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Preguntas del test (200)
1(203) What design standards do you need to be aware for all military construction?
- AMilitary and government only.
- BMilitary, industrial, and government.
- CMilitary, industrial, and local ordinances
- DMetropolitan ordinances, military, and industrial.
2(203) Where can you find the military design standards for military construction?
- AAFMC.
- BAFCESA.
- CUS Army Corps of Engineers.
- DUnified Facilities Guide Specification.
3(204) In the Unified Soils Classification System, what type of soil group does the letter “M” designates?
- ASilt.
- BSand.
- CGravel.
- DHighly organic.
4(204) At least what percent of the soil must be retained on the No. 200 sieve for it to be classified as coarse grained?
- A10 percent.
- B20 percent.
- C40 percent.
- D50 percent.
5(204) What size sieve is used to distinguish between gravels and sands?
- ANo. 4
- BNo. 10
- CNo. 40
- DNo. 200
6(204) Which of these properties indicate whether or not soil contains clay?
- ACohesion.
- BPlasticity.
- CCompaction.
- DPermeability.
7(204) When wet soil is air-dried in a laboratory, the moisture is removed by evaporation until
- Aa constant weight is attained.
- Bthe meniscus in the pore openings restricts the rate of capillary rise.
- Cthe hygroscopic moisture in the soil is in equilibrium with the moisture vapor in the air.
- Dthe capillary fringe in the soil recedes to a point where it is in equilibrium with hygroscopic moisture.
8(204) What is the plasticity index of a soil with a liquid limit of 28 and a plastic limit of 21?
- A0.75.
- B1.33
- C7.00
- D49.0
9(205) What do we call the particle size distribution of a soil aggregate?
- AAngularity
- BDurability.
- CGradation.
- DGranularity.
10(205) A soil whose individual grains cover a narrow range of particle sizes is
- Aun-graded.
- Bgap-graded.
- Cwell-graded.
- Dpoorly graded.
11(205) What should be done if a structure is likely to be affected by the ground water table or by capillary action?
- ALower the grade line.
- BRaise the ground water table.
- CKeep the site location regardless of cost.
- DChange the site location if there is enough cause.
12(206) To prevent the flow of water from standing in low places and seeping into the ground, the minimum longitudinal grade of a ditch should be
- A0.2 percent.
- B0.5 percent.
- C2 percent.
- D5 percent
13(206) The maximum grade of ditch side slopes is determined by
- Athe nature of the soil.
- Bthe area to be drained.
- Cspecification limitations.
- Dthe equipment available.
14(206) Which of these conditions is a function of subsurface drainage?
- ATo lower the water table.
- BTo raise the water table.
- CTo maintain underground springs.
- DTo collect water in pools or layers beneath the surface.
15(206) What is the minimum distance required between the top of the base course and the natural water table if frost action is to be prevented?
- A2 feet
- B3 feet
- C4 feet
- D5 feet
16(207) Asphalt cement is usually made fluid by
- Aheating
- Badding alcohol
- Cmixing with coal tar
- Dadding ascorbic acid
17(208) Which of these is not one of the functions of aggregate in a bituminous pavement mix?
- AProvide a nonskid surface.
- BProvide a binder for the bitumen.
- CTransmit the load to the base course.
- DTake the abrasive action of the traffic.
18(208) Which of these can determine an aggregate’s affinity for water?
- AWash test.
- BStripping test
- CDistillation test
- DMohs hardness test
19(209) Which variables affect the final mix-design of a bituminous pavement?
- AMoisture content and aggregate size.
- BMoisture content, intended use, gradation, and angularity.
- CIntended use, binder type, loading, and maximum aggregate size.
- DPlasticity, binder type, maximum aggregate size, and angularity.
20 (209) A bituminous pavement mixture should be
- Adurable, workable, and porous.
- Bable to withstand traffic loads, durable, and porous
- Cable to withstand traffic loads, workable, and durable.
- Dworkable, able to withstand traffic loads, and durable.
21(210) Water’s main function in concrete mix is to
- Amake the mix workable and inhibit hydration.
- Bmake the mix workable and start hydration.
- Cincrease the weight of mix and inhibit hydration.
- Ddecrease the amount of mix and start hydration.
22(210) Fine aggregate used in cement paste should have a
- Arough shape to promote workability.
- Bround shape to promote workability.
- Cround shape to promote uniformity.
- Drough shape to promote uniformity.
23(210) To be suitable for construction, concrete should be
- Astrong, watertight, durable, and workable.
- Beconomical, strong, watertight, and uniform.
- Cdurable, watertight, workable, and uniform.
- Dwell graded, economical, strong, and watertight.
24(211) Which of these plastic concrete properties is affected as you add more aggregate to a given amount of cement paste?
- ANon-segregation.
- BWorkability.
- CUniformity.
- DDurability.
25(211) Which of these factors affects the watertightness of a concrete mix?
- AAggregate size.
- BAggregate gradation.
- CWater to cement ratio.
- DCement amount in mix.
26(212) The acceptable range for air content in air-entrained concrete is
- A2 to 5.5 percent.
- B3 to 6.6 percent
- C4 to 7.5 percent.
- D5 to 8.5 percent.
27(212) When too much silt and clay are present in a concrete mixture, the concrete surface
- Acannot withstand abrasion.
- Bmay be covered by hair cracks.
- Chas large cracks.
- Dis shiny.
28(213) Cracks in concrete may be controlled by
- Areducing restraint through the use of joints and increasing moisture to the concrete mix.
- Breducing steel stresses at service load conditions and increasing restraint through the use of joints.
- Cincreasing moisture to the concrete mix and providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement.
