ISTQB Foundation Level - 500 questions

Pregunta 1 de 200

1

Q. 1: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. D, A, B, C.
B. A, B, C, D.
C. D, A, B.
D. A, B, C.

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 200

1

Q. 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration
Management?:
i) Identifying the version of software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testware items.
v) Analysing the need for new testware items.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv.i
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 200

1

Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
B. Initiating corrective actions.
C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 200

1

Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a
walkthrough?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.
B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.
C. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.
D. A walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during inspections.

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 200

1

Q. 5: Where may functional testing be performed?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 200

1

Q. 6: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification.
B. To identify defects in any software work product.
C. To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification.
D. To identify standards inconsistencies in the code.

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 200

1

Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Developers.
B. Analysts.
C. Testers.
D. Incident Managers.

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 200

1

Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. The name and/or organisational position of the person raising the problem.
B. Version of the Software Under Test.
C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.
D. Actual and expected results.

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 200

1

Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 200

1

Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which
statement BEST details those for developers

i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
B. ii. and iv. are more for developers.
C. ii, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 200

1

Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing.
B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team.
C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been
fixed correctly.
D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much
regression testing to do.

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 200

1

Q. 12: As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 200

1

Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of
state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system
design?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.
D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 200

1

Q. 14: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Measuring and analyzing results.
B. Reporting discrepancies as incidents.
C. Identifying test conditions or test requirements.
D. Assessing if more tests are needed.

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 200

1

Q. 15: What is beta testing?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.
B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.
C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location.
D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 200

1

Q. 16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100%
decision coverage?

if width > length
then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width
then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length
if height > length
then
biggest_dimension = height
end_if
end_if

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 200

1

Q. 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision
coverage for the following fragment of code.

if width > length
then
biggest_dimension = width
else
biggest_dimension = length
end_if

The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above.

print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension
print "Width: " & width
print "Length: " & length

How many more test cases are required?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage.
B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be
used to provide 100% decision coverage.
C. None, existing test cases can be used.
D. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 200

1

Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature
falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the
temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all
equivalence partitions?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 15, 19 and 25.
B. 17, 18 and 19.
C. 18, 20 and 22.
D. 16, 26 and 32.

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 200

1

Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient
test execution?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Implementation and execution.
B. Planning and control.
C. Analysis and design.
D. Test closure.

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 200

1

Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing
to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as
a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects.
C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any
defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 200

1

Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and
expected results is VALID?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 0 and excess is,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is 00.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 0 and excess is ,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is ,000.

Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 200

1

Q. 22: When should configuration management procedures be implemented?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. During test planning.
B. During test analysis.
C. During test execution.
D. When evaluating exit criteria

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 200

1

Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?

i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. ii, iv.
B. ii, iii.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iii.

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 200

1

Q. 24: A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is
a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to
prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered.
Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using
Boundary Value Analysis?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80
C. 4, 5, 99
D. 1, 20, 100

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 200

1

Q. 25: Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and
implementation of a testing tool?

i) Investigate the organisation's test process.
ii) Conduct a proof of concept.
iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time.
iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. i, ii, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
iv.

Explicación

Pregunta 26 de 200

1

Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.
B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.
C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later.
D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.

Explicación

Pregunta 27 de 200

1

Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test
tools?

i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. ii and iv
B. ii and iii
C. i and iv
D. i and iii

Explicación

Pregunta 28 de 200

1

Q. 28: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to
testing?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.
B. Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the software has
been produced.
C. Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic.
D. Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced; reactive tests are
designed early in response to review comments.

Explicación

Pregunta 29 de 200

1

Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. To define when a test level is complete.
B. To determine when a test has completed.
C. To identify when a software system should be retired.
D. To determine whether a test has passed.

Explicación

Pregunta 30 de 200

1

Q. 30: What determines the level of risk?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.
B. The probability that an adverse event will occur.
C. The amount of testing planned before release of a system.
D. The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.

Explicación

Pregunta 31 de 200

1

Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY
associated?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Tool support for performance and monitoring.
B. Tool support for static testing.
C. Tool support for test execution and logging.
D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.

Explicación

Pregunta 32 de 200

1

Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.
B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

Explicación

Pregunta 33 de 200

1

Q. 33: Match the following terms and statements.

1.Decision Table Testing
2.Decision Testing
3.State Transition Testing
4.Exploratory Testing

W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement
structured testing.
X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending on
current conditions or previous history.
Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have
been exercised during testing.
Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.

