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Aviation Interview Test sobre ATP EASA Qatar , creado por mmm mmm el 14/05/2018.

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ATP EASA Qatar

Pregunta 1 de 200

1

10.1.1.4 (7)
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be
considered:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national
    difference

  • advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states

  • binding for all member states

  • binding for all airline companies with international traffic

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 200

1

10.1.2.0 (11)
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members

  • may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person

  • may request such person to disembark

  • may deliver such person to the competent authorities

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 200

1

10.5.1.0 (78)
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome,
experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

  • Switching on and off four times the landing lights

  • The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

  • Switching on and off three times the landing lights

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 200

1

10.5.1.0 (81)
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

  • The airport is unsafe, do not land

  • Continue circling and wait for further instructions

  • Give way to other aircraft in emergency

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 200

1

10.5.1.0 (83)
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.

  • Need special precautions while approaching for landing.

  • An area unit for the movement of aircraft.

  • The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being
    performed.

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 200

1

The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight
time is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The airliner operator

  • The aircraft owner

  • The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace

  • The commander

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 200

1

10.5.1.0 (86)
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Emergency aircraft

  • Military aircraft

  • VIP (Head of state) aircraft

  • Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 200

1

10.5.1.0 (91)
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall,
unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the
following code on mode ""A""

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 7 700

  • 7 500

  • 7 600

  • 7 000

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (92)
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish
radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz

  • 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz

  • 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz

  • 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 200

1

10.5.1.0 (93)
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.

  • Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.

  • Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.

  • Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of
    flight of the intercepted aircraft.

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (94)
Unless otherwise prescribed , what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

  • 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

  • 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated
    position of the aircraft

  • 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (96)
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions

  • Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions

  • Inform the ATC unit immediately

  • Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 200

1

10.5.1.0 (96)
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?
a) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
b) Inform the ATC unit immediately
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions

  • Inform the ATC unit immediately

  • If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions

  • Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (98)
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

  • Crossing arms extended above his head

  • Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then
    clench fist

  • Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (99)
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is
unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses
radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of
    landing

  • adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination

  • continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed
    flight plan.

  • descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (100)
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Come back and land.

  • Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

  • Dangerous airfield. Do not land

  • Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (102)
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has
to be informed in case :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • it is a deviation from the track.

  • of an emergency.

  • the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.

  • the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan.

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (103)
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an
aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall
be for an IFR flight :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

  • at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

  • at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

  • at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 200

1

10.5.1.0 (105)
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • this aerodrome is using parallel runways

  • landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,

  • taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,

  • glider flying is performed outside the landing area,

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 200

1

An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft
from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

  • 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

  • 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

  • 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (109)
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio
communication failure. You will :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ,

  • Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to destination ,

  • Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ,

  • Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC

Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (111)
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green
flashes from the tower. The aircraft :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.

  • is cleared to land.

  • must land immediately and clear the landing area.

  • must give way to another aircraft.

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (114)
While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control
tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • must vacate the landing area in use.

  • must stop.

  • must return to its point of departure.

  • may continue to taxi to the take-off area.

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (115)
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light
signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.

  • must stop.

  • must return to its point of departure.

  • is cleared for take-off.

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 200

1

RED ! 10.5.1.0 (116)
An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from
the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • not land because the airport is not available for landing.

  • give way to another aircraft.

  • return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.

  • not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

Explicación

Pregunta 26 de 200

1

10.6.2.0 (117)
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Obstacle identification surface.

  • Obstacle identification slope.

  • Obstruction in surface.

  • Obstacle in surface.

Explicación

Pregunta 27 de 200

1

RED ! 10.6.2.0 (118)
What does the abbreviation DER mean?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Depature end of runway.

  • Distance end of runway.

  • Distance end of route.

  • Departure end of route.

Explicación

Pregunta 28 de 200

1

RED ! 10.6.2.0 (119)
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid
within a sector of :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 30 NM

  • 25 NM

  • 10 NM

  • 15 NM

Explicación

Pregunta 29 de 200

1

10.6.3.0 (121)
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.

  • To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.

  • To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track.

  • To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.

Explicación

Pregunta 30 de 200

1

10.6.3.0 (122)
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Airspace restrictions.

  • Navigation aids.

  • ATC requirements.

