DEXA | Quiz

Question 1 of 429

1

Calcium is the chief mineral in bone and is stored in:

Select one of the following:

Ligaments and Muscles
Periosteum
Cortical Bone
Trabecular Bone

Explanation

Question 2 of 429

1

Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells and found in the:

Select one of the following:

Ligaments and Muscles
Periosteum
Cortical Bone
Trabecular Bone

Explanation

Question 3 of 429

1

The hormone secreted by the thyroid that decreases the osteoclasts activity and increases the osteoblasts activity is:

Select one of the following:

Calcidiol
Calcitriol
Calcitonin
Osteocalcin

Explanation

Question 4 of 429

1

Age and sex-related bone loss is associated with:

Select one of the following:

Type I primary osteoporosis
Type II primary osteoporosis
Secondary osteoporosis
None of the above

Explanation

Question 5 of 429

1

According to the World Health Organization, a patient with a bone mineral density T-score of less than -2.5 should be reported as having:

Select one of the following:

Osteoarthritis
Osteopetrosis
Osteopenia
Osteoporosis

Explanation

Question 6 of 429

1

The approximate percentage of post-menopausal osteoporotic Caucasian women the United States is____.

Select one of the following:

20
30
40
50

Explanation

Question 7 of 429

1

What was the intended use of the World Health Organization criteria for the diagnosis of osteoporosis based on the measurement of bone density?

Select one of the following:

To create treatment thresholds for individuals patients
To establish diagnostic criteria for individual patients
To produce the same diagnosis at different skeletal sites
To establish the prevalence of osteoporosis in different world populations

Explanation

Question 8 of 429

1

Secondary osteoporosis is defined as:

Select one of the following:

Bone loss caused by estrogen deficiency.
Bone loss caused by aging.
Bone loss caused by factors other than estrogen deficiency and aging.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 9 of 429

1

Endocrine and disease related bone loss is associated with:

Select one of the following:

Type I primary osteoporosis.
Type II primary osteoporosis.
Secondary osteoporosis
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 10 of 429

1

Type I primary osteoporosis is associated with:

Select one of the following:

The use of corticosteroids
Postmenopausal bone loss
Hyperthryoidism
Chronic obstructive lung disease

Explanation

Question 11 of 429

1

According to WHO, a patient with a T-score of -2.5 or less should be classified as:

Select one of the following:

Normal.
Osteopenia.
Osteoporosis.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 12 of 429

1

The WHO Guidelines for BMD classification may currently be applied to:

Select one of the following:

Adult men and women of all races.
Caucasian men and women only.
Men and women of all races and ages.
Men aged 50 years and older and post-menopausal women.

Explanation

Question 13 of 429

1

Which of the following is the best definition of osteoporosis?

Select one of the following:

BMD 1.0 to 2.5 Standard Deviation (SD) below the mean of the age-matched reference population.
BMD 2.5 SD or more below the mean of the young-adult reference population.
BMD 2.5 SD or more below the mean of the age-matched reference population.
BMD 1.0 to 2.5 SD below the mean of the young-adult reference population.

Explanation

Question 14 of 429

1

According to the World Health Organization (WHO) criteria, when making a diagnosis of osteoporosis using T-scores, which of the following requirements must always be met?

Select one of the following:

The patient must have a T-score of equal to or below -2.5 at every anatomical site measured.
The patient must have a T-score of equal to or below -2.5 at the hip, spine or 1/3 radius, regardless of age, race, sex or menopausal status.
The patient must have sustained a fragility fracture, defined as an impact equal to, or less than a fall from standing height and a T-score below -1.0 (osteopenia).
The patient must have a T-score less than or equal to -2.5 at the hip, spine or 1/3 radius by DXA and be a male 50 years or older or a post-menopausal female.

Explanation

Question 15 of 429

1

What does the acronym WHO represent?

Select one of the following:

World Hunger Organization
World Health Organization
World Health Orders
World Health Ordinance

Explanation

Question 16 of 429

1

The American woman has a _____ percent (%) chance of getting osteoporosis.

Select one of the following:

Twenty
Forty
Fifty
Sixty

Explanation

Question 17 of 429

1

Another term for cancellous bone is:

Select one of the following:

Cortical bone.
Compact bone.
Periosteal bone.
Trabecular bone.

Explanation

Question 18 of 429

1

Bone remodeling cells are osteoclasts and osteoblasts. What is the purpose of osteoclasts?

Select one of the following:

Creates new bone.
Removes old bone.
Heals fractures.
Aids in digestion.

Explanation

Question 19 of 429

1

Cortical bone is spongy and porous while trabecular bone is very dense.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 20 of 429

1

Increased amounts of thyroxine accelerate the metabolism causing bone to break down faster than the rebuilding process. This condition is called:

Select one of the following:

Hypertension.
Hypotension.
Hyperthyroidism.
Hypothyroidism.

Explanation

Question 21 of 429

1

Each skeletal site is characterized in four (4) different ways. Which of the following is true concerning the femoral neck?

Select one of the following:

The femoral neck is a non-weight bearing, appendicular, central, and predominately cortical site.
The femoral neck is a non-weight bearing, axial, central, and predominately trabecular site.
The femoral neck is a weight bearing, appendicular, central, and predominately cortical site.
The femoral neck is a weight bearing, axial, central, and predominately trabecular site.

Explanation

Question 22 of 429

1

The lumbar vertebra with the largest transverse process is:

Select one of the following:

L1.
L2.
L3.
L4.

Explanation

Question 23 of 429

1

Ward’s Triangle is an anatomical region located:

Select one of the following:

In the greater trochanter of the femur.
In the lesser trochanter of the femur.
In the head of the femur.
In the neck of the femur.

Explanation

Question 24 of 429

1

What are the four (4) skeletal classifications that apply to the calcaneus?

Select one of the following:

Axial, peripheral, predominantly cortical and non-weight bearing
Appendicular, peripheral, predominantly trabecular and weight bearing
Appendicular, central, predominantly trabecular and weight bearing
Axial, central, predominantly cortical and weight bearing

Explanation

Question 25 of 429

1

What is located between individual vertebrae?

Select one of the following:

Intervertebral body.
Coccyeal foramina.
Spinous process.
Intervertebral disc.

Explanation

Question 26 of 429

1

What is the term used to describe a sideways curvature of the spine?

Select one of the following:

Kyphosis.
Lordosis.
Scoliosis.
Dowager’s hump.

Explanation

Question 27 of 429

1

The part of the vertebra that supports the weight of our head and trunk is the:

Select one of the following:

Posterior segment.
Spinal cord.
Vertebral arch.
Vertebral Body.

Explanation

Question 28 of 429

1

Multiple spinal compression fractures can lead to kyphosis. This hunched rounded back is called:

Select one of the following:

Scoliosis.
Osteopathic spinal hump.
Dowager’s hump.
Lordotic curvature.

Explanation

Question 29 of 429

1

Which anatomical systems does osteoporosis most directly affect?

Select one of the following:

Digestive.
Lymphatic.
Skeletal.
Urinary.

Explanation

Question 30 of 429

1

The most common area of vertebral fractures due to osteoporosis occurs in the _ and _ regions.

Select one of the following:

T4 – T8, T9 – L1
T5 – T9, T11 – L2
T7 – T9, T12 – L2
T10 – T12, L1 – L3

Explanation

Question 31 of 429

1

The skull, sternum, ribs and spine all belong to which skeletal classification?

Select one of the following:

Appendicular.
Axial.
Peripheral.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 32 of 429

1

The strength of bone is determined by:

Select one of the following:

The number of osteoblasts.
The age of the patient.
Bone density.
The number of osteoclasts.

Explanation

Question 33 of 429

1

The calcar femorale is part of the _____.

Select one of the following:

Radius & ulna
Vertebra
Femur
Calcaneus

Explanation

Question 34 of 429

1

Which of the following would represent cortical bone?

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 35 of 429

1

The breakdown of bone by ______ is technically known as resorption.

Select one of the following:

Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts
Osteocells
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 36 of 429

1

The disease that would NOT have a low BMD measurement is ______.

Select one of the following:

Osteomalcia
Cushing’s syndrome
Intestinal/bowel disease
Osteopetrosis

Explanation

Question 37 of 429

1

A report issued by the U.S. Office of the Surgeon General warned that by 2020, _____% of Americans over the age of 50 would be at risk for fractures due to osteoporosis or low bone mass.

Select one of the following:

70
50
40
25

Explanation

Question 38 of 429

1

_____% (percentage) of individuals who suffer a hip fracture dies from associated complications within one year.

Select one of the following:

100
20
30
40

Explanation

Question 39 of 429

1

Studies have shown that an individual who suffers a spine fracture has a _____% chance of suffering another fracture within the next year.

