11722792
Descripción
Test por Daniel Neag, actualizado hace más de 1 año
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Creado por Daniel Neag
hace más de 6 años
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Pregunta 1
Pregunta
Consider the following list of test process activities:
I. Analysis and design
II. Test closure activities
III. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
IV. Planning and control
V. Implementation and execution
Which of the following places these in their logical sequence?
Respuesta
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A. I, II, III, IV and V.
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B. IV, I, V, III and II.
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C. IV, I, V, II and III.
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D. I, IV, V, III and II.
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test plan. Which one of the following test objectives might conflict with the proper tester mindset?
Respuesta
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A. Show that the system works before we ship it.
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B. Find as many defects as possible.
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C. Reduce the overall level of product risk.
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D. Prevent defects through early involvement.
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?
Respuesta
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A. Test management and control
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B. Test specification and design
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C. Test execution and logging
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D. Performance and monitoring
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
Consider the following types of tools:
V. Test management tools
W. Static analysis tools
X. Modeling tools
Y. Dynamic analysis tools
Z. Performance testing tools
Which of the following of these tools is most likely to be used by developers
Respuesta
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A. W, X and Y
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B. V, Y and Z
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C. V, W and Z
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D. X, Y and Z
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
What is a test condition?
Respuesta
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A. An input, expected outcome, pre-condition and post-condition
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B. The steps to be taken to get the system to a given point
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C. Something that can be tested
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D. A specific state of the software, e.g. before a test can be run
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
Which of the following general testing principles are true?
I. Testing shows the presence of defects but not the absence of defects
II. Testing of combinations of inputs and outputs will find all defects
III. Testing should start after the completion of key development tasks
IV. Testing of safety-critical software is similar to testing web applications
Respuesta
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A. I is true; II, III and IV are false
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B. II is true; I, III and IV are false
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C. I and II are true; III and N are false
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D. II and III are true; I and IV are false
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched on. When the temperature reaches 21 degrees, the heating is switched off. What is the minimum set of test input values to cover all valid equivalence partitions?
Respuesta
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A. 15, 19 and 25 degrees
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B. 17, 18, 20 and 21 degrees
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C. 18, 20 and 22 degrees
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D. 16 and 26 degrees
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
By creating future tests based on the results of previous tests, a tester is demonstrating what type of informal test design technique?
Respuesta
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A. Security testing
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B. Non-functional testing
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C. Exploratory testing
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D. Interoperability testing
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
What is the purpose of confirmation testing?
Respuesta
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A. To confirm the users' confidence that the system will meet their business needs.
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B. To confirm that a defect has been fixed correctly.
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C. To confirm that no unexpected changes have been introduced or uncovered as a result of changes made.
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D. To confirm that the detailed logic of a component conforms to its specification.
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
Which success factors are required for good tool support within an organization?
Respuesta
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A. Acquiring the best tool and ensuring that all testers use it.
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B. Adapting processes to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits.
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C. Setting ambitious objectives for tool benefits and aggressive deadlines for achieving them.
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D. Adopting practices from other successful organizations and ensuring that initial ways of using the tool are maintained.
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
Which of the following best describes integration testing?
Respuesta
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A. Testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components.
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B. Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration.
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C. Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.
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D. Integration of automated software test suites with the product.
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
According to the ISTQB Glossary, debugging:
Respuesta
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A. Is part of the fundamental testing process.
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B. Includes the repair of the cause of a failure.
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C. Involves intentionally adding known defects.
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D. Follows the steps of a test procedure.
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
Which of the following could be a root cause of a defect in financial software in which an incorrect interest rate is calculated?
Respuesta
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A. Insufficient funds were available to pay the interest rate calculated.
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B. Insufficient calculations of compound interest were included.
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C. Insufficient training was given to the developers concerning compound interest alculation rules.
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D. Inaccurate calculators were used to calculate the expected results.
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
ssume postal rates for 'light letters' are:
$0.25 up to 10 grams;
$0.35 up to 50 grams;
$0.45 up to 75 grams;
$0.55 up to 100 grams.
Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?
Respuesta
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A. 0, 9,19, 49, 50, 74, 75, 99,100
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B. 10, 50, 75,100, 250, 1000
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C. 0, 1,10,11, 50, 51, 75, 76,100,101
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D. 25, 26, 35, 36, 45, 46, 55, 56
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
Consider the following decision table for Car rental.
Given this decision table, what is the expected result for the following test cases?