- Dproviding adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement and reducing restraint through the use of joints.
29(213) Which type of joint is used to allow placement of separate construction elements at different times?
- AControl joints.
- BSeismic joints.
- CExpansion joints.
- DConstruction joints.
30(214) The loads present within a structure are classified as
- Auniformly distributed loads and concentrated loads.
- Buniformly distributed loads and live loads.
- Cconcentrated loads and dead loads.
- Dlive loads and dead loads.
31(214) Which kind of stress in a structure occurs on the side opposite the load?
- AShear
- BTorsion
- CTension
- DCompression
32215) Walls, columns, piers, or pilasters resting on footings are used with
- Aspread foundations.
- Bmat foundations.
- Craft foundations.
- Dpile foundations.
33(215) In general, footings should be located so that they
- Arest on compacted organic soil.
- Bare at a minimum of 5 feet below undisturbed soil.
- Care above the ground water table and above the frost line.
- Dare above the ground water table but below the frost line.
34(215) A foundation that develops the load bearing capacity through friction with the adjacent soil
- Auses isolated footings.
- Buses continuous footings.
- Cis a type of pile foundation.
- Dis a type of spread foundation.
35(216) What type of concrete masonry unit CMU is not used for Air Force facilities?
- AType I, moisture controlled.
- BType II, moisture controlled.
- CType I, non-moisture controlled.
- DType II, non-moisture controlled.
36(217) When may structural steel for buildings be permanently exposed to weather?
- AWhen using hollow steel columns.
- BWhen using exterior structural steel.
- CWhen overall efficiency and economy will result.
- DWhen using non-expansion and non-contraction joints.
37(217) Temperature and deflection movements in a structural steel framing system are controlled by
- Arigid framing techniques.
- Bthe spacing between members.
- Cexpansion and contraction joints.
- Dwelding the connections instead of using rivets or bolts.
38(218) The dimensional stability of plywood is improved through
- Aadditional layers.
- Bcross-lamination.
- Cthe use of waterproof glue.
- Dadditives impregnated into the fibers.
39(218) In regard to wood framing, values known as allowable unit stresses consider the
- Aspecies and grade of wood members.
- Bstress values within the wood members.
- Cnecessary dimensions for wood members.
- Deffects of strength reducing characteristics such as knots.
40 (218) The stiffness of a wood beam is measured by its
- Astrength.
- Ballowable unit stress.
- Cmodulus of elasticity.
- Dresistance to bending.
41(219) When constructing a facility what factors determine the design of the plumbing system?
- AQuantity and types of fixtures, length of storm drainage, capacities of water main, and total number of building population.
- BCapacity of water main, quantity and types of fixtures, storm drainage pipe sizes, and total number of building population.
- CTotal number of building population, quantity and types of fixtures, storm drainage pipe sizes, and capacities of equipment and tanks.
- DCapacities of equipment and tanks, total number of building population, length of storm drainage, and quantity and types of fixtures.
42(220) Any part of a piping system, other than a main riser or stack piping, leading from the runout to the individual fixture is called a
- Abranch vent
- Bloop vent
- Crelief vent
- Dbranch
43(220) The single sloping drain from the base of a soil or waste stack to its junction with the main building drain or with another branch is
- Aa runout.
- Ban interceptor.
- Ca primary branch.
- Da building sewer.
44(221) Which of the following pipe is used for hot and cold water distribution systems and venting piping?
- AFiber.
- BCast-iron.
- CWrought-iron
- DCopper tubing.
45(222) Sewage systems are made up of the
- Amain, drain, and vent piping systems.
- Bmain, waste, and vent piping systems.
- Cmain, drain, and waste piping systems.
- Ddrain, waste, and vent piping systems.
46(223) The proportions of gases that make up dry air
- Aare substantially constant at all points on the earth’s surface.
- Bchange with the amount of water vapor present in the air.
- Cchange with variations in temperature.
- Dvary with the barometric pressure.
47(224) Which of the following provides positive and reliable means for controlling temperature, humidity, and moisture condensation?
- ACooling by forced or natural ventilation with outside air.
- BCooling by the effects of heat conduction into the surrounding earth.
- CMechanical cooling and dehumidifying with refrigeration or well water.
- DCapitalizing on natural elements by orienting facilities to shade and prevailing wind.
48(225) Outside air temperatures usually drop after sundown while inside temperatures are kept up by heat absorbed by the structure. Therefore, one way to effectively cool the building is
- Aventilating the building with outside air during the heat of the day only.
- Bventilating the building with small quantities of outside air after sundown.
- Cventilating the building with large quantities of outside air after sundown.
- Dventilating the building with moderate quantities of outside air throughout the day.
49(226) High-pressure heating systems are defined as those which operate at pressures in excess of
- A150 psi.
- B100 psi.
- C30 psi.
- D15 psi.
50(226) A low-pressure heating system requires
- Aless radiator surface but larger pipes than a high-pressure system.
- Bthe same radiator surface and pipe size as a high-pressure system.
- Cless radiator surface and smaller pipes than a high-pressure system.
- Dgreater radiator surface and larger pipes than a high-pressure system.
51 (227) What type of ventilation can be used only in areas such as storage buildings and hangars?
- AUnit.
- BGravity.
- CComfort.
- DMechanical.
52(227) The two general classifications of fans are
- Avane and tube.
- Baxial and vane.
- Caxial and centrifugal.
- Dtube and centrifugal.
53(227) Most air filters in use today are the
- Aviscous type.
- Bair washer type.
- Celectrostatic precipitators.
- Dpermanent and reusable type.
54(228) Which of the following principles are used in the refrigeration cycle?