Explicación

Pregunta 34 de 200

1

Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe
a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Black Box Techniques.
B. White Box Techniques.
C. Glass Box Techniques.
D. Experience Based Techniques.

Explicación

Pregunta 35 de 200

1

Q. 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Supporting reviews.
B. Validating models of the software.
C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
D. Enforcement of coding standards.

Explicación

Pregunta 36 de 200

1

Q. 36: Which of the following types of defects is use case testing MOST LIKELY to
uncover?

i) Defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system.
ii) Defects in the interface parameters in integration testing.
iii) Integration defects caused by the interaction and interference of different components.
iv) Defects in the system as it transitions between one state and another.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. ii, iii.
B. i, iii.
C. iii, iv.
D. i, ii

Explicación

Pregunta 37 de 200

1

Q. 37: Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.
B. The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.
C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
D. The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.

Explicación

Pregunta 38 de 200

1

Q. 38: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. It does not require familiarity with the code.
B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.
C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.

Explicación

Pregunta 39 de 200

1

Q. 39: The above diagram represents the following paths through the code.

A. vwy
B. vwz
C. vxy
D. vxz

What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full statement coverage?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. A
B. ABD
C. ABCD
D. ACD

Explicación

Pregunta 40 de 200

1

Q. 40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box)
techniques?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Test cases can be easily automated.
B. Test cases are independent of each other.
C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system .
D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.

Explicación

Pregunta 41 de 200

1

Q. 41: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to
component testing:

i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.
ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.
iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes.
iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. i and ii.
B. I, ii and iii
C. iii.
D. ii and iv

Explicación

Pregunta 42 de 200

1

Q. 42: Which of the following is a purpose of the review planning phase?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Log defects.
B. Explain the documents to the participants.
C. Gather metrics.
D. Allocate the individual roles.

Explicación

Pregunta 43 de 200

1

Q. 43: A defect arrival rate curve:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.

Explicación

Pregunta 44 de 200

1

Q. 44: Which is the best definition of complete testing:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.

Explicación

Pregunta 45 de 200

1

Q. 45: Complete statement and branch coverage means:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

Explicación

Pregunta 46 de 200

1

Q. 46: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical
reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do
the rest of the project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project,
because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm
them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report
bugs.
D. All of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 47 de 200

1

Q. 47: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Deviations from standards,
B. Requirement defects,
C. Design defects,
D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
E. All of the above.

Explicación

Pregunta 48 de 200

1

Q. 48: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Identifying defects.
B. Fixing defects.
C. A. and B
D. None of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 49 de 200

1

Q. 49: We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF
statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE branch.
B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather than on the program's flow of control.
C. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.
D. All of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 50 de 200

1

Q. 50: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people
are doing other aspects of their work much less well.
B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
D. All of the above.

Explicación

Pregunta 51 de 200

1

Q. 51: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one
or more answers):

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
D. All of the above.

Explicación

Pregunta 52 de 200

1

Q. 52: Poor software characteristics are

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks

Explicación

Pregunta 53 de 200

1

Q. 53: System testing should investigate

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements

Explicación

Pregunta 54 de 200

1

Q. 54: Contract and regulation testing is a part of

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing

Explicación

Pregunta 55 de 200

1

Q. 55: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off

Explicación

Pregunta 56 de 200

1

Q. 56: Which is not the testing objectives

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects

Explicación

Pregunta 57 de 200

1

Q. 57: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of
the following costs of quality?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention

Explicación

Pregunta 58 de 200

1

Q. 58: Which is not the project risks

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered

Explicación

Pregunta 59 de 200

1

Q. 59: Bug life cycle

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

Explicación

Pregunta 60 de 200

1

Q. 60: Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that
were identified during the review meeting

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Moderator
B. Scribe
C. Reviewers
D. Author

Explicación

Pregunta 61 de 200

1

Q. 61: ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using
BVA which is the appropriate one

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. –1, 0, 1, 99

Explicación

Pregunta 62 de 200

1

Q. 62: Which is not a testing principle

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing

Explicación

Pregunta 63 de 200

1

Q. 63: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.

The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip
the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which
of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.