Select one of the following:

10
20
30
40

Explanation

Question 40 of 429

1

Bone mass increases until the age of ____ in men and women then declines as aging progresses.

Select one of the following:

25
30
35
40

Explanation

Question 41 of 429

1

All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Caucasian and Asian women are at an increased risk for osteoporosis.
Women are at an increased risk for osteoporosis due to lower peak bone mass than men and menopause.
Smoking and alcoholism are risk factors for the development of osteoporosis.
Obesity increases the risk of developing osteoporosis.

Explanation

Question 42 of 429

1

Which of the following statement is true?

Select one of the following:

Fracture risk is determined solely by BMD.
Vitamin D supplements should be stopped in the summer months.
Integrating BMD with clinical risk factors for fracture enables an estimation of fracture risk.
Calcium and vitamin D are sufficient for fracture prevention in patients with osteoporosis.

Explanation

Question 43 of 429

1

Which of the following is a sign of osteoporosis?

Select one of the following:

Low back pain.
Decreasing height.
Curved upper back.
All of the above.

Explanation

Question 44 of 429

1

Which of the following conditions does NOT contribute to the development of secondary osteoporosis?

Select one of the following:

Chronic renal failure
Diabetes mellitus
Malabsorption syndromes
Hypothyroidism

Explanation

Question 45 of 429

1

Which of the following are signs of osteoporosis?
1. Reduced height.
2. Kyphosis.
3. Receding mandible/jawbone.

Select one of the following:

1 & 2
1 & 3
2 & 3
1, 2, & 3

Explanation

Question 46 of 429

1

Increased amounts of thyroxine accelerates the metabolism causing bone to break down faster than the rebuilding process. This condition is called:

Select one of the following:

Hypertension.
Hypotension.
Hyperthyroidism.
Hypothyroidism.

Explanation

Question 47 of 429

1

Why does cigarette smoking result in decreased bone density in premenopausal women?

Select one of the following:

The decrease in oxygen supply associated with smoking decreases the oxygen available for bone formation.
Smoking over-stimulates the production of osteoblasts.
Smoking suppresses overall metabolism thereby decreasing the regularity of the bone formation cycle.
Smoking chemically alters estrogen so that it no longer contributes to bone formation.

Explanation

Question 48 of 429

1

Which is the most common medication(s) associated with secondary osteoporosis?

Select one of the following:

Thyroxine.
Lithium
Benzodiazepines
Glucocorticoids

Explanation

Question 49 of 429

1

The average American woman has a _____ Percent (%) chance of getting osteoporosis.

Select one of the following:

Twenty
Forty
Fifty
Sixty

Explanation

Question 50 of 429

1

Which of the following factors is NOT associated with interfering with the bone remodeling process?

Select one of the following:

Smoking
Alcohol abuse
Hypothyroidism
Corticosteroids

Explanation

Question 51 of 429

1

___ % (percent) of those afflicted with osteoporosis are women.

Select one of the following:

50
60
70
80

Explanation

Question 52 of 429

1

Which type of menopause results in lower bone density in the hip area when compared to normal menopause?

Select one of the following:

Early menopause.
Premature menopause.
Post reproductive menopause.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 53 of 429

1

Secondary causes of osteoporosis include all of the following, EXCEPT _____.

Select one of the following:

Celiac disease.
Hyperparathyroidism.
Gastrointestinal disease.
Low vitamin C.

Explanation

Question 54 of 429

1

Cessation of estrogen production from menopause:

Select one of the following:

Has no effect on bone remodeling.
Increases bone growth.
Induces an acceleration of bone loss.
Only affects inactive women.

Explanation

Question 55 of 429

1

The 1997 Bone Mass Measurement Act by Congress went into effect in:

Select one of the following:

June 1997.
July 1997.
June 1998.
July 1998.

Explanation

Question 56 of 429

1

Bone density tests are recommended for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT _____.

Select one of the following:

Post-menopausal women under the age of 65 who have one or more risk factors.
Monitoring osteoporosis therapy.
Patients on steroid therapy.
Joint pain.

Explanation

Question 57 of 429

1

The 1997 Bone Mass Measurement Act allows each of the following to have a bone density examination EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Individuals receiving corticosteroids for over 3 months.
Estrogen-deficient women.
Individuals on FDA approved osteoporotic drug therapy for monitoring.
Individuals with hypothyroidism.

Explanation

Question 58 of 429

1

The exception for the 24-month standard delineated by the Bone Mass Measurement Act is:

Select one of the following:

Patients on HRT.
Osteoporotic patients who have had a new fracture.
Patients on glucocorticoid therapy.
Patients with hyperparathyroidism.

Explanation

Question 59 of 429

1

When performing a bio-chemical bone marker test,the actual measurements is:

Select one of the following:

The by-products created by calicum and vitamin D.
The residual amount of osteocells.
The by-products created by bone formation and resorption.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 60 of 429

1

When the % Age-Matched comparison is poor, something other than age or estrogen deficiency should be considered for the bone loss. The percentage that should prompt an evaluation is:

Select one of the following:

50.
60.
70.
80.

Explanation

Question 61 of 429

1

What percentage of bone loss must be present before it is demonstrated on plain film radiography (x-ray)?

Select one of the following:

20
30
40
50

Explanation

Question 62 of 429

1

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Select one of the following:

Back pain and loss of height could be the first sign of osteoporosis.
Osteoporosis is usually asymptomatic.
Dowager’s hump is common in patients with osteoporosis.
A patient must have a history of a fracture to be considered osteoporotic.

Explanation

Question 63 of 429

1

The type of BMD testing that utilizes ultrasound is:

Select one of the following:

QCT
DEXA
SPA
QUS

Explanation

Question 64 of 429

1

The most appropriate value for reporting BMD assessment in children is:

Select one of the following:

BMD
BMC.
T-score.
Z-score.

Explanation

Question 65 of 429

1

The current “Gold Standard” for the measurement of Bone Density is the:

Select one of the following:

DPA
DEXA
QCT
QUS

Explanation

Question 66 of 429

1

Plain skeletal radiographs can demonstrate demineralization only after _____ % or more of the bone density has been lost.

Select one of the following:

10
20
30
40

Explanation

Question 67 of 429

1

A standard deviation equals about ______ percent and compares how far above or below the BMD results reported are to the norm.

Select one of the following:

5 – 10
8 – 12
10 - 12
11 - 15

Explanation

Question 68 of 429

1

In the BMD report, which numerical value expresses a bone density result against the average bone density for a healthy woman who is the same age?

Select one of the following:

T-score.
Z-score.
Young Adult percentage.
Age Match Comparison percentage.

Explanation

Question 69 of 429

1

Which of the following tests is considered the fastest peripheral densitometer?

Select one of the following:

pQCT (Peripheral Quantitative Computed Tomography)
p-DEXA (Peripheral or Portable Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry)
PIXI (Peripheral Instantaneous X-ray Imager Bone Densitometer)
SXA (Single-energy X-ray Absorptiometry)

Explanation

Question 70 of 429

1

The Z-score should be used to make a diagnosis in _______.

Select one of the following:

Postmenopausal females.
Males age 65 or older.
Both male and females age 50 and older.
Male and females age 20 and younger.

Explanation

Question 71 of 429

1

The vertebral levels that are best seen for VFA (vertebral fracture assessment) during a DXA lateral spine scan are:

Select one of the following:

T4 – L4
T5 – L4
T6 – L4
T7 – L4

Explanation

Question 72 of 429

1

A patient with a visible vertebral fracture on the lateral spine DXA scan with a total hip T-score of -2.6 would be diagnosed with:

Select one of the following:

Osteopenia.
Severe osteopenia.
Osteoporosis.
Severe osteoporosis.

Explanation

Question 73 of 429

1

The World Health Organization defines osteoporosis as someone having a T-score of between _____.

Select one of the following:

-1.0 and -2.5
-1.0 or greater
-2.5 or greater
-2.5 or less

Explanation

Question 74 of 429

1

The World Health Organization defines osteopenia as someone having a T-score of/between _____.

Select one of the following:

-2.5 or greater
-2.5 or less
-1.0 and -2.5
-1.0 or greater

Explanation

Question 75 of 429

1

Which of the following term best describes a statistical measure of spread or variability?

Select one of the following:

Mean
Standard deviation.
Variance.
The coefficient.

Explanation

Question 76 of 429

1

Which of the following term best describes a measure of the average distance between each of a set of data points and their mean value?