- AEvaporation, expansion, and pressure of liquids.
- BTemperature, pressure, and expansion of liquids.
- CExpansion, evaporation, and pressure of liquids.
- DEvaporation, pressure, and temperature of liquids.
55(228) A direct expansion system is best used to effectively cool
- Amultistory buildings.
- Bsingle-story buildings.
- Ca group of buildings.
- Dsmall single offices.
56(229) What type of dual-temperature system uses a two or four-pipe system?
- AAll air system.
- BAll water system.
- CAir and water system.
- DRadiant heating system.
57(230) A unit of electrical measure that shows current drain is
- Aamp
- Bwatt
- Cohm
- Dvolt
58(231) In electrical design, what should generally be the minimum size of a conductor for a branch circuit?
- A8 gauge.
- B10 gauge.
- C12 gauge.
- D14 gauge.
59(232) What funding document is used to initially request and authorize funds toward design and/or construction requirements?
- AAF IMT 9, Request For Purchase.
- BAF IMT 103, Work Clearance Request.
- CAF IMT 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request.
- DDD Form 1391, FY __ Military Construction Project Data.
60(233) All construction design projects, whether designed in-house or by an Architectural- Engineering (A-E firm), are required to go through a
- Aconceptual design review.
- Bconstructability review.
- Ccontractibility review.
- Dcontingency review
61(234) Which IDIQ contract has been tailored to support MILCON Air Force Military Family Housing (MFH) and other light commercial construction projects such as dormitories, transient lodging, and administration facilities?
- ADesign Build Plus (DB+).
- BDesign Bid Build (D-B-B).
- CMultiple Award Construction Contracts (MACC).
- DSimplified Acquisition Base Engineer Requirement (SABER).
62 (234) What do the detailed task specifications encompass under a SABER contract?
- AReal property maintenance and repair.
- BReal property repair and construction needs for the installation.
- CReal property maintenance and construction needs for the installation.
- DReal property maintenance, repair, and construction needs for the installation.
63(235) Which of the following would not be included in the Statement of Work (SOW) for a construction contract?
- AGovernment drawings.
- BGovernment cost estimates.
- CGovernment technical specifications.
- DGovernment maps (i.e., travel routes or restricted areas).
64(236) Which statement is not true regarding general provision in a contract?
- AGeneral provisions pertain to all contracts.
- BThey are optional and used at the discretion of the contracting officer.
- CThey protect the contractor and government in fulfilling the terms of the contract.
- DThey are the required FAR clauses and a standard to all fixed-price construction projects.
65(237) Who must make sure the as-built drawings are submitted to drafting to become record drawings?
- ABCE
- BInspector
- CContracto
- DProject Manager
66(238) Which statement is not true regarding Independent Government Estimates?
- AThey are used for comparing costs or prices proposed by offeror(s)
- BThey are used for budgeting and reserving funds for the contract.
- CThey are used to capture relative cost incurred during construction.
- DThey are used for determining price reasonableness when only one proposal is received.
67 (239) Which of the following is not a viable source for developing independent government cost estimates?
- AContractor proposals.
- BPrevious similar contracts.
- CCommercial pricing guides and software.
- DExisting architectural engineer estimates.
68(240) Independent Government Cost Estimates should be classified
- ASecret.
- BSensitive.
- CConfidential.
- DFor Official Use Only
69(241) It is permissible for the contract inspector and contractor’s representative to have lunch and discuss business as long as the meal is paid for by the
- AGovernment.
- Bcontract inspector.
- CDutch treat method.
- Dcontractor’s representative.
70(242) For a Military Construction Project (MCP) project, the major command’s responsibilities for surveillance normally require how many visits before the acceptance inspection?
- AOne
- BMonthly
- CQuarterly
- DAt least two
71(242) Under the military construction program, when the Air Force is not the construction agent, the AF inspector is concerned with which of the following surveillance programs?
- ADaily and partial.
- BDaily and routine.
- CRoutine and initial.
- DRoutine and partial.
72(242) Most post-acceptance inspections are made to
- Are-assess construction costs.
- Bdetermine routine maintenance needs.
- Cascertain scheduled maintenance frequency.
- Ddiscover latent design or functional deficiencies.
73(243) Who would be the single point-of-contact for the BCE and contracting officer on a construction project?
- AProject inspector.
- BProject manager.
- CContract administrator.
- DContract superintendent.
74(244) Who is responsible for coordinating an onsite visits to a construction project?
- AEscort.
- BProject manager.
- CProspective bidder.
- DContracting officer.
75(245) Identifying omissions or errors in final construction plans can lead to
- Acontractor claims and increase in construction surveillance.
- Bwasted effort and decrease in administrative costs.
- Chigher construction costs and subsequent claims.
- Dan increase in construction surveillance.
76(246) Who completes the AF Form 103, Base Civil Engineering Work Clearance Request, for contract work according to the FARs?
- AOperations and Planning.
- BConstruction manager.
- CProcurement.
- DContractor.
77(247) Who conducts the pre-performance conference (PRECON) for a construction project?
- AContracting officer.
- BBase civil engineer.
- CConstruction manager.
- DChief of engineering and environmental planning.
78(247) Which of the following offices is the only one authorized to obligate the Government with the contractor?
- AUsing agency.
- BBase civil engineer.
- CContracting officer
- DConstruction management.
79 (248) Which of the materials submittal methods requires an independent testing lab?
- ATest report.
- BShop drawings.
- CActual material.
- DCertificate of compliance.
80(249) The contractor submits AF IMT 3064, Contract Progress Schedule, for approval of any project that establishes a continuous performance period of
- A30 or more days.