  • The terrain surrounding the airport.

Explicación

Pregunta 31 de 200

1

RED ! 10.6.3.0 (123)
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the
departure end of runway equals:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 0 ft.

  • 3.3 % gradient.

  • 35 ft.

  • 0.8 % gradient.

Explicación

Pregunta 32 de 200

1

RED 10.6.3.0 (124)
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway
centre line within:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 15°.

  • 30°.

  • 12.5°.

  • 45°.

Explicación

Pregunta 33 de 200

1

RED 10.6.3.0 (126)
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

  • 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

  • 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

  • 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

Explicación

Pregunta 34 de 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (127)
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.

  • Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.

  • Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.

  • Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.

Explicación

Pregunta 35 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (128)
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 600m (1968 ft).

  • 450m (1476 ft).

  • 300m (984 ft).

  • 150m (492 ft).

Explicación

Pregunta 36 de 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (129)
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and
descent for landing are made is called:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Initial approach segment.

  • Intermediate approach segment.

  • Arrival segment.

  • Final approach segment.

Explicación

Pregunta 37 de 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (130)
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • FAP.

  • FAF.

  • MAP.

  • IF.

Explicación

Pregunta 38 de 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (132)
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight

  • When the aircraft has the control tower in sight

  • When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet

  • When seems possible to land

Explicación

Pregunta 39 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (137)
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA
should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual
reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle
clearance can be maintained and a landing can be madeThe combination
regrouping all the correct answers is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 1, 2, 3.

  • 1, 3.

  • 2, 3.

  • 1, 2.

Explicación

Pregunta 40 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (135)
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Mean sea level.

  • Aeredrome reference point.

  • Relevant runway threshold.

  • Aerodrome elevation.

Explicación

Pregunta 41 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (140)
How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Up to 5.

  • Up to 4.

  • 3.

  • 4.

Explicación

Pregunta 42 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (141)
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • At the IF.

  • At the IAF.

  • At the FAF.

  • At the final en-route fix.

Explicación

Pregunta 43 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (145)
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Shuttle.

  • Procedure turn.

  • Racetrack pattern.

  • Based turn.

Explicación

Pregunta 44 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (146)
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

  • 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).

  • 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).

  • 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

Explicación

Pregunta 45 de 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (147)
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • One and a half of scale deflection.

  • A quarter of scale deflection.

  • Half a scale deflection.

  • One scale deflection.

Explicación

Pregunta 46 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (148)
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 6m.

  • 12m.

  • 9m.

  • 3m.

Explicación

Pregunta 47 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (149)
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Initial, intermediate and final.

  • Arrival, intermediate and final.

  • Initial and final.

  • Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.

Explicación

Pregunta 48 de 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (150)
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 0.8%.

  • 5%.

  • 3.3%.

  • 2.5%.

Explicación

Pregunta 49 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (151)
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.

  • At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.

  • At the missed approach point.

  • At the point where the climb is established.

Explicación

Pregunta 50 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (152)
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Visual manoeuvring (circling).

  • Aerodrome traffic pattern.

  • Contact approach.

  • Visual approach.

Explicación

Pregunta 51 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (154)
When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle
clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.

  • For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them

  • Only for categories A and B aircraft.

  • For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.

Explicación

Pregunta 52 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (155)
A circling approach is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • A contact flight manoeuvre.

  • A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.

  • A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.

  • A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.

Explicación

Pregunta 53 de 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (156)
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is
expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • FAF.

  • Landing runway.

  • Final missed approach track.

  • MAP.

Explicación

Pregunta 54 de 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (157)
If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre,
what actions should be taken ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Initiate a missed approach

  • Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctact

  • Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude

  • If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact

Explicación

Pregunta 55 de 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (158)
What action should be taken if contact is losT with the aerodrome on the down wind leg ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Initiate a missed approach

  • Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude

  • Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome

  • Request an amended clearance

Explicación

Pregunta 56 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (159)
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot
does not deviate from the centre line more than :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.

  • half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centerline.

  • full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath
    indicator.

  • full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.

Explicación

Pregunta 57 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (160)
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • the operator

  • the state

  • the pilot-in-command ,

  • the ""flight-operations"" of the company

Explicación

Pregunta 58 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (161)
On a non-precision approach a so-called ""straight-in-approach"" is considered
acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 20 degrees or less

  • 10 degrees or less

  • 30 degrees or less

  • 40 degrees or less

Explicación

Pregunta 59 de 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (162)
Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 5%.