Explicación

Pregunta 64 de 200

1

Q. 64: The ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own
locations

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing

Explicación

Pregunta 65 de 200

1

Q. 65: Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. ISO 1926
B. ISO 829
C. ISO 1012
D. ISO 1028

Explicación

Pregunta 66 de 200

1

Q. 66: Which is not a black box testing technique

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Equivalence partition
B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams
D. Decision testing

Explicación

Pregunta 67 de 200

1

Q. 67: Find the mismatch

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence

Explicación

Pregunta 68 de 200

1

Q. 68: Use cases can be performed to test

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios
D. Static testing

Explicación

Pregunta 69 de 200

1

Q. 69: Purpose of test design technique is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases

Explicación

Pregunta 70 de 200

1

Q. 70: One person has been dominating the current software process improvement
meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other
team members into the discussion?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their
opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone
else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.

Explicación

Pregunta 71 de 200

1

Q. 71: Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the
following method

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach

Explicación

Pregunta 72 de 200

1

Q. 72: A software model that can’t be used in functional testing

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Process flow model
B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model
D. Plain language specification model

Explicación

Pregunta 73 de 200

1

Q. 73: Arc testing is known as

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Branch testing
B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing
D. Ad-hoc testing

Explicación

Pregunta 74 de 200

1

Q. 74: The purpose of exit criteria is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 75 de 200

1

Q. 75: The ___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Boundary value analysis
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing
D. State transition testing

Explicación

Pregunta 76 de 200

1

Q. 76: The __________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing
D. Integration testing

Explicación

Pregunta 77 de 200

1

Q. 77: What is the main purpose of Informal review

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems

Explicación

Pregunta 78 de 200

1

Q. 78: Which is not a Component testing

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Check the memory leaks
B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage
D. Check the decision tables

Explicación

Pregunta 79 de 200

1

Q. 79: The software engineer's role in tool selection is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools

Explicación

Pregunta 80 de 200

1

Q. 80: Which is not the fundamental test process

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
D. None

Explicación

Pregunta 81 de 200

1

Q. 81: The and are used within individual workbenches to produce
the right output products.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs
D. Reviews and update

Explicación

Pregunta 82 de 200

1

Q. 82: Which is not the software characteristics

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Scalability
D. Maintainability

Explicación

Pregunta 83 de 200

1

Q. 83: The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as
nodes, P as independent paths

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P

Explicación

Pregunta 84 de 200

1

Q. 84: FPA is used to

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow

Explicación

Pregunta 85 de 200

1

Q. 85: A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. SDLC
B. Project Plan
C. Policy
D. Procedure

Explicación

Pregunta 86 de 200

1

Q. 86: Which is not a test Oracle

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual’s knowledge
D. User manual

Explicación

Pregunta 87 de 200

1

Q. 87: PDCA is known as

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept

Explicación

Pregunta 88 de 200

1

Q. 88: Which is the non-functional testing

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing
D. Sanity testing

Explicación

Pregunta 89 de 200

1

Q. 89: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:

i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

Explicación

Pregunta 90 de 200

1

Q. 90: Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to
measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the
test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Load Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing
D. Usability Testing

Explicación

Pregunta 91 de 200

1

Q. 91: Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Explicación

Pregunta 92 de 200

1

Q. 92: What can static analysis NOT find?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. The use of a variable before it has been defined
B. Unreachable ("dead") code
C. Memory leaks
D. Array bound violations

Explicación

Pregunta 93 de 200

1

Q. 93: White Box Techniques are also called as:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Structural Testing
B. Design Based Testin
C. Error Guessing Technique
D. Experience Based Technique

Explicación

Pregunta 94 de 200

1

Q. 94: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Explicación

Pregunta 95 de 200

1

Q. 95: Component Testing is also called as :-

i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
D. all of above is true

Explicación

Pregunta 96 de 200

1

Q. 96: Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution.
C. Assessing if more tests are needed.
D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

Explicación

Pregunta 97 de 200

1

Q. 97: Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-

i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
D. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false

Explicación

Pregunta 98 de 200

1

Q. 98: The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the
correct order.

i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
B. vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
C. i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
D. i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

Explicación

Pregunta 99 de 200

1

Q. 99: Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the
interaction between integrated components is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. System Level Testing
B. Integration Level Testing
C. Unit Level Testing
D. Component Testing

Explicación

Pregunta 100 de 200

1

Q. 100: Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Breadth Test and Depth Test
B. Re-testing
C. Confirmation Testing
D. Sanity Testing

Explicación

Pregunta 101 de 200

1

Q. 101: The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is
turned on when the temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than
21. Identify the Equivalance values which belong to the same class.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 12,16,22
B. 24,27,17
C. 22,23,24
D. 14,15,19

Explicación

Pregunta 102 de 200

1

Q. 102: What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
B. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test
case
C. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
D. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a
test case.