- B60 or more days.
- C90 or more days.
- D120 or more days.
81(250) Where can the documented proof of the construction project be placed?
- ADaily log maintained by the using agency.
- BDaily log maintained by project manager.
- CFollow-up correspondence maintained by the contractor.
- DMemo for record maintained by the construction manager.
82(250) After a contract inspector reports a safety violation via telephone, the contract inspector should submit a follow-up notification letter to the
- Acontracting office.
- Bsafety officials.
- Cusing agency.
- Dcontractor.
83(250) What happens to the inspection records after the construction project is completed?
- ADestroyed.
- BFiled in the BCE’s office.
- CReturned to the contractor.
- DTurned over to the contracting office.
84(251) Who should be present for the prefinal construction inspection?
- AContracting officer, construction manager, and base civil engineer.
- BConstruction manager, project inspector, and base civil engineer.
- CBase Civil Engineer, contracting officer, and contractor.
- DProject inspector, contractor, and construction manager.
85(252) What is the final post construction activity?
- ABCE inspection.
- BFinal inspection.
- CBase acceptance.
- DFinal closing inspection.
86(001) What agency provides support for areas regarding utility systems?
- AOffice of the Assistant Secretary of the Air Force for Installations.
- BAir Force Center for Environmental Excellence.
- CAir Force Civil Engineer Support Agency.
- DResponsible major command (MAJCOM) engineering staff.
87(001) Ensuring that the comprehensive plans of your base support the mission and objectives of the installation is the responsibility of the
- Aresponsible major command (MAJCOM).
- Binstallation commander.
- CAir Force civil engineer (CE)
- DAssistant Secretary of the Air Force.
88(001) Who approves the general plan for an installation?
- AThe wing commander.
- BThe responsible major command (MAJCOM).
- CThe Air Force civil engineer (CE).
- DThe Assistant Secretary of the Air Force.
89(002) The Air Force Comprehensive Planning Program
- Aidentifies and assesses alternatives for development of surrounding communities.
- Bis primarily a budgeting process that ensures funding for base activities.
- Cidentifies and assesses alternatives for development of Air Force bases.
- Dallocates personnel to each base according the base’s mission .
90(002) The comprehensive planning process analyzes
- Aonly the current development potential of the base.
- Bonly the long-range development potential of the base.
- Conly the short- and long-range development potential of the base.
- Dthe current, short-, and long-range development potential of the base.
91(002) Which part of the comprehensive plan is a summary document?
- AGeneral plan.
- BComponent plan.
- CInfrastructure plan.
- DConstraints and opportunities plan.
92(002) Which component plan would you refer to if concerned about the capacity of the base water system?
- AInfrastructure plan.
- BLand use and transportation plan.
- CCapital improvements program plan.
- DComposite constraints and opportunities plan.
93(002) Which component plan integrates the traditional elements of physical planning with other future plans into one document?
- AInfrastructure plan.
- BLand use and transportation plan.
- CCapital improvements program plan.
- DComposite constraints and opportunities plan.
94(002) Which map series would you refer to for information regarding future development?
- AA
- BD
- CK
- DM
95(002) Which map series would you refer to for information about the architectural compatibility of your base?
- AJ
- BK
- CL
- DN
96(003) Civil engineers (CE) assist in preparing explosives site plans (ESP) by ensuring that the weapons safety office is
- Afully aware of all construction actions planned on the installation.
- Binformed of completed construction activities on the installation.
- Cfully aware of all construction actions planned within the inhabited-building distances.
- Dinformed of completed construction activities within the inhabited-building distances.
97(003) What agency endorses the explosives site plan (ESP) before it is submitted to the DOD Explosives Safety Board?
- AAir Force Safety Center.
- BInstallation civil engineer (CE) office.
- CMajor command (MAJCOM) weapons safety office.
- DInstallation weapons safety office.
98(003) Which example would not require the submission of an explosives site plan (ESP)?
- AConstruction of a missile maintenance facility
- BConstruction of an addition to a weapons storage facility.
- CA temporary reduction in the storage capacity of UN Class I explosives.
- DAddition of an aircraft parking area not previously used for explosives operations.
99(004) What kind of work can civil engineers (CE) do after receiving preliminary approval of an explosives site plan (ESP)?
- ANothing. They must wait until final approval to plan and design the construction project.
- BProceed with construction without restrictions.
- CBegin the first phase of construction.
- DBegin planning and design activities.
100(004) Which construction drawings must be submitted for final approval of the explosives site plan (ESP)?
- AOnly those drawings related to safety and protective features.
- BOnly those drawings showing quantity-distance arcs.
- COnly those drawings showing the floor plan.
- DA complete set of drawings showing every aspect of construction.
101 (004) What color coding is required on maps for an explosives site plan (ESP)?
- APotential explosion sites (PES) in blue and exposed sites (ES) in black.
- BPESs in yellow and ESs in blue.
- CPESs in red and ESs in green.
- DPESs blue and ESs in yellow.
102(005) Whose airfield safety standards apply when DOD organizations use civil airfields?
- AAir Standardization Coordinating Committee’s (ASCC).
- BNorth Atlantic Treaty Organization’s (NATO)
- CFederal Aviation Administration’s (FAA) only.
- DDOD’s if possible; if not, the FAA’s.
103(005) How are the airfield planning criteria in UFC 3–260–01 applied to existing facilities constructed under different standards?
- AExisting facilities are always exempt from conforming to these criteria.
- BExisting facilities must be brought into compliance with these criteria.
- CExisting facilities can be brought into compliance with these criteria if it is feasible to do so.
- DExisting facilities must be brought into compliance with these criteria when the facilities are modified.