Select one of the following:

Mean.
Standard deviation.
Variance.
The coefficient.

Explanation

Question 77 of 429

1

When utilizing the T-score scale, the average is assigned the T-score of _____.

Select one of the following:

0
50
75
100

Explanation

Question 78 of 429

1

Each standard deviation reduction in age-related bone density increases the risk of experiencing an osteoporotic fracture by:

Select one of the following:

20%
30%
40%
50%

Explanation

Question 79 of 429

1

On the T-score scale, the average value is assigned the value of ____.

Select one of the following:

0
50
100
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 80 of 429

1

The Z-score compares the patient's bone density with the average bone mass of a person the same age, sex, and weight and is best used for _____ patients.

Select one of the following:

Female
Elderly
Male
Pediatric

Explanation

Question 81 of 429

1

Standard deviation is:

Select one of the following:

The sum of the values divided by the number of values.
The root mean square (RMS) deviation of the values from their arithmetic mean.
The difference between the highest and lowest score in a distribution.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 82 of 429

1

The procedure used for the measurement of BMD that utilized an isotope was:

Select one of the following:

Single-Photon Absorptiometry (SPA).
Dual-Photon Absorptiometry (DPA).
Radiographic Absorptiometry.
Radiogrammetry.

Explanation

Question 83 of 429

1

Which of the following tests demonstrates the bone in three dimensions and measures the volumetric density of the bone?

Select one of the following:

DPA (Dual Photon Absorptiometry)
QCT (Quantitative Computed Tomography)
SXA (Single-energy X-ray Absorptiometry
SPA (Single Photon Absorptiometry)

Explanation

Question 84 of 429

1

The test that emits the highest radiation dose for the evaluation of bone density is the:

Select one of the following:

DPA (Dual Photon Absorptiometry).
QCT (Quantitative Computed Tomography).
SXA (Single-energy X-ray Absorptiometry).
SPA (Single Photon Absorptiometry).

Explanation

Question 85 of 429

1

The _____ is measured with various types of bone density tests because of the similar composition to the spine.

Select one of the following:

Heel
Forearm
Hip
Finger

Explanation

Question 86 of 429

1

The test that utilizes NO radiation dose for the evaluation of bone density is the:

Select one of the following:

DPA (Dual Photon Absorptiometry).
QCT (Quantitative Computed Tomography).
QUS (Quantitative Ultrasound).
SPA (Single Photon Absorptiometry).

Explanation

Question 87 of 429

1

The two years prior and the two years following menopause in which the estrogen levels fluctuate is called:

Select one of the following:

Premenopausal Period.
Perimenopause.
Antemenopause.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 88 of 429

1

Women who are perimenopausal and show some degree of bone loss should intake:

Select one of the following:

1500 milligrams of calcium a week.
1500 milligrams of calcium a day.
2500 milligrams of calcium a day.
No calcium at all.

Explanation

Question 89 of 429

1

Signs of impending menopause are:
1. Irregular periods.
2. 12 months without a period.
3. Hot flashes.

Select one of the following:

1 & 2
1 & 3
2 & 3
1, 2, & 3

Explanation

Question 90 of 429

1

The loss of bone accelerates at two points throughout life: around menopause and at the age of 75.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 91 of 429

1

The human body only absorbs _____ percent of all the calcium we eat from foods.

Select one of the following:

5 to 10
10 to 20
20 to 30
30 to 40

Explanation

Question 92 of 429

1

The recommended daily intake of Vitamin D for the age group 51 through 70 years is:

Select one of the following:

200 IU (International Units).
400 IU.
600 IU.
800 IU.

Explanation

Question 93 of 429

1

For the absorption of bisphosphonates to occur, the patient must be _ and should only take with the medication.

Select one of the following:

Feed, H20 (water)
NPO (Nothing Passed Orally), H20
Feed, milk
NPO, milk

Explanation

Question 94 of 429

1

The mortality rate within one year of sustaining a fracture of the hip is _____.

Select one of the following:

5 to 10 %
15 to 20 %
20 to 30 %
30 to 40 %

Explanation

Question 95 of 429

1

The SERM drug (selective estrogen receptor modulator) which provides the benefits of estrogen without the side effects is:

Select one of the following:

Alendronate (Fosamax).
Calcitonin (Miacalcin).
Raloxifene (Evista).
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 96 of 429

1

Anti-resorptive agents are:
1. Estrogen.
2. Calcium.
3. Alendronate.
4. Calcitonin.

Select one of the following:

1, 2, & 3
1, 3, & 4
2, 3, & 4
1, 2, 3, & 4

Explanation

Question 97 of 429

1

The type of osteoporotic fracture associated with a high mortality rate of approximately 20 % (percent) or higher in both sexes is/are:

Select one of the following:

Fractures of the vertebra.
Fractures of the hip.
Fracture s of the wrist.
Fractures of the distal portion of the femur.

Explanation

Question 98 of 429

1

All of the following are bisphosphonates EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Alendronate (Fosamax)
Ibandronate (Boniva)
Risedronate (Actonel, Atelvia)
Raloxifene (Evista)

Explanation

Question 99 of 429

1

Which of the following is a SERM (Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator)?

Select one of the following:

Alendronate (Fosamax)
Ibandronate (Boniva)
Risedronate (Actonel, Atelvia)
Raloxifene (Evista)

Explanation

Question 100 of 429

1

Which drug treatment for osteoporosis provides the benefits of estrogen without the side effects?

Select one of the following:

Alendronate (Fosamax)
Ibandronate (Boniva)
Risedronate (Actonel, Atelvia)
Raloxifene (Evista)

Explanation

Question 101 of 429

1

The treatment of bisphosphonates for osteoporosis assists with the prevention of bone loss by:

Select one of the following:

Increasing the action of the osteoblasts.
Decreasing the action of the osteoblasts.
Increasing the action of the osteoclasts.
Decreasing the action of the osteoclasts.

Explanation

Question 102 of 429

1

All of the following are lifestyle modifications associated with osteoporosis EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Moderation of alcohol consumption.
Moderation of caffeine intake.
Avoidance of cigarette smoking.
Moderation of calcium intake.

Explanation

Question 103 of 429

1

The recommended daily calcium intake for estrogen-deficient women age 50 and older is:

Select one of the following:

1000 mg
1200 mg
1500 mg
2000 mg

Explanation

Question 104 of 429

1

The only anabolic agent available to aid in the stimulation of bone formation is:

Select one of the following:

Raloxifene.
Evista
Estrace.
Triparatide

Explanation

Question 105 of 429

1

What amount of vitamin D that should be administered to elderly (over 70 years) patients?

Select one of the following:

200 - 400 IUs/day
400 - 600 IUs/day
600 - 800 IUs/day
800 - 1000 IUs/day

Explanation

Question 106 of 429

1

What amount of vitamin D that should be administered to patients ages 51 to 70 years of age?

Select one of the following:

200 IU/day
400 IU/day
600 IU/day
1000 IU/day

Explanation

Question 107 of 429

1

The percentage (%) of people who die within a year after suffering an osteoporosis-related hip fracture is:

Select one of the following:

10 % to 20%
20 % to 30%
30 % to 40%
40 % to 50%

Explanation

Question 108 of 429

1

All of the following are lifestyle factors that increase the chance of developing osteoporosis EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Low calcium intake.
Vitamin D deficiency.
Low salt diet.
Excessive protein intake.

Explanation

Question 109 of 429

1

All of the following are lifestyle modifications associated with the prevention of osteoporosis EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Moderation of alcohol consumption.
Moderation of caffeine intake.
Avoidance of cigarette smoking.
Moderation of calcium intake.

Explanation

Question 110 of 429

1

Which of the following factors is NOT associated with osteoporosis?

Select one of the following:

Smoking
Alcohol abuse
Hypotension
Corticosteroids

Explanation

Question 111 of 429

1

Nutritional councils recommend that adults should get _ to _ milligrams of calcium a day.

Select one of the following:

100; 250
250; 500
500; 1,000
1,000; 1,500

Explanation

Question 112 of 429

1

A CD, zip drive, flash drive and a floppy are examples of:

Select one of the following:

Operating systems.
Storage medias.
CPUs
Printers.

Explanation

Question 113 of 429

1

Examples of output devices are:

Select one of the following:

Printers and flash drives.
Monitors and printers.
Hard drives and keyboards.
Operating systems and CDs.

Explanation

Question 114 of 429

1

Which of the following is NOT a peripheral device of a computer?

Select one of the following:

Bone Densitometer
Printer
CPU
Key Board

Explanation

Question 115 of 429

1

Which is NOT computer hardware?