TC1: A 26-year-old on business but with violations or accidents on his driving record
TC2: A 62-year-old tourist with a clean driving record
Respuesta
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A. TC1: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with premium charge.
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B. TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
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C. TC1: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
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D. TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Don't supply car.
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
What is exploratory testing?
Respuesta
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A. The process of anticipating or guessing where defects might occur.
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B. A systematic approach to identifying specific equivalent classes of input.
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C. The testing carried out by a chartered engineer.
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D. Concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning.
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
What does it mean if a set of tests has achieved 90% statement coverage?
Respuesta
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A. 9 out of 10 decision outcomes have been exercised by this set of tests.
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B. 9 out of 10 statements have been exercised by this set of tests.
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C. 9 out of 10 tests have been run on this set of software.
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D. 9 out of 10 requirements statements about the software are correct.
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the primary goal is establishing confidence in the system. Which of the following is a likely name for this document?
Respuesta
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A. Master test plan
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B. System test plan
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C. Acceptance test plan
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D. Project plan
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
What is the best description of static analysis?
Respuesta
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A. The analysis of batch programs
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B. The reviewing of test plans
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C. The analysis of program code or other software artifacts
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D. The use of black-box testing
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
System test execution on a project is planned for eight weeks. After a week of testing, a tester suggests that the test objective stated in the test plan of 'finding as many defects as possible during system test' might be more closely met by redirecting the test effort according to which test principle?
Respuesta
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A. Impossibility of exhaustive testing.
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B. Importance of early testing.
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C. The absence of errors fallacy.
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D. Defect clustering.
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
Consider the following activities that might relate to configuration management:
I. Identify and document the characteristics of a test item
II. Control changes to the characteristics of a test item
III. Check a test item for defects introduced by a change
IV. Record and report the status of changes to test items
V. Confirm that changes to a test item fixed a defect
Which of the following statements is true?
Respuesta
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A. Only I is a configuration management task.
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B. All are configuration management tasks.
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C. I, II and III are configuration management tasks.
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D. I, II and IV are configuration management tasks.
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
A test plan included the following clauses among the exit criteria:
# System test shall continue until all significant product risks have been covered to the extent specified in the product risk analysis document.
# System test shall continue until no must-fix defects remain against any significant product risks specified in the product risk analysis document.
During test execution, the test team detects 430 must-fix defects prior to release and all must-fix defects are resolved. After release, the customers find 212 new defects, none of which were detected during testing. This means that only 67% of the important defects were found prior to release, a percentage which is well below average in your industry. You are asked to find the root cause for the high number of field failures. Consider the following list of explanations:
I. Not all the tests planned for the significant product risks were executed.
II. The organization has unrealistic expectations of the percentage of defects that testing can find.
III. A version-control issue has resulted in the release of a version of the software that was used during early testing.
IV. The product risk analysis failed to identify all the important risks from a customer point of view.
V. The product risk analysis was not updated during the project as new information became available.
Which of the following statements indicate which explanations are possible root causes?
Respuesta
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A. II, III and IV are possible explanations, but I and V are not possible.
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B. All five are possible explanations.
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C. I, IV and V are possible explanations, but II and III are not possible.
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D. III, IV and V are possible explanations, but I and II are not possible.
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
What is the most important factor for successful performance of reviews?
Respuesta
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A. A separate scribe during the logging meeting
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B. Trained participants and review leaders
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C. The availability of tools to support the review process
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D. A reviewed test plan
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
Consider the following statements about maintenance testing:
I. It requires both re-test and regression test and may require additional new tests.
II. It is testing to show how easy it will be to maintain the system.
III. It is difficult to scope and therefore needs careful risk and impact analysis.
IV. It need not be done for emergency bug fixes.
Which of the statements are true?
Respuesta
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A. I and III
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B. I and IV
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C. II and III
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D. II and IV
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Software testing can be required to meet legal or contractual requirements.
II. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer's work.
III. Rigorous testing can help to reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment.
IV. Rigorous testing is used to prove that all failures have been found.
Respuesta
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A. I and III
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B. II and III
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C. II and IV
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D. III and IV
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
Which two specification-based testing techniques are most closely related to each other?
Respuesta
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A. Decision tables and state transition testing
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B. Equivalence partitioning and state transition testing
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C. Decision tables and boundary value analysis
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D. Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
Which of the following is an advantage of independent testing?
Respuesta
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A. Independent testers don't have to spend time communicating with the project team.
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B. Programmers can stop worrying about the quality of their work and focus on producing more code.