104(005) Under what circumstances can the DOD airfield planning criteria in UFC 3–260–01 be supplemented?
- AOnly the DOD can supplement the criteria.
- BA major command (MAJCOM) needs to meet special mission requirements.
- CA service component needs to adapt to unique operational characteristics.
- DThe installation commander determines that some criteria don’t apply to the installation.
105(006) What is the normal length and width of a clear zone for a class B runway?
- A2,000 feet long and 1,000 feet wide.
- B3,000 feet long and 2,000 feet wide.
- C3,000 feet long and 3,000 feet wide.
- D4,000 feet long and 4,000 feet wide.
106(006) If an accident potential zone (APZ) is classified as an APZ I, it is beyond
- Aan APZ II and has only a slight potential for an accident.
- Ban APZ II and has a measurable potential for an accident.
- Cthe runway clear zone and has a significant potential for accidents.
- Dthe runway clear zone and has only a slight potential for accidents.
107(007) In terms of airfield airspace criteria, an obstruction can refer to
- Aobjects of natural growth only.
- Bexisting man-made objects only.
- Cexisting or proposed man-made objects only.
- Dman-made objects, objects of natural growth, and terrain.
108(007) Which is not considered an obstruction to air navigation?
- AAn object 600 feet tall at the site of the object .
- BA 100-foot-tall object within 3 nautical miles of the airfield reference point.
- CA 400-foot-tall object within 4 nautical miles of the airfield reference point.
- DA 500-foot-tall object within 4 nautical miles from the airfield reference point.
109(007) What type of traverse way requires a minimum of 23 feet vertical clearance?
- AInterstate highway.
- BMilitary roads.
- CWaterways.
- DRailroads.
110(007) Which runway imaginary surface is an oval-shaped plane at an elevation of 150 feet above the airfield elevation?
- AClear zone.
- BConical surface.
- CPrimary surface.
- DInner horizontal surface.
111(008) Who approves all Air Force-wide programs to ensure they conform with DoDI 2000.16, DOD Anti-terrorism Standards?
- AAir Force Civil Engineer (AF/ILE).
- BAir Force Anti-Terrorism Chief, AF/AT.
- CForce Protection Working Group (FPWG).
- DAir Force Deputy Chief of Staff, Air & Space Operations (AF/XO).
112(008) Which of the following is not one of the steps of engineer anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) planning?
- AIdentify constraints.
- BDesign protective systems to counter threats.
- CDetermine levels of protection for assets.
- DIdentify non-combatants on the installation.
113(009) What are the three categories of assets you should consider for anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP)?
- APersonnel, equipment, and aircraft.
- BPersonnel, materials, and aircraft.
- CFacilities, aircraft, and personnel.
- DFacilities, equipment and materials, and personnel.
114(009) Which aggressors are usually oriented around an ideology, a political cause, or an issue and commonly work in small, well-organized groups with sophistication and efficient planning capability.
- ACriminals.
- BProtestors.
- CTerrorists
- DSubversives.
115(009) Facilities are chosen for anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) measures based on
- Atheir current use and the assets they house.
- Btheir proximity to base entrance and exit points.
- Cthe costs to rebuild them and replace the contents.
- Dthe presence of classified materials within them.
116(009) Which attack tactic might be used to destroy a building while allowing the aggressor to maintain distance from the occupants?
- AStationary vehicle bomb.
- BMoving vehicle bomb.
- CExterior attack.
- DForced entry.
117 (010) When deciding which assets to protect in an anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) program, you should
- Abalance the physical, resource, and political constraints against your asset priority list.
- Bignore political constraints because diplomatic channels will overcome them.
- Cassume that all necessary resources will be available for AT/FP measures.
- Denact desirable AT/FP measures regardless of constraints
118(010) If possible, assets to be protected under the anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) program should
- Anot be identified with signs.
- Bbe located around the exterior walls of buildings.
- Cbe located near activities with large visitor populations.
- Dnot be located where they are visible to more than one person.
119(011) Expeditionary site planning (ESP) is mainly associated with
- Along-range planning for permanent installations.
- Bshort-range planning for permanent installations.
- Clong-range forecasting for national security strategy.
- Dlocations where the Air Force presence is not permanent.
120 (011) Which of the following is primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence?
- AExpeditionary site plan (ESP).
- BAircraft mishap survey plan (AMSP).
- CExpeditionary site survey process (ESSP).
- DIn-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP).
121(011) Which template identifies resources and capabilities of a location by functional area?
- APart II, Expeditionary Site Planning (ESP).
- BPart I, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP).
- CPart II, In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP).
- DPart II, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP).
122(011) Which template identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC)?
- APart II, Expeditionary Site Planning (ESP).
- BPart I, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP).
- CPart II, In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP).
- DPart II, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP).
123(011) You will find a complete listing of the functional responsibilities for beddown operations in
- AAFI 10–219.
- BAFI 10–404
- CAFH 10–222 v5.
- DAFI 32–1042.
124 (011) Who provides command policy and guidance for implementing in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site planning (ESP) concepts to meet the command’s specific missions?
- AAF/ILE.
- BAF/XO.
- CAF/ILG.
- DMajor command (MAJCOM).
125(011) Which of the following is not a responsibility of major command (MAJCOM) functional managers?
- ATake appropriate action to resolve subordinate unit limiting factors (LIMFAC).
- BCoordinate site survey requests with major command (MAJCOM) logistics plans function.
- CExercise management control over the expeditionary site planning (ESP) program.
- DCoordinate efforts with MAJCOM logistics plans function and appropriate numbered air force (NAF) agencies.
