba specific DSA that can be used in a user derivation rule?

Select one of the following:

  • user login name

  • authentication server

  • location

  • controller Loopback address

Explanation

Question 86 of 109

1

Which match condition can be used by a server derivation rule?

Select one of the following:

  • greater than

  • less than

  • inverse of

  • contains

Explanation

Question 87 of 109

1

Where are Aruba Vendor Specific Attributes (VSA) programmed?

Select one of the following:

  • controller

  • client

  • authentication server

  • Internal user database

Explanation

Question 88 of 109

1

View the Server group screen shot above.
A company has provisioned the same VAP, AAA and SSID profiles at both its Miami and NY
offices. This Server Group is applied for 802.1x authentication at both locations. The user's
credentials are only found in the Miami Radius server “RadiusMiami”. There is no Radius
synchronization. What happens when the user attempts to authenticate?

Select one of the following:

  • The controller recognizes the users Domain and sends the authentication request directly to RadiusMiami.

  • The request is initially sent to RadiusNY1 then RadiusNY1 redirects, the controller, to send the authentication request to RadiusMiami

  • RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. No other action is taken.

  • RadiusNY1 receives the request and returns a deny. The authentications request will then be sent to RadiusMiami.

Explanation

Question 89 of 109

1

View the Server group and User Roles screen shots above.
A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard
radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. The user was placed in the guest Role.
What statements below are correct?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The user was placed in the 802.1x authentication default Role guest

  • The user was placed in the initial Role guest

  • Role derivation failed because roles are case sensitive

  • Role derivation failed because the incorrect operation “value-of” was used

  • 802.1x authentication failed so the user was automatically placed in the guest Role

Explanation

Question 90 of 109

1

A user associated to an SSID with 802.1x using this server group. RadiusNY returned a standard
radius attribute of filter-Id with a value of “employee”. What Role will the user get?

Select one of the following:

  • The User will get the Emp Role

  • The user will get the 802.1x authentication default Role

  • The User will get the employee Role

  • The User will get the Employee Role

  • The User will get the initial Role

Explanation

Question 91 of 109

1

Which profiles are required in an AP Group to enable an SSID with VLAN 1, WPA2 and LMSIP?

Select one of the following:

  • Virtual-ap
    ap mesh-radio-profile
    ap system profile

  • Wlan ssid-profile
    ap-system-profile
    virtual-ap profile

  • Virtual-ap profile
    ap-system profile
    aaa profile

  • 802.1X authentication profile
    wlan ssid-profile
    virtual-ap profile

Explanation

Question 92 of 109

1

A user connected to a Captive Portal VAP successfully. When the user opens their browser and
tries to access their homepage, they get redirected as expected to another URL on the Aruba
Controller. However, they see an error message that web authenticatio
n has been disabled. What might be a cause of this?

Select one of the following:

  • The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the initial role

  • The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the AAA profile

  • A server group has not been assigned to the captive portal profile

  • An initial role has not been assigned to the AAA profile

Explanation

Question 93 of 109

1

A customer has configured a 3000 controller with the following commands:
Vlan 55
Vlan 56
Vlan 57
Interface gigabitethernet 1/0
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk native vlan 55
switchport trunk allowed vlan 55-57
Which of the following sentences best describes this port?

Select one of the following:

  • All traffic in vlan 55 will be dropped and all traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be trunked with and
    802.1Q tag

  • All traffic in vlan 55, 56 and 57 will be trunked with an 802.1Q tag

  • All traffic in vlan 55 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 56 and 57 traffic will be trunked untagged

  • All traffic in vlan 56 and 57 will be sent with an 802.1Q tag while vlan 55 traffic will be trunked untagged

Explanation

Question 94 of 109

1

A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with
L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn't yet transitioned to
the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN
connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this?
Select all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Logging level debugging security process localdb

  • Logging level debugging security process l2tp

  • Logging level debugging security process dot1x

  • Logging level debugging security process crypto

Explanation

Question 95 of 109

1

The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a
VAP.
If machine authentication passes and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?

Select one of the following:

  • employee

  • guest

  • contractor

  • logon

  • you can't tell

Explanation

Question 96 of 109

1

The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a
VAP.
If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?

Select one of the following:

  • employee

  • guest

  • contractor

  • Captive Portal

  • Logon

  • no role will be assigned

Explanation

Question 97 of 109

1

What cannot be configured from the Initial Configuration wizards?

Select one of the following:

  • Controller name.

  • Syslog server and levels.

  • User firewall policy.

  • User derivation rules

Explanation

Question 98 of 109

1

When you create a WLAN SSID in the WLAN/LAN wizard what AP group is it automatically added
to?

Select one of the following:

  • The air-monitors group

  • The first configured AP group

  • The Default AP group

  • It is only added to the 'All Profiles' section

Explanation

Question 99 of 109

1

The reusable wizards are accessible in which one of the following ways?

Select one of the following:

  • On startup through the CLI

  • Through the CLI, after the initial CLI wizard has been completed

  • In the Web UI under maintenance.

  • In the Web UI under configuration

Explanation

Question 100 of 109

1

What additional fields must be configured in the configuration wizard if the controller role is
selected as a local instead of a standalone controller?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The Local's SNMPv3 user name and password

  • The Master IP address

  • The Local's loopback address

  • The IPSec PSK for Master/Local communication

Explanation

Question 101 of 109

1

The configuration wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?

Select one or more of the following:

  • NTP to a time server

  • Manually setting the date time

  • Daylight savings time

  • Only GMT can be configured

Explanation

Question 102 of 109

1

When configuring ports in the configuration wizard, which of the following are not options for
configuration?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Inter-VLAN routing

  • Source NAT

  • Trusted

  • LACP

Explanation

Question 103 of 109

1

What Wizards can be used to create a new AP Group?

Select one or more of the following:

  • AP Wizard

  • Controller Wizard

  • WLAN/LAN Wizard

  • License Wizard

  • AP configurations Wizard

Explanation

Question 104 of 109

1

By default, which CLI based remote access method is enabled on Aruba controllers?

Select one of the following:

  • rsh

  • Telnet

  • SSH

  • Telnet and SSH

  • Telnet, SSH and rsh

Explanation

Question 105 of 109

1

An Aruba controller can be configured to support which CLI based remote access methods?

Select one of the following:

  • RSH

  • Telnet

  • SSH

  • Telnet and SSH

  • SSH and RSH

Explanation

Question 106 of 109

1

The Aruba controller's Command Line Interface can be accessed from WITHIN the browser based
Web User Interface using which method?

Select one of the following:

  • It's not possible to access the CLI from within the WebUI

  • Embedded Telnet client

  • Java based SSH client

  • Proprietary serial over Ethernet client

Explanation

Question 107 of 109

1

As an admin/root user, what other types of role-based management users can be created on
Aruba controllers? (Choose all the correct answers)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Auditing-compliance user

  • Read only user

  • Location-api-management user

  • Guest provisioning user

Explanation

Question 108 of 109

1

Which log type should be enabled to troubleshoot IPSec authentication issues on Aruba
Controllers?

Select one of the following:

  • Security Logs

  • Management Logs

  • Wireless Logs

  • IDS Logs

Explanation

Question 109 of 109

1

Referring to the above screen capture,
if an administrator desires to change a specific AP into an AM without assigning the AP to a new
group, which menus could be used?

Select one of the following:

  • Network > Controller

  • Wireless > AP Configuration

  • Wireless > AP Installation

  • Advanced Services > Wireless

  • Advanced Services > All Profiles

Explanation

Previous
Next