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C. The others on a project can pressure the independent testers to accelerate testing at the end of the schedule.
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D. Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements, designs and implementations.
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
DDP formula that would apply for calculating DDP for the last level of testing prior to release to the field is
Respuesta
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A. DDP = {Defects (Testers) + Defects (Field)} / Defects (Testers)
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B. DDP = {Defects (Testers) + Defects (Field)} / Defects (Testers)
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C. DDP = Defects (Testers) / {Defects (Field) + Defects (Testers)}
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D. DDP = Defects (Testers) / {Defects (Field) - Defects (Testers)}
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
What would trigger the execution of maintenance testing?
Respuesta
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A. Inspection results and modification.
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B. Migration and inspection results.
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C. Migration and retirement of the system.
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D. Alpha testing results and migration.
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
Popular specification-based techniques are:
Respuesta
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A. Equivalence partitioning
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B. Boundary value analysis
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C. Decision tables
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D. All three described above
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
As a test leader you are collecting measures about defects. You recognize that after the first test cycle � covering all requirements - subsystem C has a defect density that is 150% higher than the average. Subsystem A on the other hand has a defect density that is 60% lower than the average.
What conclusions for the next test cycle could you draw from this fact?
Respuesta
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A. It is probable that subsystem C has still more hidden defects. Therefore we need to test subsystem C in more detail.
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B. Because we have already found many defects in subsystem C, we should concentrate testing resources n Subsystem A.
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C. Observed defect density does not allow any conclusions about the amount of additional testing.
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D. We should try to equalize the amount of testing over all modules to ensure that we test all subsystems evenly.
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
Which of the following is a TRUE statement about the use of static analysis tools?
Respuesta
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A. Static analysis tools can change the code to reduce complexity.
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B. Static analysis tools are intended to support developers only.
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C. Static analysis tools aid in understanding of code structure and dependencies.
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D. Static analysis tools cannot be used to enforce coding standards.
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
Which of the following best describes typical test exit criteria?
Respuesta
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A. Reliability measures, number of tests written, and product completeness.
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B. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, cost, schedule, tester availability and residual risks.
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C. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, amount of time spent testing and product completeness, number of defects.
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D. Time to market, residual defects, tester qualification, degree of tester independence, thoroughness measures and test cost.
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
How does testing contribute to software quality?
Respuesta
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A. Testing ensures that the system under test will not error out in a production environment.
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B. Testing identifies defects which ensures a successful product will be released to market.
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C. Testing increases the quality of a software system by avoiding defects in the system under test.
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D. Testing through verification and validation of functionality identifies defects in the system under test.
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
A company is going to provide their employees with a bonus which will be based on the employee's length of service in the company. The bonus calculation will be zero if they have been with the company for less than two years, 10% of their salary for more than two but less than five years, and 25% for five to ten years, 35% for ten years or more. The interface will not allow a negative value to be input, but it will allow a zero to be input.
How many equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the bonus?
Respuesta
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A. Two equivalence partitions.
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B. Three equivalence partitions.
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C. Four equivalence partitions.
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D. Five equivalence partitions.
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
Which of the statements about reviews are correct?
I. Reviews are useful because, through their use, defects can be found early, resulting in cost savings.
II. Reviews are useful because they help management understand the comparative skills of different developers.
III. Testers should not get involved in specification reviews because it can bias them unfavorably.
IV. Many early defects are found in reviews, lengthening the time needed for the development life cycle
Respuesta
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A. I
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B. IV
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C. I and IV
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D. I and III
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
What is integration testing?
Respuesta
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A. Integration of automated software test suites with the application under test.
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B. Testing performed to expose faults in the interaction between components and systems.
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C. Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration with the rest of the system.
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D. Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
Below you find a list of descriptions of problems that can be observed during testing or operation. Which is most likely a failure?
Respuesta
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A. The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box.
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B. One source code file included in the build was the wrong version
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C. The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables.
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D. The developer misinterpreted the computational requirement for that algorithm.
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
Which one of the following describes best the difference between testing
and debugging?
Respuesta
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A. Testing shows failures that are caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.
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B. Testing pinpoints the defects. De bugging analyzes the faults and proposes preventing activities.
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C. Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.
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D. Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures.
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
Which of the following is a good reason for a developer to use a Test Harness tool?
Respuesta
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A. To help the developer to compare differences between files and databases.
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B. To reduce the quantity of component tests needed to be run.
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C. To make it easier for developers to peer-test each other's code.
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D. To simplify running unit tests when related components are not available yet.
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