126(012) What are the three sub-processes of the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP)?
- APre-site survey, site survey, post-site survey.
- BSite selection, data selection, storage and access.
- CSite survey, data selection, post-site survey.
- DPre-site survey, storage and access, post-site survey
127(012) Information gathered during an expeditionary site survey is used to generate the
- Alimiting factors (LIMFAC).
- Bairfield suitability assessment.
- Cemployment knowledge base (EKB).
- Danti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) plan.
128(012) During an expeditionary site survey, data is collected in which components?
- ASite selection, site survey, reporting.
- BPre-site survey, site survey, post-site survey.
- CPre-site survey, site survey, database development.
- DSite selection, database development, airfield suitability survey.
129(013) Expeditionary site survey data collected with the survey tool for employment planning (STEP) is stored in the
- AReconnaissance information database (RID).
- BEmployment knowledge base (EKB).
- CExpeditionary site assessment tool (ESAT).
- DBeddown capability assessment tool (BCAT).
130(013) Who should units desiring to conduct site surveys outside of their area of responsibility (AOR) contact for permission?
- AAF Deputy Chief of Staff, Air & Space Operations (AF/XO).
- BDirector of Logistics Readiness (AF/ILG).
- CTheir own wing commander.
- DTheir own major command (MAJCOM).
131(013) How many members should an expeditionary site survey team have?
- AThree
- BFive
- CTen
- DDepends on the mission
132013) What is the purpose of the follow-on team in an expeditionary site survey?
- AProduce an airfield suitability survey.
- BGather data relevant to the success of the specific mission.
- CProduce minimum essential data such as a full spectrum threat assessment.
- DGather data for the expeditionary combat support (ECS) beddown assessment.
133(013) Who certifies the data collected by an expeditionary site survey team?
- AAll team members.
- BSite survey team chief.
- CMajor command (MAJCOM) commander.
- DDirector of Logistics Readiness (AF/ILG).
134(014) In the context of expeditionary site planning, what are limiting factors (LIMFAC)?
- AMinor supply shortfalls.
- BBudget shortfalls that must be made up.
- CEnemy strengths that threaten combat support operations.
- DPersonnel or materiel deficiencies that threaten the mission.
135(014) In AFI 10–404, Base Support and Expeditionary Site Planning, where would you find guidance on depicting utility layouts that reflect possible expansion of USAF and host nation lines?
- AAttachment 8 (Ch 7, “Airfield Operations, Part 1”).
- BAttachment 9 (Ch 8, “Airfield Loading/Parking Plan, Part 2”).
- CAttachment 45 (Ch 44, “Maps, Part 1”).
- DAttachment 46 (Ch 45, “Combat Logistic Support, Part 1”).
136(015) What is a minimum operating strip (MOS)?
- AThe minimum clear zone around a runway.
- BThe shortest acceptable length of an aircraft operating surface.
- CThe minimum distance between airfield operations and base facilities.
- DThe smallest acceptable length and width of an aircraft operating surface.
137(015) The minimum operating strip (MOS) layout is acceptable when it
- Ameets the requirements specified in Chapter 44 “Maps, Part 1” of AFI 10–404, Base Support and Expeditionary Site Planning.
- Bconforms to the standards set by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).
- Cis approved by the Director of Logistics Readiness (AF/ILG).
- Dmeets the requirements of the wing/installation commander.
138(015) The minimum airfield operating strip marking system (MAOSMS) must be correct because it
- Aindicates the location of aircraft staging areas.
- Bserves as the emergency airfield lighting system (EALS).
- Callows pilots to visually acquire the airfield’s operating surface on approach.
- Dshows the minimum operating strip (MOS) layout requirements of the installation commander.
139(016) When arriving at an aircraft mishap site, you must consider all the following hazards except
- Aejection seat explosives.
- Bhuman remains.
- Cfuel/hydraulic fluids.
- Dcleared unexploded ordnance (UXO).
140(016) What is the minimum number of personnel required for an aircraft mishap survey team?
- AOne
- BTwo
- CFour
- DFive
141(016) A full aircraft mishap survey party consists of a survey party chief (SPC) and instrument operator, as well as
- Aa reconnaissance chief, rod person, and rod person recorder.
- Ban instrument operator recorder, rod person, and rod person recorder.
- Ca recovered item recorder, rod person, and reconnaissance assistant.
- Dan instrument operator recorder, rod person, and survey marker.
142(201) What facility design element determines how well a facility serves the mission requirement and its occupants on a day in and day out basis?
- AFunctionality.
- BFlexibility.
- CAccuracy.
- DEconomy.
143(201) When assessing existing conditions at a proposed construction site, what potential hazards should you look for?
- AWeapons storage area, asbestos, lead-based paint, and contaminated soil.
- BAsbestos, weapons storage area, and contaminated soil.
- CAsbestos, lead-based paint, and weapons storage area.
- DAsbestos, lead-based paint, and contaminated soil.
144(202) What should govern all military construction designs?
- AFlexibility.
- BAccuracy.
- CEconomy.
- DFunction.
145(203) What design standards do you need to be aware for all military construction?
- AMilitary and government only.
- BMilitary, industrial, and government.
- CMilitary, industrial, and local ordinances.
- DMetropolitan ordinances, military, and industrial.
146(203) Where can you find the military design standards for military construction?
- AAFMC.
- BAFCESA.
- CUS Army Corps of Engineers.
- DUnified Facilities Guide Specification.
147(204) In the Unified Soils Classification System, what type of soil group does the letter “M” designates?
- ASilt
- BSand
- CGravel
- DHighly organic
148(204) At least what percent of the soil must be retained on the No. 200 sieve for it to be classified as coarse grained?