Select one of the following:

CPU.
Monitor.
Printer.
Data file.

Explanation

Question 116 of 429

1

The CPU, motherboard, monitor, hard drive, and mouse are examples of computer _____.

Select one of the following:

Software.
Hardware.
DOS system.
RAM memory.

Explanation

Question 117 of 429

1

When performing Bone Densitometry to follow changes in bone density over time, the factor that is most imperative is:

Select one of the following:

Accuracy.
Precision.
The BMD is not dependent on accuracy or precision.
Precision is only important to determine initial diagnosis of BMD.

Explanation

Question 118 of 429

1

Which of the following bone parameters are measured in grams?

Select one of the following:

BMD – Bone Mineral Density
BMC – Bone Mineral Content
Area
% Young Adult & % age Match Comparison

Explanation

Question 119 of 429

1

A technologist’s review of the auto-analysis is necessary:

Select one of the following:

Never
All the time.
For the forearm only.
At the technologist’s digression.

Explanation

Question 120 of 429

1

The attribute of a quantitative measurement technique that refers to the ability to reproduce the same numerical result with no real biological change and performed in an identical fashion is called:

Select one of the following:

Accuracy.
Precision.
Coefficient of variation.
Least significant change.

Explanation

Question 121 of 429

1

The method of choice to monitor a patient’s response to therapy for osteoporosis is:

Select one of the following:

Serial DXA of the forearm.
Serial QUS of the heel.
Serial DXA of the spine and hip.
All of the above.

Explanation

Question 122 of 429

1

Assume a patient has osteoporosis. How will this disease affect the interaction of the x-ray photons with bone?

Select one of the following:

Osteoporotic bone attenuates more photons.
Osteoporotic bone attenuates less photons.
Osteoporotic bone produces more scatter radiation.
Osteoporotic bone decrease contrast.

Explanation

Question 123 of 429

1

Osteoporotic bone decrease contrast.

Select one of the following:

Never because it is built into the hardware.
On a regular schedule and with any equipment change such as the monitor.
At least once a year on each technologist and with a major equipment change.
At least once or repeated with the addition of a new technologist or a major equipment change

Explanation

Question 124 of 429

1

The ISCD (International Society for Clinical Densitometry) guidelines for monitoring changes in bone density states that:

Select one of the following:

The skeletal sites used for monitoring are the spine and proximal femur.
Peripheral sites are not recommended for monitoring.
A & B are correct.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 125 of 429

1

In-vitro precision (QC) testing should be done on a:

Select one of the following:

Patient.
Phantom.
Both of the above.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 126 of 429

1

Phantoms that attempt to replicate a particular region of the skeleton are called:

Select one of the following:

European spine phantoms.
Shewart chart phantoms.
Bona fide phantoms.
Anthropomorphic phantoms.

Explanation

Question 127 of 429

1

When a patient has a follow-up hip scan, it is crucial to check that the images look similar for reproducibility. All of the following are correct EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Hip rotation is responsible for most of the errors in reproducibility.
Look for the lesser trochanter to see if it has the same shape on each view.
Check the neck region of interest to see how close it is to the greater trochanter.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 128 of 429

1

The disadvantage of array or fan-beam Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA) unit has when compared to a pencil-beam Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA) unit is:

Select one of the following:

Reduced scan times and the acquisition of lateral spine scans.
Lower levels of radiation.
Decreased magnification.
Increased magnification.

Explanation

Question 129 of 429

1

When performing Quality Control during bone density, the range of control limits is based on ____ of the average value.

Select one of the following:

+ .5 %
+ 1.0 %
+ 1.5 %
+ 2.0 %

Explanation

Question 130 of 429

1

A Quality Control program should require ______ phantom scans to ensure proper operation.

Select one of the following:

Daily
Weekly
Monthly
Quarterly

Explanation

Question 131 of 429

1

The NOF (National Osteoporosis Foundation) accepts peripheral measurements as a screening tool for the detection of osteoporosis. Peripheral refers to the:

Select one of the following:

Fingers.
Wrists.
Heel.
All of the above.

Explanation

Question 132 of 429

1

The diagnosis of osteoporosis:

Select one of the following:

Requires a fracture.
Can be made by laboratory testing.
Can be made by DXA or DEXA (Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry).
Can be based on clinical risk factors.

Explanation

Question 133 of 429

1

DXA is so sensitive that it can detect as little as _____ of bone loss a year.

Select one of the following:

One percent
Two percent
Three percent
Four percent

Explanation

Question 134 of 429

1

When performing Bone Densitometry to monitor the effects of therapy over time, the most imperative factor is:

Select one of the following:

The subtraction technique utilized.
Reproducibility – accuracy and precision.
The BMD (Bone Mineral Density) is not dependent on accuracy or precision.
Precision is only important to determine initial diagnosis of BMD.

Explanation

Question 135 of 429

1

Which technology is used for DXA scanners?

Select one of the following:

Ultrasound – different levels of sound waves to differentiate between bone and soft tissue.
Radioisotope – absorption levels of the isotope will differentiate between bone and soft tissue.
X-ray – two low level beams differentiate the absorption by the bone and soft tissue.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 136 of 429

1

The type of scanner that emits a tiny, narrowly focused beam that passes a designated region in a rectangular pattern is called a:

Select one of the following:

Fan-beam.
Pencil-beam.
Probe-beam.
Collimator-beam.

Explanation

Question 137 of 429

1

Which of the following bone parameters are measured in centimeters squared?

Select one of the following:

BMD – Bone Mineral Density
BMC – Bone Mineral Content
Area
% Young Adult & % Age Match Comparison

Explanation

Question 138 of 429

1

If a figure of 1% is used for the precision value at the 95% confidence level, a change of ____% or greater must be seen before the change can be considered significant.

Select one of the following:

1.39
2.08
2.77
3.46

Explanation

Question 139 of 429

1

A scan of the spine (L1 to L4) produces the values below for BMC (bone mineral content) and total area scanned. What is the total BMD (bone mineral density) for L1 to L4?
BMC – (L1 – L4) = 56.2 g (grams)
Area - (L1 – L4) =58.4 cm2

Select one of the following:

0.16
0.96
1.04
2.20

Explanation

Question 140 of 429

1

An anthropomorphic phantom is made of hydroxyapatite or aluminum because they both behave like soft tissue when x-rayed.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 141 of 429

1

To establish the average bone mineral density of the phantom for the control chart,

Select one of the following:

Scan the phantom 5 times without repositioning between scans.
Scan the phantom 10 times without repositioning between scans.
Scan the phantom 15 times without repositioning between scans.
Scan the phantom 20 times without repositioning between scans.

Explanation

Question 142 of 429

1

The phantom BMD values obtained over time from a scanner that is operating perfectly should randomly fall on either side of the 10-phantom BMD average value but remain within the control limit boundaries of _____%.

Select one of the following:

1.0
1.5
2.0
2.5

Explanation

Question 143 of 429

1

The combination of number of patients and scan/patients for a short-term precision study should be:

Select one of the following:

1 patient and 30 scans
5 patients and 8 scans
10 patients and 5 scans
15 patients and 3 scans

Explanation

Question 144 of 429

1

The energy-switching system is calibrated by a _______ that generates the high- and low-energy attenuation coefficients and corrects for beam hardiness due to variation in tissue thickness.

Select one of the following:

Filter
Calibration wheel
X-ray tube
Generator

Explanation

Question 145 of 429

1

The DXA scanner that uses a single detector and a pinhole collimator is the:

Select one of the following:

Fan–array scanner.
Pencil-beam scanner.
Both of the above.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 146 of 429

1

The control limits of the Shewart Rules are based on _____ % (percentage) of the average values.

Select one of the following:

0.25
0.50
1.0
1.5

Explanation

Question 147 of 429

1

A phantom that resembles the size and shape of a skeletal region is called a ____ phantom.

Select one of the following:

Anatomical
Regional
Anthropomorphic
Baseline

Explanation

Question 148 of 429

1

What type of detector is used with a DXA system that utilizes a rare earth filtered source?

Select one of the following:

Energy switching.
Calibration wheel.
Pulse counting.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 149 of 429

1

When a patient has a BMD of .857 and the area is 55.45, what is the BMC?

Select one of the following:

0.015
47.520
64.70
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 150 of 429

1

The purpose of bone edge detection is:

Select one of the following:

To assist the unit in the measurement of BMD.
To assure that the unit is calibrated properly.
To distinguish soft tissue from bone.
To assist with the placement of ROIs (region of interest).

Explanation

Question 151 of 429

1

The chart above represents a quality control chart with a control limit(s) of ____%.

