Megan Webb
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Veterinary Nursing Quiz on General Nursing 1-50, created by Megan Webb on 09/05/2017.

18
1
0
Megan Webb
Created by Megan Webb almost 7 years ago
Close

General Nursing 1-50

Question 1 of 50

1

A dog with weakness of the pelvic hind limbs has:

Select one of the following:

  • Paraplegia

  • Paraparesis

  • Hemiplegia

  • Tetraplegia

Explanation

Question 2 of 50

1

A dog with hemiplegia has paralysis of:

Select one of the following:

  • The pelvic limbs

  • The thoracic limbs

  • Two limbs

  • The limbs on the same side

Explanation

Question 3 of 50

1

Which ONE of the following does NOT cause seizures?

Select one of the following:

  • Liver failure

  • Distemper

  • Hypocalcaemia

  • Heart failure

Explanation

Question 4 of 50

1

Which ONE of the following drugs can be used for the oral treatment of epilepsy?

Select one of the following:

  • Phenylbutazone

  • Acepromazine

  • Trimethoprim sulphonamide

  • Phenobarbitone

Explanation

Question 5 of 50

1

A dog in status epilepticus requires:

Select one of the following:

  • Increased oxygen

  • Intravenous catheter placement and intravenous anticoagulants

  • A blood glucose measurement

  • Pentobarbitone, e.g. Sagatal

Explanation

Question 6 of 50

1

Define epistaxis

Select one of the following:

  • Difficulty in swallowing

  • Bleeding from the lungs

  • Low arterial oxygen

  • Bleeding from the nose

Explanation

Question 7 of 50

1

What is endocarditis?

Select one of the following:

  • A congenital heart defect

  • Chronic degeneration of a heart valve

  • Chronic degeneration of heart muscle

  • Infection of a heart valve

Explanation

Question 8 of 50

1

An increased number of white blood cells is termed:

Select one of the following:

  • Leucopenia

  • Neutrophilia

  • Lymphocytosis

  • Leucocytosis

Explanation

Question 9 of 50

1

Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with epistaxis?

Select one of the following:

  • Aspergillosis

  • Distemper

  • Neoplasia

  • Trauma

Explanation

Question 10 of 50

1

Which ONE of the following is NOT a congenital heart disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Pulmonic stenosis

  • Aortic stenosis

  • Cardiomyopathy

  • Ventricular septal defect

Explanation

Question 11 of 50

1

Syncope is a common clinical sign with aortic stenosis. What does syncope mean?

Select one of the following:

  • May have fainting attacks due to poor cerebral perfusion

  • Becomes short of breath easily after exercise

  • Develops pericardial effusion causing hypertension

  • Becomes anaemic

Explanation

Question 12 of 50

1

Rickets is caused by a deficiency in vitamin:

Select one of the following:

  • D

  • C

  • A

  • E

Explanation

Question 13 of 50

1

Which ONE of the following is considered an inherited or congenital heart defect?

Select one of the following:

  • Pericarditis

  • Cardiomyopathy

  • Aortic stenosis

  • Endocardiosis

Explanation

Question 14 of 50

1

What is the normal range of blood glucose values for a fasting adult dog?

Select one of the following:

  • 11-14.5mmol/L

  • 3-5 mmg/L

  • 5-8 mmg/L

  • 3-5 mmol/L

Explanation

Question 15 of 50

1

Which ONE of the following should be decreased in the diet of an animal with chronic renal failure?

Select one of the following:

  • Protein

  • Fat

  • Water

  • Carbohydrate

Explanation

Question 16 of 50

1

Cushing's syndrome may develop when the adrenal cortex:

Select one of the following:

  • Decreases secretion of aldosterone

  • Decreases secretion of cortisol

  • Increases secretion of aldosterone

  • Increases secretion of cortisol

Explanation

Question 17 of 50

1

Which of the following insulins has the most rapid action?

Select one of the following:

  • Lente

  • Isophane

  • Protamine zinc

  • Soluble

Explanation

Question 18 of 50

1

Glycogen is stored in the:

Select one of the following:

  • Brain

  • Liver

  • Pancreas

  • Stomach

Explanation

Question 19 of 50

1

Which ONE of the following hormones is NOT produced in the adrenal gland?

Select one of the following:

  • Cortisol

  • Antidiuretic hormone

  • Aldosterone

  • Adrenaline

Explanation

Question 20 of 50

1

Ketoacidosis is a complication of:

Select one of the following:

  • Hyperadrenocorticism

  • Diabetes insipidus

  • Diabetes mellitus

  • Hyperthyroidism

Explanation

Question 21 of 50

1

Pleurisy is:

Select one of the following:

  • Inflammation of the pleura

  • Inflammation of the lungs

  • Diaphragmatic spasms

  • Fluid in the lungs

Explanation

Question 22 of 50

1

When radiographing a conscious animal in acute respiratory distress, what radiographic view should you avoid?

Select one of the following:

  • Right lateral

  • Dorso-ventral

  • Ventro-dorsal

  • Left lateral

Explanation

Question 23 of 50

1

What are diuretics used for?

Select one of the following:

  • To reduce ascites

  • To reduce pulmonary oedema

  • To relax muscle in the bronchiole

  • All of the above

  • A and B

Explanation

Question 24 of 50

1

Canine infectious respiratory disease may be caused by:

Select one of the following:

  • Microsporum canis

  • Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae

  • Bordetella bronchiseptica

  • Toxoplasma gondii

Explanation

Question 25 of 50

1

Which ONE of the following is NOT zoonotic?