- A10%
- B20%
- C40%
- D50%
149(204) What size sieve is used to distinguish between gravels and sands?
- ANo. 4.
- BNo. 10.
- CNo. 40.
- DNo. 200.
150(204) Which of these properties indicate whether or not soil contains clay?
- ACohesion.
- BPlasticity.
- CCompaction.
- DPermeability.
151(204) When wet soil is air-dried in a laboratory, the moisture is removed by evaporation until
- Aa constant weight is attained.
- Bthe meniscus in the pore openings restricts the rate of capillary rise
- Cthe hygroscopic moisture in the soil is in equilibrium with the moisture vapor in the air.
- Dthe capillary fringe in the soil recedes to a point where it is in equilibrium with hygroscopic moisture.
152(204) What is the plasticity index of a soil with a liquid limit of 28 and a plastic limit of 21?
- A0.75
- B1.33
- C7.00
- D49.0
153(205) What do we call the particle size distribution of a soil aggregate?
- AAngularity
- BDurability.
- CGradation.
- DGranularity.
154(205) A soil whose individual grains cover a narrow range of particle sizes is
- Aun-graded.
- Bgap-graded.
- Cwell-graded.
- Dpoorly graded.
155(205) What should be done if a structure is likely to be affected by the ground water table or by capillary action?
- ALower the grade line
- BRaise the ground water table.
- CKeep the site location regardless of cost.
- DChange the site location if there is enough cause.
156(206) To prevent the flow of water from standing in low places and seeping into the ground, the minimum longitudinal grade of a ditch should be
- A0.2 percent.
- B0.5 percent.
- C2 percent.
- D5 percent.
157(206) The maximum grade of ditch side slopes is determined by
- Athe nature of the soil.
- Bthe area to be drained.
- Cspecification limitations.
- Dthe equipment available.
158(206) What is the minimum distance required between the top of the base course and the natural water table if frost action is to be prevented?
- A2'
- B3'
- C4'
- D5'
159(207) Asphalt cement is usually made fluid by
- Aheating.
- Badding alcohol
- Cmixing with coal tar.
- Dadding ascorbic acid.
160(208) Which of these is not one of the functions of aggregate in a bituminous pavement mix?
- AProvide a nonskid surface.
- BProvide a binder for the bitumen.
- CTransmit the load to the base course.
- DTake the abrasive action of the traffic.
161(208) Which of these can determine an aggregate’s affinity for water?
- AWash test.
- BStripping test.
- CDistillation test.
- DMohs hardness scale.
162(209) Which variables affect the final mix-design of a bituminous pavement?
- AMoisture content and aggregate size.
- BMoisture content, intended use, gradation, and angularity.
- CIntended use, binder type, loading, and maximum aggregate size.
- DPlasticity, binder type, maximum aggregate size, and angularity.
163(209) A bituminous pavement mixture should be
- Adurable, workable, and porous.
- Bable to withstand traffic loads, durable, and porous.
- Cable to withstand traffic loads, workable, and durable.
- Dworkable, able to withstand traffic loads, and durable.
164(210) Water’s main function in concrete mix is to
- Amake the mix workable and inhibit hydration.
- Bmake the mix workable and start hydration.
- Cincrease the weight of mix and inhibit hydration.
- Ddecrease the amount of mix and start hydration.
165 (210) Fine aggregate used in cement paste should have a
- Arough shape to promote workability.
- Bround shape to promote workability.
- Cround shape to promote uniformity.
- Drough shape to promote uniformity.
166(210) To be suitable for construction, concrete should be
- Astrong, watertight, durable, and workable.
- Beconomical, strong, watertight, and uniform
- Cdurable, watertight, workable, and uniform.
- Dwell graded, economical, strong, and watertight.
167(211) Which of these plastic concrete properties is affected as you add more aggregate to a given amount of cement paste?
- ANon-segregation.
- BWorkability.
- CUniformity.
- DDurability.
168(211) Which of these factors affects the watertightness of a concrete mix?
- AAggregate size.
- BAggregate gradation.
- CWater to cement ratio.
- DCement amount in mix.
169(212) The acceptable range for air content in air-entrained concrete is
- A2 to 5.5 percent.
- B3 to 6.6 percent.
- C4 to 7.5 percent.
- D5 to 8.5 percent.
170(212) When too much silt and clay are present in a concrete mixture, the concrete surface
- Acannot withstand abrasion.
- Bmay be covered by hair cracks.
- Chas large cracks.
- Dis shiny.
171(213) Cracks in concrete may be controlled by
- Areducing restraint through the use of joints and increasing moisture to the concrete mix.
- Breducing steel stresses at service load conditions and increasing restraint through the use of joints.
- Cincreasing moisture to the concrete mix and providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement.
- Dproviding adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement and reducing restraint through the use of joints.
172(213) Which type of joint is used to allow placement of separate construction elements at different times?
- AControl joints.
- BSeismic joints.
- CExpansion joints.
- DConstruction joints.
173(214) The loads present within a structure are classified as
- Auniformly distributed loads and concentrated loads.
- Buniformly distributed loads and live loads.
- Cconcentrated loads and dead loads.
- Dlive loads and dead loads.
174 (214) Which kind of stress in a structure occurs on the side opposite the load?
- AShear.
- BTorsion.
- CTension.
- DCompression.
175(215) Walls, columns, piers, or pilasters resting on footings are used with
- Aspread foundations.
- Bmat foundations.
- Craft foundations.
- Dpile foundations.
176(215) In general, footings should be located so that they
- Arest on compacted organic soil
- Bare at a minimum of 5 feet below undisturbed soil.