Explicación

Pregunta 103 de 200

1

Q. 103: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution
Phase

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Creating test suites from the test cases
B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
C. Comparing actual results
D. Designing the Tests

Explicación

Pregunta 104 de 200

1

Q. 104: Link Testing is also called as :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Component Integration testing
B. Component System Testing
C. Component Sub System Testing
D. Maintenance testing

Explicación

Pregunta 105 de 200

1

Q. 105: Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-

i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

Explicación

Pregunta 106 de 200

1

Q. 106: Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code
B. Static testing includes desk checking
C. Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
D. Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

Explicación

Pregunta 107 de 200

1

Q. 107: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required
infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Test Implementation and execution
B. Test Analysis and Design
C. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
D. Test Closure Activities

Explicación

Pregunta 108 de 200

1

Q. 108: A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to
detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Security Testing
B. Recovery Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Functionality Testing

Explicación

Pregunta 109 de 200

1

Q. 109: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were
identified during a formal review.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Moderator.
B. Scribe
C. Author
D. Manager

Explicación

Pregunta 110 de 200

1

Q. 110: The Test Cases Derived from use cases

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the
system
B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the
system
C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the
system
D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

Explicación

Pregunta 111 de 200

1

Q. 111: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric
values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. BOOK
B. Book
C. Boo01k
D. book

Explicación

Pregunta 112 de 200

1

Q. 112: In a Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks inorder to clear
the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalance
values if the student clears the exam.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 22,23,26
B. 21,39,40
C. 29,30,31
D. 0,15,22

Explicación

Pregunta 113 de 200

1

Q. 113: Verification involves which of the following :-

i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
B. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
D. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

Explicación

Pregunta 114 de 200

1

Q. 114: A Project risk includes which of the following :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Organizational Factors
B. Poor Software characteristics
C. Error Prone software delivered.
D. Software that does not perform its intended functions

Explicación

Pregunta 115 de 200

1

Q. 115: Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
B. Pre Meeting Preparations
C. Formal Follow Up Process
D. Includes Metrics

Explicación

Pregunta 116 de 200

1

Q. 116: Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Statement Testing and coverage
B. Decision Testing and coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Boundary value analysis

Explicación

Pregunta 117 de 200

1

Q. 117: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Explicación

Pregunta 118 de 200

1

Q. 118: In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :

i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

Explicación

Pregunta 119 de 200

1

Q. 119: Incidents would not be raised against:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Requirements
B. Documentation
C. Test cases
D. Improvements suggested by users

Explicación

Pregunta 120 de 200

1

Q. 120: The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Explaining the objectives
B. Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations

Explicación

Pregunta 121 de 200

1

Q. 121: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and
optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Explicación

Pregunta 122 de 200

1

Q. 122: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in
the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalance class

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 17
B. 19
C. 24
D. 21

Explicación

Pregunta 123 de 200

1

Q. 123: Exhaustive Testing is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Is impractical but possible
B. Is practically possible
C. Is impractical and impossible
D. Is always possible

Explicación

Pregunta 124 de 200

1

Q. 124: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Explicación

Pregunta 125 de 200

1

Q. 125: Which one is not comes under international standard

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. IEC
B. IEEE
C. ISO
D. All of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 126 de 200

1

Q. 126: In which phase static tests are used

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Coding
D. All of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 127 de 200

1

Q. 127: What's the disadvantage of Black Box Testing

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Chances of having repetition of tests that are already done by programmer.
B. The test inputs needs to be from large sample space.
C. It is difficult to identify all possible inputs in limited testing time. So writing test cases is
slow and difficult
D. All above

Explicación

Pregunta 128 de 200

1

Q. 128: Static analysis tools are typically used by

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Testers
B. Developers
C. Testers & Developers
D. None