Select one of the following:

  • Demodectic mange

  • Sarcoptic mange

  • Aspergillus

  • Pasteurella

Explanation

Question 26 of 50

1

Antiserum provides:

Select one of the following:

  • Active immunity

  • Passive immunity

  • Active and passive immunity

  • Maternal immunity

Explanation

Question 27 of 50

1

For which ONE of the following infectious diseases is a vaccine NOT available?

Select one of the following:

  • Feline viral rhinotracheitis

  • Feline calcivirus

  • Feline infectious peritonitis

  • Feline leukaemia virus

Explanation

Question 28 of 50

1

The oocysts of toxoplasma become infective when they sporulate. This is usually:

Select one of the following:

  • Within 24 hours after shedding

  • After 3 days

  • Within 2 hours

  • After a week

Explanation

Question 29 of 50

1

Which form of immunity best describes vaccination?

Select one of the following:

  • Active

  • Passive

  • Maternal

  • In utero

Explanation

Question 30 of 50

1

An organism which transfers infection by being ingested is known as a:

Select one of the following:

  • Vector

  • Fomite

  • Transport host

  • Paratenic host

Explanation

Question 31 of 50

1

Which ONE of the following diseases may be transferred by the aerosol (coughing or sneezing) method?

Select one of the following:

  • Parvovirus

  • Infectious hepatitis

  • Canine distemper virus

  • Leptospirosis

Explanation

Question 32 of 50

1

Tortoises can cause zoonotic diseases in humans. Which is the bacterial infection?

Select one of the following:

  • Campylobacter

  • Salmonella

  • Leptospirosis

  • Pseudomonas

Explanation

Question 33 of 50

1

Vaccines should be stored at:

Select one of the following:

  • 4-8 degrees

  • 8-12 degrees

  • 12-16 degrees

  • 16-20 degrees

Explanation

Question 34 of 50

1

The causal agent of feline infectious peritonitis is:

Select one of the following:

  • Coronavirus

  • Calicivirus

  • Rhabdovirus

  • Parvovirus

Explanation

Question 35 of 50

1

The causal agent of feline panleucopaenia is:

Select one of the following:

  • Coronavirus

  • Calcivirus

  • Rhabdovirus

  • Parvovirus

Explanation

Question 36 of 50

1

One of the causal agents of 'cat flu' is:

Select one of the following:

  • Coronavirus

  • Calcivirus

  • Rhabdovirus

  • Parvovirus

Explanation

Question 37 of 50

1

The parasite that causes feline infectious anaemia is:

Select one of the following:

  • Haemobartonella felis

  • Felicola subrostratus

  • Ctenocephalides felis

  • Trichuris vulpis

Explanation

Question 38 of 50

1

Which ONE of the following diseases is zoonotic?

Select one of the following:

  • Leptospirosis canicola

  • Canine parvovirus

  • Canine infectious hepatitis

  • Canine distemper virus

Explanation

Question 39 of 50

1

The disease caused by oncornavirus is:

Select one of the following:

  • FeLV

  • FIV

  • FIE

  • FIP

Explanation

Question 40 of 50

1

Dermatomycosis is:

Select one of the following:

  • Fungal infection of the skin

  • Bacterial infection of the skin

  • Viral infection of the skin

  • Parasitic infection of the skin

Explanation

Question 41 of 50

1

The causal agent of canine infectious hepatitis is:

Select one of the following:

  • Parvovirus

  • Adenovirus

  • Rhabdovirus

  • Parainfluenza

Explanation

Question 42 of 50

1

The causal agent(s) of leptospirosis in the dog is/are:

Select one of the following:

  • L. canicola and L. icterohaemorrhagiae

  • L. adenovirus and L. coronavirus

  • L parvovirus and ; calicivirus

  • L. haemobartonella

Explanation

Question 43 of 50

1

The causal organism for canine distemper virus is:

Select one of the following:

  • Leptospirosis canicola

  • Canine adenovirus type 1

  • Parvovirus

  • Paramyxovirus

Explanation

Question 44 of 50

1

Which ONE of the following organisms can last in the environment for up to a year?

Select one of the following:

  • Canine parvovirus

  • Canine distemper virus

  • Canine hepatitis

  • Leptospirosis icterohaemorrhagiae

Explanation

Question 45 of 50

1

Viral diseases can be positively diagnosed in the live animal using:

Select one of the following:

  • Histology

  • Clinical signs

  • Rising antibody titres

  • A single measurement of serum antibody levels

Explanation

Question 46 of 50

1

'Blue eye' is a complication encountered in dogs vaccinated with:

Select one of the following:

  • Live canine distemper vaccine

  • Inactivated canine adenovirus-1 vaccine

  • Live canine adenovirus-1 vaccine

  • Leptospira vaccine

Explanation

Question 47 of 50

1

Canine infectious tracheobronchitis is transmitted by:

Select one of the following:

  • Aerosol

  • Ingestion

  • Placenta

  • Blood

Explanation

Question 48 of 50

1

Vaccination of an animal will produce:

Select one of the following:

  • Natural passive immunity

  • Natural active immunity

  • Artificial passive immunity

  • Artificial active immunity

Explanation

Question 49 of 50

1

Animals are not routinely vaccinated before they reach eight to nine weeks of age because:

Select one of the following:

  • Their immune system is too poorly developed to be able to respond

  • There may still be maternal antibodies present

  • The dose of vaccine would be too great and the animals would develop the clinical signs

  • They are not at risk from infectious diseases at this stage

Explanation

Question 50 of 50

1

Which ONE of the following statements is true about killed vaccines?

Select one of the following:

  • Only one dose is needed for good protection

  • They may cause the disease when given

  • They are less long lasting in effect than live vaccines

  • All vaccines used are killed vaccines

Explanation

Previous
Next