P1-12

Question 1 of 138

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Which drug is taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion?

Select one of the following:

  • acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)

  • streptokinase

  • acetaminophen

  • heparin

Question 2 of 138

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What will a partial obstruction in a coronary artery likely cause?

Select one of the following:

  • pulmonary embolus

  • hypertension

  • angina attacks

  • myocardial infarction

Question 3 of 138

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Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking:

Select one of the following:

  • reduces vasoconstriction and peripheral resistance

  • decreases serum lipid levels

  • promotes platelet adhesion

  • increases serum HDL levels

Question 4 of 138

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What does the term arteriosclerosis specifically refer to?

Select one of the following:

  • development of atheromas in large arteries

  • intermittent vasospasm in coronary arteries

  • degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries

  • ischemia and necrosis in the brain, kidneys, and heart

Question 5 of 138

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Which of the following actions causes the atrioventricular valves to close?

Select one of the following:

  • increased intraventricular pressure

  • depolarization at the AV node

  • ventricular relaxation and backflow of blood

  • contraction of the atria

Question 6 of 138

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When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?

Select one of the following:

  • decreased peripheral resistance

  • increased heart rate

  • decreased venous return

  • general vasodilation

Question 7 of 138

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Each of the following compares the output of blood from the left and right ventricles with each contraction of a normal heart. Which is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Left ventricular output is slightly greater than the right ventricular output.

  • Left ventricular output is approximately double that of right ventricular output.

  • Left ventricular output equals the right ventricular output.

  • Left ventricular output is less than right ventricular output.

Question 8 of 138

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Which of the following describes the pericardial cavity correctly?

Select one of the following:

  • It contains sufficient fluid to provide a protective cushion for the heart.

  • It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid.

  • It is lined by the endocardium.

  • It is located between the double-walled pericardium and the epicardium.

Question 9 of 138

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Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?

Select one of the following:

  • rapid emptying of the right side of the heart

  • forceful action of the valves in the veins

  • contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle

  • peristalsis in the large veins

Question 10 of 138

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What is the function of the baroreceptors? To:

Select one of the following:

  • stimulate the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems at the SA node as needed

  • adjust blood pressure by changing peripheral resistance

  • sense a change in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels

  • signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure

Question 11 of 138

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The normal delay in conduction through the atrioventricular node is essential for:

Select one of the following:

  • preventing an excessively rapid heart rate

  • limiting the time for a myocardial contraction

  • allowing the ventricles to contract before the atria

  • completing ventricular filling

Question 12 of 138

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Which of the following results from increased secretion of epinephrine?

Select one of the following:

  • increased heart rate and force of contraction

  • decreased stimulation of the SA node and ventricles

  • vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles and kidneys

  • vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels

Question 13 of 138

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Which of the following causes increased heart rate?

Select one of the following:

  • stimulation of the vagus nerve

  • increased renin secretion

  • administration of beta-blocking drugs

  • Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

Question 14 of 138

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Which event causes the QRS wave on an ECG tracing?

Select one of the following:

  • atrial depolarization

  • atrial repolarization

  • ventricular depolarization

  • ventricular repolarization

Question 15 of 138

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What is the cardiac reserve?

Select one of the following:

  • afterload

  • the difference between the apical and radial pulses

  • the ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed

  • the extra blood remaining in the heart after it contracts

Question 16 of 138

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What does the term preload refer to?

Select one of the following:

  • volume of venous return

  • peripheral resistance

  • stroke volume

  • cardiac output

Question 17 of 138

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Which are the first arteries to branch off the aorta?

Select one of the following:

  • common carotid arteries

  • pulmonary arteries

  • coronary arteries

  • subclavian arteries

Question 18 of 138

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Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from:

Select one of the following:

  • decreased blood pressure

  • increased parasympathetic stimulation

  • relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles

  • increased stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors

Question 19 of 138

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Which of the following drugs decrease sodium and fluid retention in the body?