Explicación

Pregunta 129 de 200

1

Q. 129: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Requirements Phase.
B. Analysis and Design Phase
C. Development Phase
D. Testing Phase

Explicación

Pregunta 130 de 200

1

Q. 130: The specification which describes steps required to operate the system and
exercise test cases in order to implement the associated test design

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Test Case Specification
B. Test Design Specification
C. Test Procedure Specification
D. None

Explicación

Pregunta 131 de 200

1

Q. 131: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software are spent on
maintenance.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%

Explicación

Pregunta 132 de 200

1

Q. 132: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to
confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Regression testing
B. Maintenance testing
C. Confirmation testing
D. None of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 133 de 200

1

Q. 133: Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which
test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be
developed.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 134 de 200

1

Q. 134: When to stop Testing?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires
B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.
C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.
D. None above

Explicación

Pregunta 135 de 200

1

Q. 135: With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from a program prior
to delivery to the customer.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 136 de 200

1

Q. 136: Structure is unknown for which type of development project

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Traditional system development
B. Iterative development
C. System maintenance
D. Purchased/contracted software

Explicación

Pregunta 137 de 200

1

Q. 137: ________indicates how important it is to fix the bug and when it should be
fixed

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Severity
B. Priority
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 138 de 200

1

Q. 138: The person who leads the review of the document(s), planning the
review,running the meeting and follow-up after the meeting

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Reviewer
B. Author
C. Moderator
D. Auditor

Explicación

Pregunta 139 de 200

1

Q. 139: Performs sufficient testing to evaluate every possible path and condition in the
application system. The only test method that guarantees the proper functioning of the
application system is called as _____________

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Regression Testing
B. Exhaustive Testing
C. Basic Path Testing
D. Branch Testing

Explicación

Pregunta 140 de 200

1

Q. 140: Quality Assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with the
application standards and the action taken when nonconformance is detected.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 141 de 200

1

Q. 141: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more qualified
independent reviewer to detect defects.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Inspection.
B. Walkthrough.
C. Review
D. Non Conformance

Explicación

Pregunta 142 de 200

1

Q. 142: Test Case are grouped into Manageable (and scheduled) units are called as

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Test Harness
B. Test Suite
C. Test Cycle
D. Test Driver

Explicación

Pregunta 143 de 200

1

Q. 143: Configuration and compatibility testing are typically good choices for
outsourcing

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 144 de 200

1

Q. 144: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Performance
B. Record/Playback
C. A. & B.
D. None

Explicación

Pregunta 145 de 200

1

Q. 145: System Integration testing should be done after

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Integration testing
B. System testing
C. Unit testing
D. Component integration testing

Explicación

Pregunta 146 de 200

1

Q. 146: During this event the entire system is tested to verify that all functional
information structural and quality requirements have been met. A predetermined
combination of tests is designed that when executed successfully satisfy management
that the system meets specifications

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Validation Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. User Acceptance Testing
D. System Testing

Explicación

Pregunta 147 de 200

1

Q. 147: What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Unit, integration, system, validation
B. System, integration, unit, validation
C. Unit, integration, validation, system
D. None of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 148 de 200

1

Q. 148: The goal of a software tester is to find bugs, find them as early as possible and
make sure they get fixed.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 149 de 200

1

Q. 149: Beta testing is performed at developing organization's site where as Alpha
testing is performed by people at their own locations.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 150 de 200

1

Q. 150: The principal attributes of tools and automation are

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Speed & efficiency
B. Accuracy & precision
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 151 de 200

1

Q. 151: In ______ testing doesn't know anything about the sofware being tested; it just
clicks or types randomly.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Random testing
B. Gorilla testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. Dumb monkey testing

Explicación

Pregunta 152 de 200

1

Q. 152: A series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes of an
application system is called

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Checklist
B. Checkpoint review
C. Decision table
D. Decision tree

Explicación

Pregunta 153 de 200

1

Q. 153: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that
each program function is operational is called

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Black-box testing
B. Glass-box testing
C. Grey-box testing
D. White-box testing

Explicación

Pregunta 154 de 200

1

Q. 154: A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of
decision directions executed by the test case designed is called

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Condition coverage
B. Decision/Condition coverage
C. Decision Coverage
D. Branch coverage