  • 8%.

  • 6,5%.

  • 7%.

Explicación

Pregunta 60 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (165)
During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 300 m (984 ft)

  • 120 m (394 ft)

  • 210 m (690 ft)

  • 150 m (492 ft)

Explicación

Pregunta 61 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (166)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 30 m (98 ft)

  • 50 m (164 ft)

  • 90 m (295 ft)

  • 120 m (384 ft)

Explicación

Pregunta 62 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (167)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 30 m (98 ft)

  • 50 m (164 ft)

  • 90 m (295 ft)

  • 120 m (384 ft)

Explicación

Pregunta 63 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (168)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 50 m (164 ft)

  • 120 m (384 ft)

  • 30 m (98 ft)

  • 90 m (295 ft)

Explicación

Pregunta 64 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (169)
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the
IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 5 NM

  • 25 NM

  • 10 NM

  • 20 NM

Explicación

Pregunta 65 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (170)
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • ± 12.5 NM

  • ± 2.5 NM

  • ± 5 NM

  • ± 10 NM

Explicación

Pregunta 66 de 200

1

10.6.4.0 (172)
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 100 ft

  • 200 ft

  • 250 ft

  • 150 ft

Explicación

Pregunta 67 de 200

1

RED 10.6.4.0 (174)
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 3.3%

  • 2.5%

  • 2%

  • 5%

Explicación

Pregunta 68 de 200

1

10.6.5.0 (175)
What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Follow the radio communication failure procedure.

  • it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.

  • a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.

  • inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.

Explicación

Pregunta 69 de 200

1

10.6.5.0 (176)
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.

  • maximum bank angle of 25°.

  • rate of 3°per second.

  • rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser BANK

Explicación

Pregunta 70 de 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (177)
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum
speed ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 230 kt IAS.

  • 230 kt TAS.

  • 240 kt IAS.

  • 240 kt TAS.

Explicación

Pregunta 71 de 200

1

10.6.5.0 (178)
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • To the left.

  • To the right.

  • First right and then to the left.

  • Teardrop to the left and then to the right.

Explicación

Pregunta 72 de 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (179)
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 1 minute

  • 2 minutes

  • 1,5 minutes

  • 30 sec

Explicación

Pregunta 73 de 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (180)
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound,
inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Off set.

  • Direct.

  • Parallel

  • Either ""off set"" or ""parallel"".

Explicación

Pregunta 74 de 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (181)
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2 minutes 30 seconds.

  • 2 minutes.

  • 1 minute.

  • 1 minute 30 seconds.

Explicación

Pregunta 75 de 200

1

10.6.5.0 (182)
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Course.

  • Bearing.

  • Track.

  • Heading.

Explicación

Pregunta 76 de 200

1

10.6.5.0 (185)
In a standard holding pattern turns are made :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • in a direction depending on the entry ,

  • in a direction depending on the wind direction

  • to the left

  • to the right

Explicación

Pregunta 77 de 200

1

RED 10.6.5.0 (186)
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound

  • Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound

  • Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

  • Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

Explicación

Pregunta 78 de 200

1

RED 10.6.6.0 (187)
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Transition level.

  • Transition altitude.

  • Transition layer.

  • The level specified by ATC.

Explicación

Pregunta 79 de 200

1

10.6.6.0 (189)
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • according pilot's choice.

  • as hlight level.

  • as height.

  • as altitude.

Explicación

Pregunta 80 de 200

1

10.6.6.0 (191)
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as
a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • altitude above mean sea level during climb

  • flight level during descent

  • altitude above mean sea level during descent

  • either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb

Explicación

Pregunta 81 de 200

1

RED 10.6.6.0 (192)
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • only at transition altitude.

  • at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.

  • at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.

  • only at transition level.

Explicación

Pregunta 82 de 200

1

RED 10.6.6.0 (194)
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Within the transition layer

  • When passing the transition level

  • When passing the transition altitude

  • When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL

Explicación

Pregunta 83 de 200

1

10.6.7.0 (197)
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Mode A code 7500.

  • Mode A code 7600.

  • Mode B code 7600.