- Care above the ground water table and above the frost line.
- Dare above the ground water table but below the frost line.
177 (215) A foundation that develops the load bearing capacity through friction with the adjacent soil
- Auses isolated footings.
- Buses continuous footings.
- Cis a type of pile foundation.
- Dis a type of spread foundation.
178 (216) What type of concrete masonry unit CMU is not used for Air Force facilities?
- AType I, moisture controlled
- BType II, moisture controlled.
- CType I, non-moisture controlled.
- DType II, non-moisture controlled.
179(217) When may structural steel for buildings be permanently exposed to weather?
- AWhen using hollow steel columns.
- BWhen using exterior structural steel.
- CWhen overall efficiency and economy will result.
- DWhen using non-expansion and non-contraction joints.
180(217) Temperature and deflection movements in a structural steel framing system are controlled by
- Arigid framing techniques.
- Bthe spacing between members.
- Cexpansion and contraction joints.
- Dwelding the connections instead of using rivets or bolts.
181(218) The dimensional stability of plywood is improved through
- Aadditional layers.
- Bcross-lamination.
- Cthe use of waterproof glue.
- Dadditives impregnated into the fibers.
182(218) In regard to wood framing, values known as allowable unit stresses consider the
- Aspecies and grade of wood members.
- Bstress values within the wood members.
- Cnecessary dimensions for wood members.
- Deffects of strength reducing characteristics such as knots.
183(218) The stiffness of a wood beam is measured by its
- Astrength.
- Ballowable unit stress.
- Cmodulus of elasticity.
- Dresistance to bending.
184(219) When constructing a facility what factors determine the design of the plumbing system?
- AQuantity and types of fixtures, length of storm drainage, capacities of water main, and total number of building population.
- BCapacity of water main, quantity and types of fixtures, storm drainage pipe sizes, and total number of building population.
- CTotal number of building population, quantity and types of fixtures, storm drainage pipe sizes, and capacities of equipment and tanks.
- DCapacities of equipment and tanks, total number of building population, length of storm drainage, and quantity and types of fixtures.
185(220) Any part of a piping system, other than a main riser or stack piping, leading from the runout to the individual fixture is called a
- Abranch vent.
- Bloop vent.
- Crelief vent.
- Dbranch.
186(220) The single sloping drain from the base of a soil or waste stack to its junction with the main building drain or with another branch is
- Aa runout.
- Ban interceptor.
- Ca primary branch.
- Da building sewer.
187(221) Which of the following pipe is used for hot and cold water distribution systems and venting piping?
- AFiber.
- BCast-iron.
- CWrought-iron.
- DCopper tubing.
188(222) Sewage systems are made up of the
- Amain, drain, and vent piping systems.
- Bmain, waste, and vent piping systems.
- Cmain, drain, and waste piping systems.
- Ddrain, waste, and vent piping systems.
189(223) The proportions of gases that make up dry air
- Aare substantially constant at all points on the earth’s surface.
- Bchange with the amount of water vapor present in the air.
- Cchange with variations in temperature.
- Dvary with the barometric pressure.
190(224) Which of the following provides positive and reliable means for controlling temperature, humidity, and moisture condensation?
- ACooling by forced or natural ventilation with outside air.
- BCooling by the effects of heat conduction into the surrounding earth.
- CMechanical cooling and dehumidifying with refrigeration or well water.
- DCapitalizing on natural elements by orienting facilities to shade and prevailing wind.
191(225) Outside air temperatures usually drop after sundown while inside temperatures are kept up by heat absorbed by the structure. Therefore, one way to effectively cool the building is
- Aventilating the building with outside air during the heat of the day only.
- Bventilating the building with small quantities of outside air after sundown.
- Cventilating the building with large quantities of outside air after sundown.
- Dventilating the building with moderate quantities of outside air throughout the day.
192(226) High-pressure heating systems are defined as those which operate at pressures in excess of
- A150 psi.
- B100 psi.
- C50 psi.
- D30 psi.
193(226) A low-pressure heating system requires
- Aless radiator surface but larger pipes than a high-pressure system.
- Bthe same radiator surface and pipe size as a high-pressure system.
- Cless radiator surface and smaller pipes than a high-pressure system.
- Dgreater radiator surface and larger pipes than a high-pressure system.
194 (227) What type of ventilation can be used only in areas such as storage buildings and hangars?
- AUnit.
- BGravity.
- CComfort.
- DMechanical.
195(227) The two general classifications of fans are
- AVane and tube
- Baxial and vane
- Caxial and centrifugal
- Dtube and centrifugal
196(227) Most air filters in use today are the
- Aviscous type.
- Bair washer type
- Celectrostatic precipitators
- Dpermanent and reusable type
197(228) Which of the following principles are used in the refrigeration cycle?
- AEvaporation, expansion, and pressure of liquids.
- BTemperature, pressure, and expansion of liquids.
- CExpansion, evaporation, and pressure of liquids.
- DEvaporation, pressure, and temperature of liquids.
198(228) A direct expansion system is best used to effectively cool
- Amultistory buildings.
- Bsingle-story buildings.
- Ca group of buildings.
- Dsmall single offices
199(229) What type of dual-temperature system uses a two or four-pipe system?
- AAll air system.
- BAll water system.
- CAir and water system.
- DRadiant heating system.
200(230) A unit of electrical measure that shows current drain is
- Aamp
- Bwatt
- Cohm
- Dvolt
Información
- Descripción
- Part 2
- Autor
- Kevin John Hopp
- Idioma
- English
- Visitas
- 62
- Valoración
- Aún sin valoraciones Valora este test