Select one of the following:

  • warfarin (Coumadin)

  • digoxin (Lanoxin)

  • nitroglycerin (Isordil)

  • hydrochlorothiazide (Hydro DIURIL)

Question 20 of 138

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Which of the following are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulation?
1. decreased viscosity of the blood
2. damaged blood vessel walls
3. immobility
4. prosthetic valves

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 3

  • 2, 4

  • 1, 3, 4

  • 2, 3, 4

Question 21 of 138

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Modifiable factor that increase the risk for atherosclerosis include:

Select one of the following:

  • sedentary life style

  • female more than 40 years of age

  • exclusion of saturated fats from the diet

  • familial hypercholesterolemia

Question 22 of 138

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An atheroma develops from:

Select one of the following:

  • a torn arterial wall and blood clots

  • accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred

  • thrombus forming on damaged walls of veins

  • repeated vasospasms

Question 23 of 138

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Low-density lipoproteins (LDL):

Select one of the following:

  • promote atheroma development

  • contain only small amounts of cholesterol

  • transport cholesterol from cells to the liver for excretion

  • are associated with low intake of saturated fats

Question 24 of 138

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Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • eating a large meal

  • an angry argument

  • walking down stairs

  • shovelling snow on a cold, windy day

Question 25 of 138

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When comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI), which statement is true?

Select one of the following:

  • Both angina and MI cause tissue necrosis.

  • Angina often occurs at rest; MI occurs during a stressful time.

  • Pain is more severe and lasts longer with angina than with MI.

  • Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; the pain of MI is not.

Question 26 of 138

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Which of the following best describes the basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction?

Select one of the following:

  • Cardiac output is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body.

  • Temporary vasospasm occurs in a coronary artery.

  • Total obstruction of a coronary artery causes myocardial necrosis.

  • Heart rate and force is irregular, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries.

Question 27 of 138

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Which of the following are typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction?

Select one of the following:

  • brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, with labored breathing

  • persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse

  • bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and severe dyspnea

  • flushed face, rapid respirations, left-side weakness, and numbness

Question 28 of 138

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Which statement describes a coronary artery bypass procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • removing the section of an artery containing plaque and thrombus

  • compressing the thrombus with an inflated balloon to provide a larger lumen

  • attaching a section of vein to the coronary artery proximal and distal to the obstruction

  • adding a piece of vein to the end of each coronary artery

Question 29 of 138

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Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in:

Select one of the following:

  • reducing the risk of blood clotting

  • decreasing the attraction of cholesterol into lipid plaques

  • reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions

  • decreasing all types of cardiac arrhythmias

Question 30 of 138

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Which of the following confirms the presence of a myocardial infarction?

Select one of the following:

  • a full description of the pain

  • the presence of elevated serum cholesterol and triglycerides

  • characteristic patterns for serum isoenzymes and the ECG

  • leukocytosis and elevated C-reactive protein

Question 31 of 138

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The size of the necrotic area resulting from myocardial infarction may be minimized by all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • previously established collateral circulation

  • immediate administration of thrombolytic drugs

  • maintaining maximum oxygen supply to the myocardium

  • removing the predisposing factors to atheroma development

Question 32 of 138

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What is the most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction?

Select one of the following:

  • cardiac arrhythmias

  • ruptured ventricle

  • congestive heart failure

  • cerebrovascular accident

Question 33 of 138

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Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?

Select one of the following:

  • Delayed conduction through the AV node blocks ventricular stimulation.

  • Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium.

  • The ventricles contract before the atria.

  • Parasympathetic stimulation depresses the SA node.

Question 34 of 138

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What does the term cardiac arrest mean?

Select one of the following:

  • cardiac output is less than the demand

  • decreased circulating blood volume

  • missing a ventricular contraction

  • cessation of all cardiac function

Question 35 of 138

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Which change results from total heart block?

Select one of the following:

  • a prolonged PR interval

  • periodic omission of a ventricular contraction

  • a wide QRS wave

  • spontaneous slow ventricular contractions, not coordinated with atrial contraction

Question 36 of 138

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What does the term PVC mean?

Select one of the following:

  • Atrial muscle cells are stimulating additional cardiac contractions.