Select one of the following:

1.0
1.5
1.7
2.0

Explanation

Question 152 of 429

1

If the total lumbar spine BMC (bone mineral content) is 45 g. and the area is 60 cm2, what is the BMD (bone mineral density)?

Select one of the following:

0.27 g/cm2
0.75 g/cm2
1.05 g/cm2
1.33 g/cm2

Explanation

Question 153 of 429

1

Which of the following bone parameter is measured in grams?

Select one of the following:

Area.
BMC - bone mineral content.
BMD – bone mineral density.
Length.

Explanation

Question 154 of 429

1

Which of the following bone parameter is measured in cm?

Select one of the following:

Area
BMC - bone mineral content.
BMD – bone mineral density.
Length.

Explanation

Question 155 of 429

1

Which of the following bone parameter is measured in grams/ cm2?

Select one of the following:

Area
BMC - bone mineral content.
BMD – bone mineral density.
Length.

Explanation

Question 156 of 429

1

If the daily QC (quality control) fails, the proper procedure to follow is:

Select one of the following:

Reboot the computer.
Call the manufacturer.
Repeat the QC procedure.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 157 of 429

1

Quality Control/Assurance should be performed:

Select one of the following:

Every week.
Every day before scanning patients.
Every day after scanning patients.
Every time a patient is scanned.

Explanation

Question 158 of 429

1

If the daily quality assurance fails, the proper procedure to follow is:

Select one of the following:

Repeat the procedure only if two (2) items fail.
Repeat the procedure should any of the items fail.
Repeat the procedure only if it has had three failures.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 159 of 429

1

What does the acronym BMD represent?

Select one of the following:

Bone mass density.
Bone modeling density.
Bone mass depository.
Bone mineral density.

Explanation

Question 160 of 429

1

Which of the following statements about precision error is MOST correct?

Select one of the following:

This value represents the smallest change in BMD that is clinically significant.
This value is supplied by the DXA manufacturer for direct application to comparison of serial DXAs in patients.
The precision error must be calculated by measuring BMD in a series of patients according to standard methods.
Precision error and least significant change (LSC) are the same.

Explanation

Question 161 of 429

1

The quality control procedure of a DXA unit needs to be checked for proper function:

Select one of the following:

Once a week.
Once a month.
Each day it is utilized for scans.
Once a year.

Explanation

Question 162 of 429

1

Fan beam DXA units have longer scan times and better resolution compared to pencil beam DXA units.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 163 of 429

1

100 rads are equal to ____ Gy (Gray).

Select one of the following:

.01
.1
1.0
10

Explanation

Question 164 of 429

1

100 rems are equal to ____ Sv (Sievert).

Select one of the following:

.01
0.1
1.0
10

Explanation

Question 165 of 429

1

The proper distance that a technologist should maintain from the x-ray tube of a pencil-beam device is ____.

Select one of the following:

1.5 feet
2 feet.
3 feet.
5 feet.

Explanation

Question 166 of 429

1

The proper distance that a technologist should maintain from the x-ray tube of a fan-array device is ____.

Select one of the following:

2 feet.
3 feet.
5 feet.
10 feet.

Explanation

Question 167 of 429

1

The acronym of ALARA means:

Select one of the following:

As low as radiation achieves.
As low as reasonably achievable.
As leaving a radiation archive.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 168 of 429

1

The 10-day rule states any radiological examination should be performed:

Select one of the following:

Anytime during the menstrual cycle.
During the middle of the menstruation cycle.
Within the last 10 days of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
Within 10 days of a woman’s last menstrual period.

Explanation

Question 169 of 429

1

In order to protect the technologists from leakage and scatter radiation during a bone density examination, the technologist should keep a distance of:
1. 3 ft. (1m) or more from the x-ray tube of a pencil beam DXA.
2. 10 ft. (3m) from the x-ray tube of a fan-array device.
3. Use a protective barrier if proper distance cannot be obtained.

Select one of the following:

1 only
2 only
3 only
1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Question 170 of 429

1

A classic radiation dose for a PA lumbar spine or proximal femur study from a typical DXA scan is:

Select one of the following:

1 - 4 mrem.
2 - 5 mrem.
3 - 6 mrem.
4 - 8 mrem.

Explanation

Question 171 of 429

1

The effective dose for a DXA scan of the hip and spine would be equal to or less than:
1. One-tenth of a chest x-ray
2. One day of background radiation.
3. A round trip flight from New York to California.

Select one of the following:

1 & 2 only
1 & 3 only
2 & 3 only
1, 2, & 3

Explanation

Question 172 of 429

1

Which of the following patients would have a contraindication for a DXA hip scan?

Select one of the following:

Patient with one hip replacement.
Patient who might be pregnant.
Patient currently taking steroids.
Patient with a recent broken forearm.

Explanation

Question 173 of 429

1

Which of the following patients would have a contraindication for a DXA lumbar spine scan?

Select one of the following:

Patient with one hip replacement.
Patient with contrast media recently.
Patient currently taking steroids.
Patient with a recent broken forearm.

Explanation

Question 174 of 429

1

Research has demonstrated that a severe aortic calcification will have:

Select one of the following:

A significant increase in the BMD of a PA Lumbar spine.
A significant decrease in the BMD of a PA Lumbar spine.
A small increased effect in the BMD of a PA Lumbar spine.
No effect in the BMD of a PA Lumbar spine.

Explanation

Question 175 of 429

1

Multiple spinal compression fractures can lead to kyphosis. This extreme spinal curvature is called:

Select one of the following:

Scoliosis.
Osteopathic spinal hump.
Dowager’s hump.
Lordotic curvature.

Explanation

Question 176 of 429

1

Images obtained from a bone density test can be used to determine a compression fracture of the lumbar spine.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 177 of 429

1

Which of the following will NOT increase the measurement of BMD?

Select one of the following:

Osteophytes.
Facet sclerosis.
Compression fracture.
Osteoporosis.

Explanation

Question 178 of 429

1

When performing a PA spine study, it is preferable to use the BMD from _ to __ vertebrae for the calculations.

Select one of the following:

1 - 2
1 – 3
3 – 4
4 - 5

Explanation

Question 179 of 429

1

All of the following may result in the falsely elevated BMD of the spine during a DXA EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Bone spurs.
Osteoarthritis.
Scoliosis.
Spinal cord compression.

Explanation

Question 180 of 429

1

When performing a DXA of the spine, the vertebra should be labeled by:

Select one of the following:

Counting the vertebra from the top down.
Counting the vertebra from the bottom up.
Letting the computer do the analysis.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 181 of 429

1

PA (Posterior-Anterior) images obtained from a BMD examination can be used to determine a compression fracture of the lumbar spine.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 182 of 429

1

The percentage of trabecular bone found in the PA lumbar spine measured by DXA is:

Select one of the following:

44
55
66
77

Explanation

Question 183 of 429

1

Which lumbar vertebra appears to have the shape of an “X” or “H” when performing a PA spine scan?

Select one of the following:

L1
L2
L3
L4

Explanation

Question 184 of 429

1

When performing a PA lumbar scan, labeling of the vertebral bodies should:

Select one of the following:

Start at L1 and label down.
Start at L4 and label up.
Be done by the software only.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 185 of 429

1

When performing a PA lumbar scan, the vertebral bodies should be identified by:

Select one of the following:

Their characteristic shapes such as L4 appearing as an “X”.
Know characteristics such as L3 with the longest transverse process.
The software of the manufacturer.
A & B are correct.

Explanation

Question 186 of 429

1

The most common osteoporotic fracture occurs in the:

Select one of the following:

Wrist.
Spine.
Hip
Calcaneus

Explanation

Question 187 of 429

1

The characteristic shapes of the vertebra seen PA DXA spine images are primarily based on the appearance of the:

Select one of the following:

Transverse process.
Vertebral bodies.
Posterior elements.
Intervertebral discs.

Explanation

Question 188 of 429

1

Existing research shows that if you cannot measure the spine and the hip, the _____ is really the best site to examine, because it is largely composed of trabecular bone and it is accessible.

Select one of the following:

Tibia
Femur
Heel
Fibula

Explanation

Question 189 of 429

1

The most common combination of the various combinations of the number of lumbar vertebrae and position of the lowest ribs is:

Select one of the following:

4 lumbar vertebrae with the lowest set of ribs at T 11.
5 lumbar vertebrae with the lowest set of ribs at T 11.
5 lumbar vertebrae with the lowest set of ribs at T 12.
6 lumbar vertebrae with the lowest set of ribs at T 12.