Explicación

Pregunta 155 de 200

1

Q. 155: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or more test design
specifications.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Test Summary report
B. Test Log
C. Test Incident Report
D. Test Script

Explicación

Pregunta 156 de 200

1

Q. 156: Testing with out a real plan and test cases is called ---

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Gorilla testing
B. Monkey testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. All of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 157 de 200

1

Q. 157: Which rule should not be followed for reviews

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Defects and issues are identified and corrected
B. The product is reviewed not the producer
C. All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the result of the review
D. Each review has a clear predefined objective

Explicación

Pregunta 158 de 200

1

Q. 158: Verification can be termed as 'Are we building the product right?"

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 159 de 200

1

Q. 159: Which testing is used to verify that the system can perform properly when
internal program or system limitations have been exceeded

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Stress Testing
B. Load Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Volume testing

Explicación

Pregunta 160 de 200

1

Q. 160: Defects are recorded into three major purposes. They are:

1.To correct the defect
2.To report status of the application
3.To improve the software development process

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 161 de 200

1

Q. 161: Drivers are tools used to control and operate tge software being testeD.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 162 de 200

1

Q. 162: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Programming standard violations
B. Referring a variable with an undefined value
C. Security vulnerabilities
D. All Above

Explicación

Pregunta 163 de 200

1

Q. 163: EULA stands for

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. End Usability License Agreement
B. End User License Agreement
C. End User License Arrangement
D. End User License Attachment

Explicación

Pregunta 164 de 200

1

Q. 164: ________is a very early build intended for limited distribution to a few key
customers and to marketing for demonstration purposes.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Alpha release
B. Beta release
C. Test release document
D. Build

Explicación

Pregunta 165 de 200

1

Q. 165: CAST stands for

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Computer Aided Software Testing
B. Computer Aided Software Tools
C. Computer Analysis Software Techniques
D. None

Explicación

Pregunta 166 de 200

1

Q. 166: The tool modifies the program code or manipulates tge operating environment
in any way is considered non-invasive

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 167 de 200

1

Q. 167: Which test may not mimic real world situations

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Functional testing
B. Structural Testing
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 168 de 200

1

Q. 168: _______ includes both Black box and White Box Testing features

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Gray Box Testing
B. Hybrid Testing
C. A. & B.
D. None

Explicación

Pregunta 169 de 200

1

Q. 169: Exhaustive testing is possible

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 170 de 200

1

Q. 170: Tool which stores requirement statements, check for consistency and allow
requirements to be prioritized and enable individual tests to be traceable to
requirements, functions and features.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Incident management tools
B. Requirements management tools
C. Configuration management tools
D. None

Explicación

Pregunta 171 de 200

1

Q. 171: The number of tests to test all control statements equals the cyclomatic
complexity

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 172 de 200

1

Q. 172: Boundary value analysis can only be used during white-box testing.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. True
B. False

Explicación

Pregunta 173 de 200

1

Q. 173: Which of these are objectives for software testing?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Determine the productivity of programmers
B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
C. Eliminate every error prior to release
D. Uncover software errors

Explicación

Pregunta 174 de 200

1

Q. 174: Failure is _________

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program
B. Bug found before product Release
C. Bug found after product Release
D. Bug found during Design phase

Explicación

Pregunta 175 de 200

1

Q. 175: During the software development process, at what point can the test process
start?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. When the code is complete.
B. When the design is complete.
C. When the software requirements have been approved.
D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing

Explicación

Pregunta 176 de 200

1

Q. 176: "How much testing is enough?"

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. This question is impossible to answer
B. This question is easy to answer
C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

Explicación

Pregunta 177 de 200

1

Q. 177: Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression
test?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Data tester
B. Boundary tester
C. Capture/Playback
D. Output comparator.