  • The ventricles contract spontaneously following a period without a stimulus.

  • Additional contractions arise from ectopic foci in the ventricular muscle.

  • Increased heart rate causes palpitations.

Question 37 of 138

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Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?

Select one of the following:

  • incompetent tricuspid heart valve

  • chronic pulmonary disease

  • infarction in the right atrium

  • uncontrolled essential hypertension

Question 38 of 138

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Which is the best definition of congestive heart failure?

Select one of the following:

  • cessation of all cardiac activity

  • inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body

  • insufficient circulating blood in the body

  • the demand for oxygen by the heart is greater than the supply

Question 39 of 138

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Which of the following are significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure?

Select one of the following:

  • severe chest pain and tachycardia

  • edematous feet and legs with hepatomegaly

  • frequent cough with blood-streaked frothy sputum

  • orthopnea, fatigue, increased blood pressure

Question 40 of 138

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Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is marked by:

Select one of the following:

  • hemoptysis and rales

  • distended neck veins and flushed face

  • bradycardia and weak pulse

  • cardiomegaly

Question 41 of 138

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Which of the following occur as compensation mechanisms for decreased cardiac output in cases of congestive heart failure?

Select one of the following:

  • slow cardiac contractions

  • increased renin and aldosterone secretions

  • decreased erythropoietin secretion

  • fatigue and cold intolerance

Question 42 of 138

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In which blood vessels will failure of the left ventricle cause increased hydrostatic pressure?

Select one of the following:

  • veins of the legs and feet

  • jugular veins

  • pulmonary capillaries

  • blood vessels of the liver and spleen

Question 43 of 138

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Which of the following drugs improves cardiac efficiency by slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of cardiac contractions?

Select one of the following:

  • Furosemide

  • Digoxin

  • Epinephrine

  • Nifedipine

Question 44 of 138

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In an infant, which of the following is frequently the initial indication of congestive heart failure?

Select one of the following:

  • distended neck veins

  • feeding problems

  • low-grade fever and lethargy

  • frequent vomiting

Question 45 of 138

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Which of the following effects may be expected from a beta-adrenergic blocking drug?

Select one of the following:

  • increasing systemic vasoconstriction

  • decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart

  • blockage of an angiotensin receptor site

  • increased release of renin

Question 46 of 138

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Which of the following is a sign of aortic stenosis?

Select one of the following:

  • increased cardiac output

  • congestion in the liver, spleen, and legs

  • flushed face and headache

  • a heart murmur

Question 47 of 138

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What would an incompetent mitral valve cause?

Select one of the following:

  • increased blood to remain in the right atrium

  • hypertrophy of the right ventricle

  • decreased output from the left ventricle

  • decreased pressure in the left atrium

Question 48 of 138

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Which of the following describes the blood flow occurring with a ventricular septal defect?

Select one of the following:

  • from the left ventricle to the right ventricle

  • from the right ventricle to the left ventricle

  • increased cardiac output from the left ventricle

  • mixed oxygenated and unoxygenated blood in the systemic circulation

Question 49 of 138

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In children with tetralogy of Fallot, why does unoxygenated blood enter the systemic circulation?

Select one of the following:

  • The aorta and pulmonary artery have exchanged positions.

  • Pulmonary stenosis changes the ventricular pressures.

  • The left ventricular wall has hypertrophied.

  • The septal defect allows exchange of blood between the atria.

Question 50 of 138

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Why does cyanosis occur in children with tetralogy of Fallot?

Select one of the following:

  • More carbon dioxide is present in the circulating blood.

  • A large amount of hemoglobin in the general circulation is unoxygenated.

  • The pulmonary circulation is overloaded and congested.

  • The circulation is sluggish (slow) throughout the system.

Question 51 of 138

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Which of the following represent(s) the pathophysiologic changes in the heart in cases of rheumatic fever?