Explanation

Question 190 of 429

1

The most common spinal fracture is at the ____ vertebral level.

Select one of the following:

T8 - S5
T10 – T12
T11 – L1
L2 – L4

Explanation

Question 191 of 429

1

A bone densitometry scan of the lumbar spine produces the BMD (bone mineral density) measurements below. What might explain these results?
Region BMD
L1 0.98
L2 0.92
L3 0.96
L4 1.01

Select one of the following:

Osteoporosis.
Scoliosis.
Vertebral fracture at L1.
Severe facet sclerosis at L2.

Explanation

Question 192 of 429

1

Which of the following anatomical site is the transverse process of the lumbar spine?
A
B
C
D

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 193 of 429

1

The greatest rates of change in bone density testing are found in the skeletal regions that contain:

Select one of the following:

Lowest % of trabecular bone.
Highest % of trabecular bone.
Lowest % of cortical bone.
Highest % of cortical bone.

Explanation

Question 194 of 429

1

The lumbar vertebra that possesses the largest transverse processes is:

Select one of the following:

L1
L2
L3
L4

Explanation

Question 195 of 429

1

The iliac crest is normally located at the level of the:

Select one of the following:

L1 – L2 interspace.
L3 – L4 interspace.
L4 – L5 interspace.
L5 – S1 interspace.

Explanation

Question 196 of 429

1

The portion of the vertebrae that possesses the greatest amount of trabecular bone is the:

Select one of the following:

Spinous process.
Transverse process.
Vertebral arch.
Vertebral body.

Explanation

Question 197 of 429

1

What is wrong with the acquired PA Spine image?

Select one of the following:

Spine is not centered properly.
The vertebrae are mislabeled.
No bone edge detection is visible.
The wrong scan mode was used.

Explanation

Question 198 of 429

1

What condition is visible on the acquired PA Spine image

Select one of the following:

Aortic calcification
A visible artifact is detected.
Scoliosis and osteophytes of L3 & L4.
Kyphosis and arthritis.

Explanation

Question 199 of 429

1

The area below L3 demonstrates:

Select one of the following:

A spinal fusion
Laminectomy.
A fracture.
An artifact.

Explanation

Question 200 of 429

1

What is wrong with the acquired hip image?

Select one of the following:

The leg was greatly abducted.
The leg was greatly adducted.
The leg was very internally rotated.
The leg was very externally rotated.

Explanation

Question 201 of 429

1

Which letter represents the greater trochanter?

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 202 of 429

1

Which letter represents the lesser trochanter?

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 203 of 429

1

In DXA, it is very important that you position the hips appropriately by rotating the femur inward approximately _____ degrees.

Select one of the following:

10
15
20
25

Explanation

Question 204 of 429

1

When performing a Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA) of the hip on a patient who is hemiplegic (total paralysis of the arm, leg, and trunk on the same side of the body), the side that should be scanned is:

Select one of the following:

The affected side.
The unaffected side.
Either – no BMD will be seen.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 205 of 429

1

When performing a Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA) of the hip on a patient who has had a fracture or hip replacement, the side that should be scanned is:

Select one of the following:

The affected side.
The unaffected side.
Either – no BMD will be seen.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 206 of 429

1

Patient positioning during a DXA hip measurement is so important because:

Select one of the following:

The software will not analyze the measurement if positioned wrong.
It ensures the comfort of the patient.
It ensures reproducible results.
The software will assume a different measurement site if positioned wrong.

Explanation

Question 207 of 429

1

The ROI (region of interest) should include the greater trochanter when measuring the femoral neck during a DXA scan.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 208 of 429

1

The proximal femur consists of:

Select one of the following:

Femoral neck, greater trochanter, and shaft.
Femoral head, femoral neck, and trochanters.
Femoral neck, lesser trochanter, and shaft.
Femoral neck, greater and less trochanters.

Explanation

Question 209 of 429

1

What is the Ward’s triangle?

Select one of the following:

Combination of the femoral neck and head.
Calculated region of low density in the proximal femur.
Calculated region of high density in the proximal femur.
Appropriate starting position from femur measurement.

Explanation

Question 210 of 429

1

When positioning the femur for a DXA, __ rotation will place the femoral neck _ with the long axis of the table.

Select one of the following:

10 – 15 degree external, perpendicular
10 – 15 degree internal, parallel
15 – 20 degree external, perpendicular
15 – 20 degree internal, parallel

Explanation

Question 211 of 429

1

All of the following are regions of interest in the proximal femur EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Total hip.
Femoral head.
Ward’s area.
Femoral neck.

Explanation

Question 212 of 429

1

During a DXA Scan of the hip, the ROI (region of interest) of the femoral neck is _______ to long axis of the femoral neck.

Select one of the following:

Parallel
Perpendicular
Located directly midway
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 213 of 429

1

Which of the following encompasses the total femur ROI (region of interest)?
1. Femoral neck
2. Ward’s area
3. Trochanteric region
4. Femoral shaft

Select one of the following:

1, 2, & 3
2, 3, & 4
1, 3, & 4
1, 2, 3, & 4

Explanation

Question 214 of 429

1

The name of anatomical landmark on the proximal femur that provides the technologist with the best indication that the proper degree of rotation has been achieved is the:

Select one of the following:

Greater trochanter.
Lesser trochanter.
Femoral neck.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 215 of 429

1

What is wrong with the following DXA hip scan?

Select one of the following:

The ROIs (regions of interests) are placed incorrectly.
The bone edge detection needs to be adjusted to include the lesser trochanter.
There is too much of the femoral shaft.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 216 of 429

1

The length of the femoral neck or the Hip Axis Length (HAL) states:

Select one of the following:

The longer the femoral neck the higher the risk of fracture of the hip.
The shorter the femoral neck the higher the risk of fracture of the hip.
The longer the femoral neck the lower the risk of fracture of the hip.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 217 of 429

1

The ____ is highly comprised of cortical bone.

Select one of the following:

Femoral neck.
Distal radius.
Mid- radius.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 218 of 429

1

The forearm is NOT used to monitor the effects of therapy for osteoporosis because:

Select one of the following:

Accuracy and precision are not reproducible.
The response rate of change in the BMD is too rapid.
The response rate of change in the BMD is too slow.
There is no effect to the response rate of change.

Explanation

Question 219 of 429

1

The area of the forearm utilized for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is the:

Select one of the following:

Proximal forearm.
Distal forearm.
Upper 2/3 of the forearm.
All of the above.

Explanation

Question 220 of 429

1

The area of interest NOT used to monitor therapy for osteoporosis is the:

Select one of the following:

Hip.
PA spine.
Forearm.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 221 of 429

1

When performing a Bone Density Measurement of the forearm with a DXA scanner, it is preferred to scan:

Select one of the following:

The right forearm always.
The left forearm always.
The dominant forearm.
The non-dominant forearm.

Explanation

Question 222 of 429

1

A forearm scan should include all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

A centered forearm.
Artifact free.
A straight forearm.
Motion.

Explanation

Question 223 of 429

1

The non-dominant arm is preferred when performing a DXA because:

Select one of the following:

It is easier for the patient.
There is an increase in the density values over the dominant arm.
The reference values are based on the non-dominant arm.
There is no difference in the density values between dominant and non-dominant arm.

Explanation

Question 224 of 429

1

The commonly measured sites such as 33%, the 50%, and 10% of the forearm are named based on:

Select one of the following:

The location of the site in relationship to the overall length of the radius.
The location of the site in relationship to the overall length of the ulna.
The percentage of cortical bone at the site.
The percentage of trabecular bone at the site.

Explanation

Question 225 of 429

1

Which of the following anatomical site is required to determine forearm length for the measurement of bone density?

Select one of the following:

Which of the following anatomical site is required to determine forearm length for the measurement of bone density?
A
E
F
M

Explanation

Question 226 of 429

1

DXA of the non-dominant forearm may be useful when:
1. DXA of the spine or hip cannot be performed or accurately interpreted.
2. Very obese individuals exceed the weight limit of the DXA table.
3. An individual has hyperparathyroidism.

Select one of the following:

1 & 2 only
1 & 3 only
2 & 3 only
1, 2, & 3

Explanation

Question 227 of 429

1

All of the following could result in the elevation of the bone mineral density of the UD (ultra distal) radius with the use of DXA (dual energy x-ray absorptiometry) EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Scanning the dominant forearm.
Scanning the non-dominant forearm.
An old fracture of the wrist.
Scanning the forearm with surgical hardware.

