All of the following would decrease WBC levels EXCEPT
trauma
immunosuppression
drug toxicity
overwhelming infection
WBC in child < 2
6,200-17,000
5,000-10,000
9,000-30,000
WBC level in >2 to adult
WBC in newborn
What are the panic values for WBC
< 1,000 > 30,000
< 2,000 > 30,000
< 2,500 > 30,000
All of the following are granulocytes EXCEPT
monocytes
neutrophils
basophils
eosinophils
T and B cells are part of what type of agranulocyte?
lymphocyte
monocyte
eosinophil
How many days are neutrophils in circulation?
4
5
6
7
Critical value of actual neutrophil count (ANC)
< 1200
< 1000
< 800
Eosinophils are what % of WBC's
55-70
1-4
-.5-1
Eosinophils and basophils respond to viral and bacterial infections.
True
False
Eosinophils and Basophils respond in allergic reactions and parasitic infections
What is responsible for hives and skin reactions due to cytoplasm containing heparin, histamine, and serotonin?
neutrophil
basophil
What type of cells provide humoral immunity?
T cells
B cells
What type of cell produces interferon?
All of the following are true for hemoglobin EXCEPT
Transports Oxygen
Transports Carbon Dioxide
acts as an acid base buffer
indicates infection
Hemoglobin panic values:
< 10 > 30
< 5 > 20
< 8 > 15
Hematocrit critical value:
< 20 > 60
< 15 > 45
< 10 > 60
MCV
% of hemoglobin in a single RBC (color)
Average weight of hemoglobin within a RBC
Average volume/size of single RBC
Increased reticulocyte means all of the following EXCEPT
bone marrow is putting an increased amount of RBC's into bloodstream
hemolytic anemia
aplastic anemia
SSA
Normal or low reticulocyte count with anemia indicates all of the following EXCEPT
hemolysis
Marrow is not appropriately responding
aplastic
Fe deficiency
B12 deficiency
All would be included in the work-up for macrocytic anemia EXCEPT?
B12 and folate
iron studies
peripheral smear
TSH
All would be included in microcytic anemia work-up EXCEPT
Hgb electrophoresis
bone marrow biopsy
Iron tells us:
all proteins available for binding to iron
the major iron-storage protein
quantity of iron bound to transferrin
TIBC tells us:
the major iron storage protein
What are the iron-binding proteins?
transferrin
ferritin
What is the major iron-storage protein?
Transferrin
Ferritin
What is needed for adequate functioning of the RBC's and WBC's due to synthesis of amino acids and DNA?
folic acid
What does B12 activate?
folate
The Schilling Test is used for all of the following EXCEPT:
iron deficiency anemia
pernicious anemia
determine the cause of B12 deficiency
Increases LDH, increased bilirubin, and decreased haptoglobin are indicative of:
acute blood loss
Fetal hemoglobin contains all of the following EXCEPT:
2 alpha chains
2 beta chains
2 gamma chains
What is the most common type of hemoglobin in adults?
A
A2
F
All of the following are found in sickle cell disease except?
D
S
C
What type of hemoglobin doesn't carry oxygen well?
What type of hemoglobin is found in people of Southeast Asian descent?
E
HBSS indicates:
inherited 1 sickle cell gene and 1 abnormal hemoglobin gene
inherited 2 sickle cell genes
inherited 1 sickle cell gene and 1 normal hemoglobin gene
HBSC indicates
one sickle cell gene and one abnormal hemoglobin gene
1 sickle cell gene and one normal hemoglobin gene
2 sickle cell genes
What test is used to differentiate hemolytic anemia into hereditary spherocytosis or thalassemia?
hemoglobin electrophoresis
genetic testing
osmotic fragility test
Decreased osmotic fragility test indicates:
hereditary spherocytosis
thalassemia
autoimmune hemolytic anemias
What should be suspected in people with hemolysis reactions after certain medications and foods?
G6PD deficiency
PTT
intrinsic
extrinsic
All of the following cause prolonged bleeding time EXCEPT
iron deficiency
ASA/NSAIDs
Von Willebrand
scurvy
renal failure
What is used to monitor heparin therapy
aPTT
bleeding time
platelet count
aPTT/PTT evaluate what pathways?
extrinsic and common coagulation pathways
intrinsic and common coagulation pathways
intrinsic and extrinsic pathways
Warfarin therapy and liver synthetic function is monitored using:
PT/INR
aPTT/PTT
PT/INR evaluates what pathways?
intrinsic and common
extrinsic and common
intrinsic and extrinsic
Fibrinogen is a measure of what pathway?
factor I and common
A decrease in antithrombin III leads to
increased bleeding
hypercoagulation
Protein C inhibits:
Va and VIIIa
II, X, XI, XII
V, VI, VII
Antithrombin III inhibits:
Va, VIIIa
What is the co-factor to Protein C
Protein S
antithrombin III
factor Va
Proteins C and S are decreased in all of the following EXCEPT
Coumadin
liver disease
renal disease
nutritional deficiency
C4 binding protein from autoimmune diseases can inactivate:
protein S
What is the most common hereditary coagulation disorder in the US?
Factor V-Leiden
sickle cell disease
In Factor V-Leiden, protein C can't break it down which results in all of the following EXCEPT
increased thrombin generation
increased antithrombin III generation
mild hypercoaguable state
APC is a natural anticoagulant that inactivates
X, XII, XI
fVa and fVIIIa
patients with factor V leiden will be resistant to WHAT when exposed to APC
deactivation of fVa and fVIIIa
activation of fVa and fVIIIa
In what disorder is the clotting mechanism inappropriately triggered producing thrombosis and hemorrhage?
Factor V Leidein
DIC
APC
In DIC, fibrin clots form intravascularly consuming platelets and clotting factors leading to what?
decreased bleeding time
increased clotting
excessive bleeding
The following image shows:
sickle cell
sideroblastic
What is the following smear depicting?
Heinz bodies
nucleated RBC's
sideroblastic anemia
What acts as a carrier protein for factor VIII?
Von Willebrand Factor
Hemophilia A
What is the most common bleeding disorder?
VWD
hemophilia A
hemophilia B
What is a Factor VIII deficiency?
Hemophilia B
Hemophilia C
What is a Factor IX deficiency?
Which hemophilia disorder is common among Ashkenazi Jews?
What would be high on your differential with mucosal and cutaneous bleeding?
hemophilia
What would be high on your differential with bleeding in joints, muscle, and GI tract?
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