Select one of the following:

  • infection in the heart by hemolytic streptococci

  • highly virulent microbes causing vegetations on the heart valves

  • septic emboli obstructing coronary arteries

  • an abnormal immune response, causing acute inflammation in all layers of the heart

Question 52 of 138

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Common signs of rheumatic fever include all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • arthritis causing deformity of the small joints in the hands and feet

  • erythematous skin rash and subcutaneous nodules

  • epistaxis, tachycardia, and fever

  • elevated ASO titer and leukocytosis

Question 53 of 138

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How does rheumatic heart disease usually manifest in later years?

Select one of the following:

  • swollen heart valves and fever

  • cardiac arrhythmias and heart murmurs

  • thrombus formation and septic emboli

  • petechial hemorrhages of the skin and mucosa

Question 54 of 138

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Why are septic emboli a common complication of infective endocarditis?

Select one of the following:

  • Vegetations are loosely attached and fragile.

  • The valves are no longer competent.

  • Cardiac output is reduced.

  • Heart contractions are irregular.

Question 55 of 138

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Which of the following apply to subacute infective endocarditis?

Select one of the following:

  • A microbe of low virulence attacks abnormal or damaged heart valves.

  • Virulent microbes invade normal heart valves.

  • No permanent damage occurs to the valves.

  • Prophylactic medication does not prevent infection.

Question 56 of 138

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Why does pericarditis cause a reduction in cardiac output?

Select one of the following:

  • Delays in the conduction system interfere with cardiac rhythm.

  • Due to friction rub, the myocardial contractions are weak.

  • Excess fluid in the pericardial cavity decreases ventricular filling.

  • Incompetent valves allow regurgitation of blood.

Question 57 of 138

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Which of the following may cause pericarditis?
1. infection
2. abnormal immune responses
3. injury
4. malignant neoplasm

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 2

  • 3, 4

  • 1, 3, 4

  • 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 58 of 138

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Which of the following could be the source of an embolus causing an obstruction in the brain?

Select one of the following:

  • femoral vein

  • pulmonary vein

  • carotid artery

  • coronary artery

Question 59 of 138

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What is considered to be the basic pathophysiologic change in essential hypertension?

Select one of the following:

  • development of lipid plaques in large arteries

  • recurrent inflammation and fibrosis in peripheral arteries

  • degeneration and loss of elasticity in arteries

  • increased systemic vasoconstriction

Question 60 of 138

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Where is uncontrolled hypertension most likely to cause ischemia and loss of function?

Select one of the following:

  • kidneys, brain, and retinas of the eye

  • peripheral arteries in the legs

  • aorta and coronary arteries

  • liver, spleen, and stomach

Question 61 of 138

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When is a diagnosis of essential hypertension likely to be considered in young or middle-aged individuals?

Select one of the following:

  • blood pressure remains consistently above 140/90

  • blood pressure fluctuates between 130/ 85 and 180/105

  • blood pressure increases rapidly and is unresponsive to medication

  • chronic kidney disease leads to consistently elevated blood pressure

Question 62 of 138

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What is atherosclerosis in the iliac or femoral arteries likely to cause?
1. gangrenous ulcers in the legs
2. strong rapid pulses in the legs
3. intermittent claudication
4. red, swollen legs

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 2

  • 1, 3

  • 2, 3

  • 2, 4

Question 63 of 138

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What does the term intermittent claudication refer to?

Select one of the following:

  • sensory deficit in the legs due to damage to nerves

  • chest pain related to ischemia

  • ischemic muscle pain in the legs, particularly with exercise

  • dry, cyanotic skin with superficial ulcers

Question 64 of 138

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What is the primary reason for amputation of gangrenous toes or feet in patients with peripheral vascular disease?

Select one of the following:

  • promotes more rapid healing of ulcerated areas

  • improves circulation to other areas

  • prevents spread of infection and reduces pain

  • reduces swelling in the peripheral areas

Question 65 of 138

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An echocardiogram is used to demonstrate any abnormal:

Select one of the following:

  • activity in the conduction system

  • movement of the heart valves

  • change in central venous pressure

  • blood flow in coronary arteries

Question 66 of 138

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A friction rub is associated with:

Select one of the following:

  • infectious endocarditis

  • arrhythmias

  • pericarditis

  • an incompetent aortic valve

Question 67 of 138

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How does a dissecting aortic aneurysm develop?