  • Mode A code 7700.

Explicación

Pregunta 84 de 200

1

10.6.7.0 (200)
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 7600.

  • 2000.

  • 7500.

  • 7700.

Explicación

Pregunta 85 de 200

1

10.6.7.0 (201)
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 7700.

  • 7500.

  • 7600.

  • 7000.

Explicación

Pregunta 86 de 200

1

10.6.7.0 (204)
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.

  • Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.

  • Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.

  • Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.

Explicación

Pregunta 87 de 200

1

10.7.1.1 (227)
Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of
a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis

  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis

  • plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis

  • plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis

Explicación

Pregunta 88 de 200

1

10.7.1.1 (231)
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels

  • 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100

  • 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100

  • 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195

Explicación

Pregunta 89 de 200

1

10.7.1.1 (234)
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Not applicable

  • 260 KT IAS

  • 250 KT IAS

  • 250 KT TAS

Explicación

Pregunta 90 de 200

1

10.7.1.1 (243)
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Airspace D

  • Airspace E

  • Airspace B

  • Airspace A

Explicación

Pregunta 91 de 200

1

10.7.1.2 (249)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 5 minutes.

  • 3 minutes.

  • 10 minutes.

  • 15 minutes.

Explicación

Pregunta 92 de 200

1

10.7.1.2 (250)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same
cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 15 minutes.

  • 10 minutes.

  • 5 minutes.

  • 3 minutes.

Explicación

Pregunta 93 de 200

1

10.7.1.2 (251)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 3 minutes.

  • 10 minutes.

  • 5 minutes.

  • 6 minutes.

Explicación

Pregunta 94 de 200

1

10.7.1.2 (254)
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track,
the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

  • 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

  • 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

  • 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

Explicación

Pregunta 95 de 200

1

RED 10.7.1.2 (257)
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraftpreceding a 'Light' aircraft

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 10 km

  • 6 NM

  • 3 NM

  • 2 km

Explicación

Pregunta 96 de 200

1

10.7.1.3 (265)
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

  • below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

  • below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

  • cumulonimbus

Explicación

Pregunta 97 de 200

1

10.7.1.4 (268)
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.

  • uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.

  • uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.

  • uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

Explicación

Pregunta 98 de 200

1

10.7.1.5 (272)
Alert phase is defined as follows:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of
    emergency.

  • A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.

  • An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened
    by a danger.

  • A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

Explicación

Pregunta 99 de 200

1

10.7.3.0 (277)
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 10 minutes prior to departure.

  • 60 minutes prior to departure.

  • 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.

  • 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.

Explicación

Pregunta 100 de 200

1

10.7.3.0 (278)
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the
pilot shall:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.

  • Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations -
    Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.

  • Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations.

  • Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC.

Explicación

Pregunta 101 de 200

1

10.7.3.0 (280)
A strayed aircraft is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established

  • only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track

  • An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which
    reports that it is lost

  • only that aircraft which reports that it is lost

Explicación

Pregunta 102 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.1 (283)
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

  • Crossing arms extended above his head.

  • Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then
    clenching fist.

  • Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.

Explicación

Pregunta 103 de 200

1

BLUE 10.7.3.1 (284)
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be
amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

  • 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

  • 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

  • 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

Explicación

Pregunta 104 de 200

1

10.7.3.1 (286)
The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the
order listed:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and
    time over.

  • Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.

  • Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and
    time over and ensuing significant point.

  • Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and
    ensuing significant point.

Explicación

Pregunta 105 de 200

1

10.7.3.1 (287)
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The pilot in command.

  • The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.

  • The aircraft operator.

  • The ATC.

Explicación

Pregunta 106 de 200

1

10.7.3.1 (290)
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been
submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and
the old one cancelled, when:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.

  • The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.

  • The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.

  • The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

Explicación

Pregunta 107 de 200

1

10.7.3.1 (295)
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight
plan form...

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
    name of theairport.

  • write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
    name of the airport

  • write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the
    name of theairport

  • write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information)
    ALTN/followed by the name of theairport.

Explicación

Pregunta 108 de 200

1

BLUE 10.7.3.1 (296)
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the
flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • estimated ground speed (G/S).

  • true air speed at 65% power.

  • indicated air speed (IAS).

  • true air speed (TAS).