Explanation

Question 228 of 429

1

When using DXA (dual energy x-ray absorptiometry) to evaluate hyperparathyroidism, the preferred site to scan is the:

Select one of the following:

Lumbar spine.
Hip.
Wrist.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 229 of 429

1

The structure labeled A is the:

Select one of the following:

Radial head.
Olecranon process.
Coronoid process
Styloid process.

Explanation

Question 230 of 429

1

The structure labeled C is the:

Select one of the following:

Radial head.
Olecranon process.
Coronoid process.
Styloid process.

Explanation

Question 231 of 429

1

The structure labeled G is the:

Select one of the following:

Radial head.
Olecranon process.
Styloid process of the radius.
Styloid process of the ulna.

Explanation

Question 232 of 429

1

The structure labeled I is the:

Select one of the following:

Head of the ulna.
Radial neck.
Ulna notch of the radius.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 233 of 429

1

When positioning for a DXA hip scan, the anatomical landmark that can be palpated on the lateral portion of the femur is the:

Select one of the following:

Lesser trochanter.
Greater trochanter.
ASIS
Pubic symphysis.

Explanation

Question 234 of 429

1

Area is calculated by multiplying the height by the weight.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 235 of 429

1

The posterior elements of L1, L2, and L3 have __ or _ shaped appearance.

Select one of the following:

X, Y
U, Y
H, X
U, X

Explanation

Question 236 of 429

1

A basic computer system includes:
1. Computer tower.
2. Monitor.
3. Keyboard.
4. Mouse.

Select one of the following:

1, 2, & 3
1, 3, & 4
2, 3, & 4
1, 2, 3, & 4

Explanation

Question 237 of 429

1

If the actual value for the Z-score were 2 standard deviations above the average, the Z-score would be:

Select one of the following:

1
+1
-2
+2

Explanation

Question 238 of 429

1

The average value of the T-score is assigned the value of 50. If the actual value were 1 standard deviation above the average, the T-score would be:

Select one of the following:

30
40
60
70

Explanation

Question 239 of 429

1

Indications for following VFA with another imaging modality include:

Select one of the following:

Two or more mild deformities of the vertebrae.
Vertebral deformities in a patient with known history of malignancy.
Unidentifiable vertebrae between T7 – L4.
All of the above.

Explanation

Question 240 of 429

1

The ROI (Region of Interest) labeled B is the:

Select one of the following:

Femoral neck.
Ward’s Area.
Total femur.
Greater trochanter.

Explanation

Question 241 of 429

1

The ROI (Region of Interest) labeled D is the:

Select one of the following:

Femoral neck.
Ward’s Area.
Total femur.
Greater trochanter.

Explanation

Question 242 of 429

1

The structure labeled as A is the:

Select one of the following:

Lamina
Pedicle.
Transverse process.
Spinous process.

Explanation

Question 243 of 429

1

The structure labeled as C is the:

Select one of the following:

Lamina.
Pedicle.
Transverse process.
Spinous process.

Explanation

Question 244 of 429

1

The structure labeled as F is the:

Select one of the following:

Lamina.
Pedicle.
Transverse process.
Spinous process.

Explanation

Question 245 of 429

1

The main functions of the bone are mechanical, protective and _____.

Select one of the following:

Supportive.
Esthetic.
Metabolic.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 246 of 429

1

Bone _____ consists of two continuous phases, removal of the old bone and replacement with new bone.

Select one of the following:

Modeling
Regeneration
Remodeling
Strengthening

Explanation

Question 247 of 429

1

The typical steps in a clinical evaluation for bone disorders are all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

Clinical evaluation.
Laboratory tests.
Diagnostic imaging tests.
Hip replacement.

Explanation

Question 248 of 429

1

DPA is a method that uses:

Select one of the following:

A dual energy x-ray source.
Two isotopes emitting at two different energies.
One isotope with two photon emissions.
Ultrasound.

Explanation

Question 249 of 429

1

Z-scores in BMD measurements are relative percent values for:

Select one of the following:

Young normal controls.
Young controls.
Age-matched controls.
Age-matched normal controls.

Explanation

Question 250 of 429

1

When performing an x-ray of the forearm in the AP projection, the placement of the hand should be in _____.

Select one of the following:

Pronation
Supination
Oblique.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 251 of 429

1

When analyzing the proximal femur, the ROI of the femoral neck should include the greater trochanter.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 252 of 429

1

A difference in state or an instance of disagreement (i.e. hip is normal and the other has osteopenia) is the definition of:

Select one of the following:

Parallax effect.
BMD disagreement.
Discordance.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 253 of 429

1

The DXA system that employs a rare earth filtered x-ray source utilizes a____ detector.

Select one of the following:

Calibration wheel
Pulse counting
Energy switching system
Current integrating

Explanation

Question 254 of 429

1

What is the proper procedure to follow should a patient suspect the possibility of pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

Do the procedure since the exposure factors are low.
Cancel the procedure until pregnancy has been eliminated.
Do the procedure if the patient signs permission.
Do the procedure Since the pregnancy is in the first trimester.

Explanation

Question 255 of 429

1

The unit of measure that is used with QCT (quantitative computed tomography) is:

Select one of the following:

g/cm2
g/cm3
mg/cm2
mg/cm3

Explanation

Question 256 of 429

1

The above image is a:

Select one of the following:

Pencil-beam DXA unit.
Fan-array DXA unit.
QCT.
QUS

Explanation

Question 257 of 429

1

What is WHO ?

Select one of the following:

World Hunger Organization.
World Health Orders.
World Health Organization.
World Health Ordinance.

Explanation

Question 258 of 429

1

Osteoporosis is characterized by:

Select one of the following:

Low bone mass
Increased bone mass
Decreased fracture risk
Strong, healthy bones

Explanation

Question 259 of 429

1

Osteoporosis is characterized by:

Select one of the following:

Low bone mass.
High bone mass.
High BMD.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 260 of 429

1

The person at the highest risk of developing osteoporosis is a/an:

Select one of the following:

Caucasian menopausal female
African American menopausal female
Caucasian male over the age of 50.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 261 of 429

1

The type of osteoporosis that is responsible for a significant loss of trabecular bone and an increase in spinal fractures is:

Select one of the following:

Primary Osteoporosis Type I.
Primary Osteoporosis Type II.
Secondary Osteoporosis Type I.
Secondary Osteoporosis Type II.

Explanation

Question 262 of 429

1

Trabecular bone is always enclosed within a thin layer of cortical bone.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 263 of 429

1

As we age, the number of_______ decrease.

Select one of the following:

Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts
Osteochrondites
None of the above

Explanation

Question 264 of 429

1

In healthy adults:

Select one of the following:

More bone is created than destroyed.
Fracture risk is high.
Bone is naturally fragile.
Equal amounts of bone is destroyed and replaced.

Explanation

Question 265 of 429

1

Calcium phosphate is the compound that gives bone its strength. The amount of calcium phosphate in the skeleton is referred to as:

Select one of the following:

Bone mineral density.
Bone calcium density.
Osteoporosis indicator.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 266 of 429

1

The proximal femur, forearm, pelvis and scapulae all belong to which skeletal classification?

Select one of the following:

Appendicular
Axial
Central
Weight-bearing

Explanation

Question 267 of 429

1

Loss of bone that occurs in osteoporosis:

Select one of the following:

Affects the entire skeleton.
Only affects the hip and wrist.
Only affects the hip and foot
Only affects the bone of the lower body.

Explanation

Question 268 of 429

1

80% (percent) of the entire skeleton is comprised of

Select one of the following:

Cortical bone tissue.
Trabecular bone tissue.
Flat bone tissue.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 269 of 429

1

The percentage of trabecular bone in the skeletal system is

Select one of the following:

20
30
70
80

Explanation

Question 270 of 429

1

Bone remodeling cells are osteoclasts and osteoblasts. What is the purpose of osteoblasts?

Select one of the following:

Creates new bone.
Removes old bone.
Heals fractures.
Aids in digestion.

Explanation

Question 271 of 429

1

As we age, the number of decreases.

Select one of the following:

Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts
Osteochrondites
None of the above

Explanation

Question 272 of 429

1

Bone loss starts at around the age of or _ and is progressive throughout life.

Select one of the following:

30, 35
35, 40
40, 45
45, 50

Explanation

Question 273 of 429

1

Trabecular bone has a higher metabolic rate than cortical bone. Therefore, rate of change may be greater at sites predominantly trabecular in composition, compared to sites that are predominantly Cortical

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 274 of 429

1

All of the following statements about osteoporosis are true, EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

The disease primarily affects men.
The term literally means porous bone.
In women, the disease is often triggered by declining estrogen levels at the time of menopause.
Osteoporosis has reached epidemic levels, but remains largely undetected.