Select one of the following:

  • A dilation or bulge develops at one point on the aortic wall.

  • Thrombus accumulates at a point in the aortic wall.

  • A section of the aorta weakens and dilates in all directions.

  • A tear in the intimal lining allows blood flow between layers of the aortic wall.

Question 68 of 138

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What is the outcome for many aortic aneurysms?

Select one of the following:

  • early diagnosis and repair

  • thrombus formation and pulmonary embolus

  • rupture and hemorrhage

  • pressure on adjacent organs or structures

Question 69 of 138

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Which factor predisposes to varicose veins during pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

  • compressed pelvic veins

  • stenotic valves in leg veins

  • thrombus formation

  • insufficient muscle support for veins

Question 70 of 138

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Phlebothrombosis is more likely to cause pulmonary emboli than is thrombophlebitis because:

Select one of the following:

  • platelets attach to the inflamed wall

  • thrombus forms in a vein and is asymptomatic

  • leg cramps require massage

  • systemic signs of inflammation require treatment

Question 71 of 138

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How is shock defined?

Select one of the following:

  • failure of the heart to supply sufficient blood to body cells

  • general hypoxia causing damage to various organs

  • decreased circulating blood and tissue perfusion

  • loss of blood causing severe hypoxia

Question 72 of 138

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When does shock follow myocardial infarction?

Select one of the following:

  • The stress response causes general vasodilation.

  • Fluid is lost into ischemic tissues.

  • Heart valves are damaged.

  • A large portion of the myocardium is damaged.

Question 73 of 138

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What are the early signs of circulatory shock?
1. pale moist skin
2. loss of consciousness
3. anxiety and restlessness
4. rapid strong pulse

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 2

  • 1, 3

  • 1, 4

  • 3, 4

Question 74 of 138

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What indicates compensation for shock?

Select one of the following:

  • increased heart rate and oliguria

  • lethargy and decreased responsiveness

  • warm, dry, flushed skin

  • weak, thready pulse

Question 75 of 138

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Why does anaphylactic shock cause severe hypoxia very quickly?

Select one of the following:

  • Generalized vasoconstriction reduces venous return.

  • Bronchoconstriction and bronchial edema reduce airflow.

  • Heart rate and contractility are reduced.

  • Metabolic rate is greatly increased.

Question 76 of 138

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Why does neurogenic (vasogenic) shock result from systemic vasodilation?

Select one of the following:

  • increased peripheral resistance and less blood in the microcirculation

  • increased permeability of all the blood vessels leading to hypovolemia

  • slower, less forceful cardiac contractions

  • increased capacity of the vascular system and reduced venous return

Question 77 of 138

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What is a prolonged period of shock likely to cause?

Select one of the following:

  • damage and increased permeability of pulmonary capillaries

  • increased permeability of the glomerular capillaries of the kidneys

  • increased pH of blood and body fluids

  • Increased systemic vasoconstriction

Question 78 of 138

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What would indicate decompensated acidosis related to shock?

Select one of the following:

  • serum bicarbonate level below normal

  • PCO2 above normal

  • serum pH below normal range

  • urine pH of 4.5

Question 79 of 138

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With shock, anaerobic cell metabolism and decreased renal blood flow cause:

Select one of the following:

  • metabolic alkalosis

  • metabolic acidosis

  • decreased serum potassium

  • increased serum bicarbonate

Question 80 of 138

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Why does shock develop in patients with severe burns?

Select one of the following:

  • extensive hemorrhage

  • pain and loss of plasma

  • direct damage to the heart

  • extensive hemolysis of erythrocytes

Question 81 of 138

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The classic early manifestation(s) of left-sided congestive heart failure are ____, whereas the early indicator(s) of right-sided failure are _______.

Select one of the following:

  • palpitations and periodic chest pain; shortness of breath on exertion

  • swelling of the ankles and abdomen; chest pain

  • shortness of breath on exertion or lying down; swelling of the ankles

  • coughing up frothy sputum; hepatomegaly and splenomegaly

Question 82 of 138

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Which is a common adverse effect of many antihypertensive medications?