Explicación

Pregunta 109 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (298)
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way
communication failure?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Return to the aerodrome of departure.

  • Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
    conditions.

  • Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.

  • Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.

Explicación

Pregunta 110 de 200

1

10.7.3.2 (301)
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.

  • The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed
    with ATC.

  • He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.

  • He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.

Explicación

Pregunta 111 de 200

1

10.7.3.2 (303)
Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed
as:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.

  • the weather permits.

  • Prescribed by the aircraft operations.

  • Decided on pilot's discretion.

Explicación

Pregunta 112 de 200

1

10.7.3.2 (305)
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled
airspace below FL 290 is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2500 feet (750 m).

  • 1000 feet (300 m).

  • 2000 feet (600 m).

  • 500 feet (150 m).

Explicación

Pregunta 113 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (306)
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled
airspace above FL 290 is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 4000 feet (1200 m).

  • 1000 feet (300 m).

  • 500 feet (150 m).

  • 2000 feet (600 m).

Explicación

Pregunta 114 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (309)
Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the
same direction is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 3 000 feet.

  • 1 500 feet.

  • 4 000 feet.

  • 2 000 feet.

Explicación

Pregunta 115 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.2 (311)
A ""RNAV"" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level
is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same ""on
track"" way-point. This minimum is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 20 NM.

  • 50 NM.

  • 80 NM.

  • 60 NM.

Explicación

Pregunta 116 de 200

1

10.7.3.2 (316)
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight
level 290?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 500 feet

  • 1000 feet

  • 1500 feet

  • 2000 feet

Explicación

Pregunta 117 de 200

1

10.7.3.2 (317)
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight
level (FL)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Above the transition altitude when applicable

  • only in airspace class A

  • When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa

  • if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet

Explicación

Pregunta 118 de 200

1

10.7.3.2 (323)
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or
more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 3 minutes

  • 2 minutes

  • 10 minutes

  • 5 minutes

Explicación

Pregunta 119 de 200

1

10.7.3.2 (325)
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed
will be

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 10 minutes

  • 15 minutes

  • 5 minutes

  • 3 minutes

Explicación

Pregunta 120 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.3 (331)
An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • the pilot is following the published approach procedure

  • the aircraft gets radar vectors ,

  • the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight,

  • all mentioned answers are correct

Explicación

Pregunta 121 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.3 (343)
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound
on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is,
when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 3.0 NM

  • 1.0 NM

  • 2.0 NM

  • 5.0 NM

Explicación

Pregunta 122 de 200

1

10.7.3.3 (345)
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to
intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall
be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final
approach track at an angle not greater than :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 30 degrees

  • 25 degrees

  • 20 degrees

  • 15 degrees

Explicación

Pregunta 123 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.3 (346)
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided
that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
    display

  • 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted
    on the radar display

  • 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar DISPLAY

  • 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
    display

Explicación

Pregunta 124 de 200

1

10.7.3.4 (352)
A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Medium/poor

  • Good

  • Poor

  • Medium

Explicación

Pregunta 125 de 200

1

10.7.3.4 (355)
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes

  • light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

  • medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes

  • medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes

Explicación

Pregunta 126 de 200

1

10.7.3.4 (357)
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is
landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite
direction runway separated by :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 730 m

  • Less than 730 m

  • 760 m

  • Less than 760 m

Explicación

Pregunta 127 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.4 (358)
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is
utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2 minutes

  • 5 minutes

  • 3 minutes

  • 1 minute

Explicación

Pregunta 128 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.4 (359)
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be
applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are
using the same runway ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2 minutes

  • 3 minutes

  • 4 minutes

  • 1 minute

Explicación

Pregunta 129 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.5 (362)
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is
taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2 minutes

  • 3 minutes

  • 1 minute

  • 5 minutes

Explicación

Pregunta 130 de 200

1

10.7.3.6 (364)
Which code shall be used on Mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an aircraft
subjected to unlawful interference?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Code 7500.

  • Code 7700.

  • Code 7600

  • Code 2000.

Explicación

Pregunta 131 de 200

1

10.7.3.6 (365)
Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight
    instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

  • ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you
    are advised that contact has been lost.

  • You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that
    radar contact has been lost.

  • Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
    contact with this radar facility.