Explicación

Pregunta 178 de 200

1

Q. 178: Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Statement Coverage
B. Pole Coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Path Coverage

Explicación

Pregunta 179 de 200

1

Q. 179: Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Defects
B. Trends analysis
C. Test Effectiveness
D. Time Spent Testing

Explicación

Pregunta 180 de 200

1

Q. 180: Fault Masking is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Error condition hiding another error condition
B. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
C. Masking a fault by developer
D. Masking a fault by a tester

Explicación

Pregunta 181 de 200

1

Q. 181: Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126
Standard?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Functionality
B. Usability
C. Supportability
D. Maintainability

Explicación

Pregunta 182 de 200

1

Q. 182: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Lack of technical documentation
B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
C. Lack of training
D. Lack of Objectivity

Explicación

Pregunta 183 de 200

1

Q. 183: Statement Coverage will not check for the following.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Missing Statements
B. Unused Branches
C. Dead Code
D. Unused Statement

Explicación

Pregunta 184 de 200

1

Q. 184: Given the Following program

IF X <>= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END

McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Explicación

Pregunta 185 de 200

1

Q. 185: To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the
function to be tested and passes it test data.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Stub
B. Driver
C. Proxy
D. None of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 186 de 200

1

Q. 186: Pick the best definition of quality

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Quality is job one
B. Zero defects
C. Conformance to requirements
D. Work as designed

Explicación

Pregunta 187 de 200

1

Q. 187: Boundary value testing

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
B. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence
classes
C. Tests combinations of input circumstances
D. Is used in white box testing strategy

Explicación

Pregunta 188 de 200

1

Q. 188: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004

The boundary values for testing this field are

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 0,1900,2004,2005
B. 1900, 2004
C. 1899,1900,2004,2005
D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

Explicación

Pregunta 189 de 200

1

Q. 189: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of
statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions
are independent of each other:

if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 2 Test Cases
B. 3 Test Cases
C. 4 Test Cases
D. Not achievable

Explicación

Pregunta 190 de 200

1

Q. 190: A common test technique during component test is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Statement and branch testing
B. Usability testing
C. Security testing
D. Performance testing

Explicación

Pregunta 191 de 200

1

Q. 191: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Takes minutes of the meeting
B. Mediates between people
C. Takes telephone calls
D. Writes the documents to be reviewed

Explicación

Pregunta 192 de 200

1

Q. 192: Acceptance test cases are based on what?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Code
D. Decision table

Explicación

Pregunta 193 de 200

1

Q. 193: Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. System testing
B. Usability testing
C. Performance testing
D. Both B & C

Explicación

Pregunta 194 de 200

1

Q. 194: Independent Verification & Validation is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Done by the Developer
B. Done by the Test Engineers
C. Done By Management
D. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence

Explicación

Pregunta 195 de 200

1

Q. 195: Defect Management process does not include

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Defect prevention
B. Deliverable base-lining
C. Management reporting
D. None of the above

Explicación

Pregunta 196 de 200

1

Q. 196: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure

1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
B. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
C. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
D. All of them are valid reasons for failure

Explicación

Pregunta 197 de 200

1

Q. 197: Test are prioritized so that:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. You shorten the time required for testing
B. You do the best testing in the time available
C. You do more effective testing
D. You find more faults

Explicación

Pregunta 198 de 200

1

Q. 198: When a new testing tool purchased, it should be used first by:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

Explicación

Pregunta 199 de 200

1

Q. 199: During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Execution
B. Design
C. Planning
D. Check Exit criteria completion

Explicación

Pregunta 200 de 200

1

Q. 200: What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor
outside your country, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your
country?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A. Does not meet people needs
B. Cultural difference
C. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
D. Relinquishments of control

	Creado por milopz hace alrededor de 11 años

500 Questions, simulation exam

ISTQB Foundation Level - 500 questions

Pregunta 1 de 200

Q. 1: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 200

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 200

Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 200

Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a walkthrough?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 200

Q. 5: Where may functional testing be performed?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 200

Q. 6: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 200

Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 200

Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 200

Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 200

Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which statement BEST details those for developers i) Performance testing tools. ii) Coverage measurement tools. iii) Test comparators. iv) Dynamic analysis tools. v) Incident management tools.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 200

Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 200

Q. 12: As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 200

Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system design?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 200

Q. 14: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 200

Q. 15: What is beta testing?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 200

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 200

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 200

Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all equivalence partitions?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 200

Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 200

Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 200

Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a
walkthrough?

Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which
statement BEST details those for developers

i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.

Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of
state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system
design?

Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature
falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the
temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all
equivalence partitions?

Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient
test execution?

Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and
expected results is VALID?

Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?

i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained

Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test
tools?

i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.

Q. 28: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to
testing?

Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY
associated?

Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.

Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe
a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component?