Select one of the following:

  • orthostatic hypotension

  • bradycardia

  • altered blood coagulation

  • peripheral edema

Question 83 of 138

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The cause of essential hypertension is considered to be:

Select one of the following:

  • chronic renal disease

  • excessive intake of saturated fats and salt

  • sedentary lifestyle

  • idiopathic

Question 84 of 138

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For which of the following would a cardiac pacemaker likely be inserted?

Select one of the following:

  • angina pectoris

  • heart block

  • congestive heart failure

  • ventricular fibrillation

Question 85 of 138

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Which of the following is considered to be the most dangerous arrhythmia?

Select one of the following:

  • tachycardia

  • bradycardia

  • ventricular fibrillation

  • second-degree heart block

Question 86 of 138

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Which of the following is NOT true of the drug nitroglycerin?

Select one of the following:

  • It decreases myocardial workload by causing systemic vasodilation.

  • It may be administered sublingually, transdermally, or by oral spray.

  • Dizziness or syncope may follow a sublingual dose.

  • It strengthens the myocardial contraction.

Question 87 of 138

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Which of the following would confirm the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction?
1. specific changes in the ECG
2. marked leukocytosis and increased ESR
3. elevation of cardiac isoenzymes in serum
4. pattern of pain

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 2

  • 1, 3

  • 2, 4

  • 3, 4

Question 88 of 138

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Which of the following statements regarding aneurysms is true?

Select one of the following:

  • Aneurysms are always caused by congenital malformations.

  • The greatest danger with aneurysms is thrombus formation.

  • Manifestations of aneurysms result from compression of adjacent structures.

  • Aneurysms involve a defect in the tunica media of veins.

Question 89 of 138

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What is the most common factor predisposing to the development of varicose veins?

Select one of the following:

  • trauma

  • congenital valve defect in the abdominal veins

  • infection

  • increased venous pressure

Question 90 of 138

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In the period immediately following a myocardial infarction, the manifestations of pallor and diaphoresis, rapid pulse, and anxiety result from:

Select one of the following:

  • onset of circulatory shock

  • the inflammatory response

  • release of enzymes from necrotic tissue

  • heart failure

Question 91 of 138

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Septic shock differs from hypovolemic shock in that it is frequently manifested by:

Select one of the following:

  • fever and flushed face

  • elevated blood pressure

  • increased urinary output

  • slow bounding pulse

Question 92 of 138

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Heart block, in which a conduction delay at the AV node results in intermittent missed ventricular contractions, is called:

Select one of the following:

  • first-degree block

  • second-degree block

  • bundle-branch block

  • total heart block

Question 93 of 138

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More extensive permanent damage is likely when a myocardial infarction is caused by:

Select one of the following:

  • a hemorrhage

  • an embolus

  • a thrombus

  • an arrhythmia

Question 94 of 138

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A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because:

Select one of the following:

  • venous return is increased.

  • ventricular fibrillation develops immediately.

  • conduction through the AV node is impaired.

  • ventricular filling is reduced.

Question 95 of 138

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The right side of the heart would fail first in the case of:
1. severe mitral valve stenosis
2. uncontrolled essential hypertension
3. large infarction in the right ventricle
4. advanced COPD

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 2

  • 2, 3

  • 1, 4

  • 3, 4

Question 96 of 138

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Which of the following compensations that develop in patients with congestive heart failure eventually increase the workload of the heart?

Select one of the following:

  • faster heart rate and cardiomegaly

  • peripheral vasoconstriction

  • increased secretion of renin

  • a and c

  • a, b, and c

Question 97 of 138

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Which statement applies to paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

Select one of the following:

  • It indicates decreased CO2 diffusion in the lungs.

  • It indicates swelling in the bronchioles and bronchi.

  • It is caused by increased blood in the lungs when lying in a supine position.

  • It results from pleural effusion.