Explicación

Pregunta 132 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (366)
What is meant when departure control instruct you to ""resume own navigation""
after you have been vectored to an airway?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.

  • You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

  • Radar Service is terminated.

  • Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.

Explicación

Pregunta 133 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (367)
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR
mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the
required direction by:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • More than 300 ft.

  • 300 ft.

  • +/- 300 ft.

  • More than 200 ft.

Explicación

Pregunta 134 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (368)
The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2.0 NM.

  • 3.0 NM.

  • 5.0 NM.

  • 1.5 NM.

Explicación

Pregunta 135 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (374)
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on
the airway and to ""resume own navigation"". This phrase means that:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • You are to assume responsability for your own navigation.

  • You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

  • Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports.

  • You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.

Explicación

Pregunta 136 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (389)
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR
mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.

Explicación

Pregunta 137 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (385)
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the
localizer course shall be:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

  • 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

  • 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.

  • 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

Explicación

Pregunta 138 de 200

1

BLUE 10.7.3.6 (386)
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information
displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • +/- 250 ft.

  • +/- 300 ft.

  • +/- 200 ft.

  • +/- 500 ft.

Explicación

Pregunta 139 de 200

1

10.7.3.6 (382)
When ""Secondary Radar"" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the
following procedures:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from
    ""ON"" to ""STBY"" and back to ""ON"".

  • To request pilot to set transponder on position ""ON"".

  • To request pilot to set transponder on position ""OFF"".

  • To request pilot to switch from ""ON"" to ""STDBY"".

Explicación

Pregunta 140 de 200

1

10.7.3.6 (387)
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar
separation minimum shall be:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 3.0 NM.

  • 5.0 NM.

  • 10.0 NM.

  • 3.5 NM.

Explicación

Pregunta 141 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (388)
The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by
an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller
criterion):

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • +/- 300 ft.

  • +/- 200 ft.

  • +/- 150 ft.

  • +/- 250 ft.

Explicación

Pregunta 142 de 200

1

RED 10.7.3.6 (389)
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR
mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.

  • +/- 250 ft of the assigned level

  • +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.

Explicación

Pregunta 143 de 200

1

10.7.3.6 (391)
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the
pilot?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft

  • The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

  • The aircraft is subject to positive control

  • Position reports may be omitted

Explicación

Pregunta 144 de 200

1

10.8.1.0 (403)
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas
and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • GEN.

  • RAC.

  • COM.

  • MET.

Explicación

Pregunta 145 de 200

1

RED 10.8.1.0 (418)
The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a
change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This
information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic
eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is
reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour
code is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • RED

  • YELLOW

  • GREEN

  • ORANGE

Explicación

Pregunta 146 de 200

1

10.8.1.0 (419)
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing
charts

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Visibility minima

  • DME-frequencies

  • OCH or OCA

  • Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector

Explicación

Pregunta 147 de 200

1

10.8.1.0 (421)
ASHTAM

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • GVATAM

  • NAVTAM

  • VULTAM

  • 1999-06-08 0:00

Explicación

Pregunta 148 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (432)
""TODA"" take-off distance available is:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if
    provided).

  • The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if
    provided).

Explicación

Pregunta 149 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (433)
""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.

  • Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

  • Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.

  • Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

Explicación

Pregunta 150 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (439)
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off
run available prepared as a suitable area where:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.

  • A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.

  • A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.

  • An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

Explicación

Pregunta 151 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.1 (440)
""ASDA"" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway
    provided) .

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if
    provided) .

  • The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

  • The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).

Explicación

Pregunta 152 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (442)
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fixed lights showing variable white.

  • Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.

  • Flashing white.

  • Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.

Explicación

Pregunta 153 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (443)
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Flashing green.

  • Flashing white.

  • Fixed green

  • Fixed white.

Explicación

Pregunta 154 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (448)
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fixed lights showing green.

  • Fixed lights showing blue

  • Fixed lights showing yellow.

  • Fixed lights showing white

Explicación

Pregunta 155 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (449)
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar
lights shall be:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fixed lights showing variable white.

  • Flashing lights showing variable white.

  • Fixed lights showing variable green.

  • Flashing lights showing variable green.

Explicación

Pregunta 156 de 200

1

10.9.1.2 (446)
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light
sources on the centre line have a length of:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 300 m.