Question 98 of 138

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In patients with congestive heart failure, ACE inhibitor drugs are useful because they:

Select one of the following:

  • reduce renin and aldosterone secretion

  • slow the heart rate

  • strengthen myocardial contraction

  • block arrhythmias

Question 99 of 138

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In a child with ventricular septal defect, altered blood flow:

Select one of the following:

  • leads to increased stroke volume from the left ventricle

  • results in unoxygenated blood in the systemic circulation

  • is called a right-to-left shunt

  • is called a left-to-right shunt

Question 100 of 138

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In a child with acute rheumatic fever, arrhythmias may develop due to the presence of:

Select one of the following:

  • endocarditis

  • myocarditis

  • pericarditis

  • congestive heart failure

Question 101 of 138

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Prophylactic antibacterial drugs such as amoxicillin are given to those with certain congenital heart defects or damaged heart valves immediately before invasive procedures to prevent:

Select one of the following:

  • formation of septic thrombi

  • infectious endocarditis

  • abscess formation

  • myocarditis

Question 102 of 138

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Varicose ulcers may develop and be slow to heal because:

Select one of the following:

  • leg muscles are painful, restricting movement

  • edema reduces arterial blood supply to the area

  • emboli form in damaged veins leading to local ischemia

  • valves in veins restrict blood flow

Question 103 of 138

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Excessive fluid in the pericardial space causes:

Select one of the following:

  • increased cardiac output

  • myocardial infarction

  • reduced venous return

  • friction rub

Question 104 of 138

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Aortic stenosis means the aortic valve:

Select one of the following:

  • allows blood to leak back into the left ventricle during diastole

  • cannot fully open during systole

  • functions to increase stroke volume

  • does not respond to the cardiac cycle

Question 105 of 138

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Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?

Select one of the following:

  • an inherited disorder

  • a combination of specific etiologic factors

  • an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug

  • prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment

Question 106 of 138

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The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:

Select one of the following:

  • subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness

  • signs and symptoms of a disease

  • factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness

  • early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection

Question 107 of 138

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The best definition of the term prognosis is the:

Select one of the following:

  • precipitating factors causing an acute episode

  • number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness

  • predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease

  • exacerbations occurring during chronic illness

Question 108 of 138

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Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?

Select one of the following:

  • swelling of the knee

  • fever

  • pain in the neck

  • red rash on the face

Question 109 of 138

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Etiology is defined as the study of the:

Select one of the following:

  • causes of a disease

  • course of a disease

  • expected complications of a disease

  • manifestations of a disease

Question 110 of 138

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Hypertrophy of the heart would be related to:

Select one of the following:

  • an increase in the size of the individual cells

  • an increase in the number of cells in an area

  • replacement of normal cells by a different type of cell

  • a decrease in the size of the individual cells

Question 111 of 138

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A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called:

Select one of the following:

  • metaplasia

  • atrophy

  • dysplasia

  • hypertrophy

Question 112 of 138

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When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called:

Select one of the following:

  • ischemia

  • gangrene

  • hypoxia

  • necrosis

Question 113 of 138

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Lack of exercise during an illness may cause skeletal muscle to undergo:

Select one of the following:

  • hypertrophy

  • dysplasia

  • atrophy

  • regeneration

Question 114 of 138

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The term cancer refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • dysplasia

  • hyperplasia

  • metaplasia

  • malignant neoplasm

Question 115 of 138

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To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?

Select one of the following:

  • an increased rate of mitosis by certain cells

  • ischemic damage to cells

  • liquefaction of neurotic tissue

  • preprogrammed cell self-destruction

Question 116 of 138

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Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

  • Alteration of DNA does not change cell function.

  • Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves.

  • All types of cells die at the same rate.

  • Mild ischemia causes immediate cell death.

Question 117 of 138

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Caseation necrosis refers to an area where:

Select one of the following:

  • cell proteins have been denatured

  • cell are liquefied by enzymes

  • dead cells form a thick cheesy substance

  • bacterial invasion has occurred

Question 118 of 138

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Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:

Select one of the following:

  • an iatrogenic cause of cancer

  • a preventative measure

  • a precipitating factor

  • a predisposing condition

Question 119 of 138

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A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed:

Select one of the following:

  • latent stage

  • predisposing factor

  • incidence

  • precipitating factor

Question 120 of 138

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What is an acute episode of a chronic disease called?

Select one of the following:

  • an exacerbation

  • a prodromal period

  • a complication

  • a sequel

Question 121 of 138

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The term homeostasis refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • the causative factors in a particular disease

  • maintenance of a stable internal environment

  • a condition that triggers an acute episode

  • a collection of signs and symptoms

Question 122 of 138

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Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease is established?

Select one of the following:

  • symptoms

  • occurrence

  • manifestations

  • complication

Question 123 of 138

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Pathophysiology involves the study of:

Select one of the following:

  • the structure of the human body

  • the functions of various organs in the body

  • functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes

  • various cell structures and related functions

Question 124 of 138

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Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology?

Select one of the following:

  • the science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases

  • the relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease

  • identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms

  • the global search for emerging diseases

Question 125 of 138

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Which of the following can cause cell injury or death?
1. hypoxia
2. exposure to excessive cold
3. excessive pressure on a tissue
4. chemical toxins

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 2

  • 2, 4

  • 1, 3, 4

  • 2, 3, 4

  • 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 126 of 138

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All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • follow cancer screening guidelines

  • use sun block agents whenever exposed

  • participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis

  • choose high fiber, lower fat foods

  • avoid second hand smoke at all times

Question 127 of 138

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The term disease refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state

  • the relative number of deaths during an epidemic

  • the treatment measures used to promote recovery

  • a basic collection of signs and symptoms

  • a deviation from the normal state of health and function

Question 128 of 138

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The best definition of ischemia is:

Select one of the following:

  • the mechanical damage due to pressure on tissue

  • any imbalance of fluids or electrolytes in the body

  • a deficit of oxygen supply to the cells, due to circulatory obstruction

  • the effects of infection by microorganisms

Question 129 of 138

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All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • The Initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions.

  • If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly, the cell may be able to recover and return to its normal state.

  • If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time, the damage becomes irreversible and the cell dies.

  • Initially cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function.

Question 130 of 138

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Which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research?

Select one of the following:

  • Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy.

  • Both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy.

  • The research subjects do not know, but the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving placebo or standard therapy.

  • Only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy.

Question 131 of 138

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If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called:

Select one of the following:

  • the placebo effect

  • evidence based research

  • blind research studies

  • approval for immediate distribution

Question 132 of 138

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A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called:

Select one of the following:

  • acute

  • latent

  • chronic

  • manifestation

Question 133 of 138

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The term prognosis refers to the:

Select one of the following:

  • period of recovery and return to a normal state

  • expected outcome of the disease

  • mortality and morbidity rates for a given population

  • typical collection of signs and symptoms

Question 134 of 138

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When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as:

Select one of the following:

  • atrophy

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • apoptosis

  • infarction

Question 135 of 138

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During the evaluation process for a new therapy’s effectiveness and safety, a double blind study may be conducted during:

Select one of the following:

  • the first stage

  • the second stage

  • the third stage

  • any of these stages

Question 136 of 138

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Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?

Select one of the following:

  • to predict the prognosis

  • to determine treatments

  • to develop preventative measures

  • to develop morbidity statistics

Question 137 of 138

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Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as:

Select one of the following:

  • abnormal metabolic processes

  • certain food additives

  • genetic defects

  • localized hypoxia

Question 138 of 138

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Which of the following is usually included in a medical history?
1. past illnesses or surgeries
2. current illnesses, acute and chronic
3. prescribed medication or other treatments
4. nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies
5. current allergies

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 3

  • 2, 5

  • 2, 4, 5

  • 1, 3, 4

  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

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Mina Phlamon
Quiz by , created over 2 years ago

Quiz on P1-12, created by Mina Phlamon on 24/07/2014.

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Mina Phlamon
Created by Mina Phlamon over 2 years ago
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