  • 150 m.

  • 200 m.

  • 250 m.

Explicación

Pregunta 157 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (454)
Taxiway edge lights shall be:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fixed showing blue.

  • Fixed showing green.

  • Fixed showing yellow.

  • Flashing showing blue.

Explicación

Pregunta 158 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (455)
Runway end lights shall be:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.

  • Fixed lights showing variable red.

  • Fixed lights showing variable white.

Explicación

Pregunta 159 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (456)
Runway threshold lights shall be:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.

  • Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the
    runway.

  • Fixed lights green colours.

  • Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

Explicación

Pregunta 160 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (459)
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway
CAT II :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 900m

  • 150m

  • 300m

  • 600m

Explicación

Pregunta 161 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (461)
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and
visual aids intended for operations down to:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

  • a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

  • a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

  • a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

Explicación

Pregunta 162 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (462)
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence
at :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 300 m from threshold

  • 150 m from threshold

  • 450 m from threshold

  • 600 m from threshold

Explicación

Pregunta 163 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (463)
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ,

  • always of a straight row of lights towards the runway

  • of flashing lights only,

  • of an arbitrary amount of green lights,

Explicación

Pregunta 164 de 200

1

RED 10.9.1.2 (464)
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes
is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What
should be the length of this approach light system?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 900 metres

  • 420 metres

  • 1000 metres

  • 1200 metres

Explicación

Pregunta 165 de 200

1

RED 21.1.5.0 (555)
On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • will wear at the shoulders

  • it's tread will deteriorate faster

  • will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed

  • will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway

Explicación

Pregunta 166 de 200

1

RED 21.1.8.3 (602)
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • decreases

  • increases

  • remains constant

  • may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
    taken.

Explicación

Pregunta 167 de 200

1

RED 21.1.8.3 (620)
The ""cabin differential pressure"" is:
a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.

  • approximately 5 psi at maximum.

  • approximately 15 psi at maximum.

  • the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.

Explicación

Pregunta 168 de 200

1

RED 21.3.3.2 (958)
In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • rotor - stator

  • stator - stator - rotor

  • rotor - rotor - stator

  • stator - rotor

Explicación

Pregunta 169 de 200

1

RED 21.4.5.0 (1097)
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 100%

  • normal.

  • emergency.

  • on demand.

Explicación

Pregunta 170 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.1 (1119)
A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port
open causes the airspeed indicator to :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • react like an altimeter

  • read a little high.

  • read a little low.

  • freeze at zero.

Explicación

Pregunta 171 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.1 (1120)
A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following
instrument (s) :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • altimeter only.

  • airspeed indicator only.

  • vertical speed indicator only.

  • airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

Explicación

Pregunta 172 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1126)
If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument
will:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured

  • under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became
    blocked

  • over-read

  • gradually return to zero

Explicación

Pregunta 173 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1123)
The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near
the source is known as:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • position pressure error.

  • barometric error.

  • instrument error.

  • hysteresis effect.

Explicación

Pregunta 174 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1124)
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the
instrument will:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • continue to display the reading at which the blockage occured

  • gradually indicate zero

  • under-read

  • indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale

Explicación

Pregunta 175 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1133)
The density altitude is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the
    actual density of the atmosphere

  • the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the
    standard temperature

  • the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point

  • the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point

Explicación

Pregunta 176 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1135)
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • overread.

  • underread.

  • be just as correct as before.

  • show the actual height above ground.

Explicación

Pregunta 177 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1136)
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must
not exceed :
a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • +/-60 feet

  • +/-75 feet

  • +/-30 feet

  • +/-70 feet

Explicación

Pregunta 178 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.2 (1138)
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in
flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • the replies from the transponders of other aircraft

  • the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system

  • the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board

  • both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes

Explicación

Pregunta 179 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1146)
A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed
indicator would cause it to:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • under-read.

  • over-read.

  • over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.

  • under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.

Explicación

Pregunta 180 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1148)
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a
descent the instrument will:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • over-read

  • read zero

  • continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage

  • under-read

Explicación

Pregunta 181 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1149)
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed
(IAS) :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • an instrument and position/pressure error correction.

  • an antenna and compressibility correction.

  • and instrument and density correction.

  • a compressibility and density correction.

Explicación

Pregunta 182 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1150)
VNO is the maximum speed :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

  • which must never be exceeded.

  • with flaps extended in landing position

  • at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.

Explicación

Pregunta 183 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1152)
VLO is the maximum :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.

  • flight speed with landing gear down.

  • speed with flaps extended in a given position.

  • cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.

Explicación

Pregunta 184 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1154)
With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will
indicate in descent a :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • decreasing speed.

  • constant speed.

  • increasing speed.

  • fluctuating speed.

Explicación

Pregunta 185 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1159)
After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total
pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
and finds that the indicated airspeed :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • decreases steadily

  • increases abruptly towards VNE

  • increases steadily

  • decreases abruptly towards zero

Explicación

Pregunta 186 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.3 (1160)
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure
probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • increases steadily

  • increases abruptly towards VNE

  • decreases stadily

  • decreases abruptly towards zero

Explicación

Pregunta 187 de 200

1

RED 22.1.1.4 (1176)
The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 661 kt.

  • 1059 kt.

  • 644 kt.

  • 332 kt.

Explicación

Pregunta 188 de 200

1

RED 22.1.2.4 (1224)
A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Contains its own separate gyro

  • Only works of there is a complete electrical failure

  • Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation

  • Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails

Explicación

Pregunta 189 de 200

1

RED 22.1.2.5 (1236)
The rate-of-turn is the:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • yaw rate in a turn

  • change-of-heading rate of the aircraft

  • aircraft speed in a turn

  • pitch rate in a turn

Explicación

Pregunta 190 de 200

1

RED 22.1.4.0 (1282)
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.

  • height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.

  • height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.

  • altitude of the aircraft.

Explicación

Pregunta 191 de 200

1

RED 22.1.5.0 (1284)
The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • weather situation.

  • piloting.

  • engines and alarms.

  • systems.

Explicación

Pregunta 192 de 200

1

RED 22.2.2.0 (1326)
An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called ""FAIL...:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • ""OPERATIONAL""

  • ""PASSIVE""

  • ""SAFE""

  • ""REDUNDANT"

Explicación

Pregunta 193 de 200

1

RED 22.2.2.0 (1327)
An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually
in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called ""FAIL....""

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • ""PASSIVE""

  • ""OPERATIONAL""

  • ""SAFE""

  • ""REDUNDANT""

Explicación

Pregunta 194 de 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1377)
The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

  • 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

  • 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

  • 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

Explicación

Pregunta 195 de 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1375)
The GPWS calculator receives the following signals :
1 - vertical speed
2 - radio altimeter height
3 - pressure altitude
4 - glidepath deviation
5 - gear and flaps position
6 - angle of attack
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 1,2,5,6

  • 1,2,4,5

  • 1,3,4,5,6

  • 2,3,4,6

Explicación

Pregunta 196 de 200

1

22.3.3.0 (1376)
The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes :
1- excessive descent rate
2- excessive rate of terrain closure
3- excessive angle of attack
4- too high descent attitude
5- loss of altitude after take-off
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7- excessive glidepath deviation
The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 1,2,5,6,7

  • 3,4,5,6

  • 1,2,4,6,7

  • 2,3,5,7

Explicación

Pregunta 197 de 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1383)
A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity Warning
System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of :
1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.
2 - dangerous ground proximity.
3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed
approach.
4 - wrong landing configuration.
5 - descent below glidepath, within limits.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2,3,4,5

  • 2

  • 1,3,4

  • 2,5

Explicación

Pregunta 198 de 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1384)
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • the ground to 1 000 ft

  • 50 ft to 2 500 ft

  • 30 ft to 5 000 ft

  • the ground to 500 ft

Explicación

Pregunta 199 de 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1385)
The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following cases :
1- excessive rate of descent
2- excessive ground proximity rate
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

  • 2, 4, 5, 6

  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

  • 3, 4, 5, 6

Explicación

Pregunta 200 de 200

1

RED 22.3.3.0 (1388)
The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:
1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed)
2- Radio Altimeter
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4- NAV/VOR
5- Flap (position)
6- Angle of Attack
7- Landing Gear (position)The combination of correct statement is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 1,2,3,5,7

  • 2,3,4,5,7

  • 1,2,5,6,7

  • 1,2,5, 8 7

Explicación