Explanation

Question 275 of 429

1

More fractures occur in the Vertebrae than anywhere in the skeleton due to the trabecular composition of the vertebrae.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 276 of 429

1

Corticosteroids with regard to osteoporosis.
1. Impedes the body’s ability to build new bone.
2. Blocks the biochemical duties of Vitamin D.
3. Helps to increase the number of osteoblasts.

Select one of the following:

1 & 2
1 & 3
2 & 3
1, 2, & 3

Explanation

Question 277 of 429

1

Which of the following is NOT an established risk factor for osteoporosis?

Select one of the following:

Obesity.
Tobacco use.
Previous fracture.
Family history of osteoporosis.

Explanation

Question 278 of 429

1

About 70% (percent) of Osteoporosis cases may be attributed to hereditary influences.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 279 of 429

1

A thin small boned woman is at serious risk for osteoporosis and an increased risk for fracture because of
1. Less trabecular bone Within the skeleton.
2. Less weight on the skeleton.
3. Less muscle and fat.
4. Producing more bonebuilding estrogen after menopause.

Select one of the following:

1, 2, & 3
2, 3, & 4
1, 2, & 4
1, 2, 3 & 4

Explanation

Question 280 of 429

1

A positive aspect of being overweight with regard to osteoporosis is

Select one of the following:

Having extra weight puts stress on the bones and stimulates bone formation.
Having extra weight lessens the effects of the other lifestyle factors.
Having extra weight increases the bone cells within the body.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 281 of 429

1

Bio-chemical bone marker test involves a test.

Select one of the following:

Urine
Blood
Bone biopsy
DXA

Explanation

Question 282 of 429

1

The best source of Vitamin D is from:

Select one of the following:

Sunlight
Foods.
Vitamin enriched liquids.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 283 of 429

1

The type of Phytoestrogen that looks and acts like estrogen is:

Select one of the following:

Isoflavones
Lignans.
Coumestans.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 284 of 429

1

Estrogen is an anti-resorptive agent that inhibits bone breakdown by the osteoclasts and slows the rate of bone loss.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 285 of 429

1

Alendronate (Fosamax) is an example of .

Select one of the following:

Bisphosphonate.
Synthetic salmon calcitonin.
Anabolic agent.
None of the above

Explanation

Question 286 of 429

1

Miacalcin is a/an:
1. Nasal spray.
2. Synthetic salmon calcitonin.
3. Method of retarding bone loss if started 5 years after menopause.
4. Method of decreasing hot flashes.

Select one of the following:

1, 2, & 3
1, 3, & 4
2, 3, & 4
1, 2, 3 & 4

Explanation

Question 287 of 429

1

The type of exercise that is BEST for strengthening the bones is:

Select one of the following:

Weight training.
Swimming.
Dancing
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 288 of 429

1

The NOF (National Osteoporosis Foundation) recommends that the average adult age 25– 50 should have a calcium intake of each day.

Select one of the following:

1000 mg
1200 mg
1500 mg
2000 mg

Explanation

Question 289 of 429

1

To maintain bone health, exercise should be performed. The most beneficial forms are:
1. Weight bearing exercise
2. Resistance exercise
3.High impact exercise

Select one of the following:

1 & 2
1 & 3
2 & 3
1, 2, & 3

Explanation

Question 290 of 429

1

Examples of antiresorptive agents are estrogen, raloxifene, calcitonin and bisphosphonates

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 291 of 429

1

Fosamax, Actonel, and Boniva are examples of

Select one of the following:

Bisphosphonates.
Synthetic salmon calcitonin.
Anabolic agents.
None of the above

Explanation

Question 292 of 429

1

Which of the following is likely to decrease bone mineral density in premenopausal women?

Select one of the following:

Cigarette smoking.
Membership to weightwatchers.
Nulliparity.
Use of birth control.

Explanation

Question 293 of 429

1

Estrogen is an “antiresorptive agent" that

Select one of the following:

Inhibits bone breakdown by the osteoclasts (bone resorption) and then slows the rate of bone loss.
Inhibits bone breakdown by the osteoblasts (bone resorption) and then slows the rate of bone loss.
Inhibits bone breakdown by the osteoclasts (bone resorption) and then increases the rate of bone loss.
Inhibits bone breakdown by the osteoblasts (bone resorption) and then increases the rate of bone loss.

Explanation

Question 294 of 429

1

To protect the data from being lost on the hard drive due to a disaster, the information should be

Select one of the following:

Backed up, archived, and kept in two different locations.
Left on the hard drive only
Backed up and archived but left near the computer for easy access.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 295 of 429

1

A keyboard, mouse, and tracker ball are examples of

Select one of the following:

Input devices
Output devices
Operating systems.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 296 of 429

1

For each SD (standard deviation) that BMD decreases, the risk of fracture increases by a factor of

Select one of the following:

2
4
6
8

Explanation

Question 297 of 429

1

When performing Bone Densitometry for the purpose of diagnosing osteoporosis or the
predicting fracture risk, the factor that is most imperative is:

Select one of the following:

Accuracy
Precision.
The BMD is not dependent on accuracy or precision.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 298 of 429

1

Precision is the ability of a quantitative test to reproduce the same numerical results with no real biologic change with all the settings in an identical fashion.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 299 of 429

1

A precision study should be performed.

Select one of the following:

Never because it is built into the hardware.
On a regular schedule and with any equipment change such as the monitor
At least once a year on each technologist and with a major equipment change.
At least once or repeated with the addition of a new technologist or a major equipment change

Explanation

Question 300 of 429

1

Which of the following has the greatest attenuation properties?

Select one of the following:

Healthy bone.
Osteoporotic bone.
Fat
Muscle

Explanation

Question 301 of 429

1

Invitro precision (QC) testing should be done on a

Select one of the following:

Patient
Phantom
Both of the above.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 302 of 429

1

New precision error and calculate least significant change (LSC) measurements should be established if
1. Replacement of the DXA unit occurs
2. If a new technologist joins the facility, heshe should do a precision study and those results, if acceptable, should be pooled with the precision data for the facility.
3. Every quarter of the year.

Select one of the following:

1 & 2 only
1 & 3 only
2 & 3 only
1, 2, & 3 only

Explanation

Question 303 of 429

1

The advantage of array or fanbeam Dual-Energy X-ray Absorptionnetry (DXA) unit has when
compared to a pencil-beam Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA) unit is:

Select one of the following:

Reduced scan times and the acquisition of lateral spine scans.
Increased reproducibility and accuracy.
Lower levels of radiation.
Less magnification.

Explanation

Question 304 of 429

1

All have three basic components that include a centerline, usually the mathematical average of all the samples plotted, upper and lower statistical control limits that define the constraints of common cause variations, and performance data plotted over time.

Select one of the following:

Shewart control chart
Sussman control chart
Stewart control chart
All of the above.

Explanation

Question 305 of 429

1

When performing a follow-up BMD examination, which of the following is LEAST likely to affect the validity of the comparison?

Select one of the following:

Two scans on the same scanner.
Differences in the positioning of the anatomy with the -ray beam but identical regions
of interest placement and sizes.
Different scanner manufacturers but similar scanner types i. (pencil-beam-to
pencil-beam).
Differences in region of interest sizes or placements but identical patient positioning.

Explanation

Question 306 of 429

1

Which of the following bone parameters are measured in grams per centimeters squared?

Select one of the following:

BMD – Bone Mineral Density
BMC – Bone Mineral Content
Area
% Young Adult & % Age Match Comparison

Explanation

Question 307 of 429

1

The daily quality assurance test is performed to test the

Select one of the following:

Function of the mechanical operation and calibration of the machine.
Shift or drift in bone mineral density (BMD) values.
BMD calibration of the machine only.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 308 of 429

1

Precision is a measure of repeatability of a measurement and is normally expressed by the coefficient of variation (CW), which is calculated as the standard deviation (SD) of repeated measurements divided by the mean or CW (SDmean) X 100.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 309 of 429

1

When positioning for a DXA follow-up scan of the hip, all of the following could falsely elevate the BMD (bone mineral density) EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

Identical positioning.
The ischium underlying the femoral neck.
Artifacts.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 310 of 429

1

In DXA, two X-ray equations are used, one high energy and the other medium energy, to mathematically separate out the soft tissue from the bone component.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 311 of 429

1

The type of DXA systems) that administers the highest dose to a patient for a lumbar spine and hip scan is the:

Select one of the following:

Fanarray.
Pencil-beam.
Both are equal.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 312 of 429

1

Accuracy is directly affected by the technology.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 313 of 429

1

When a patient has a BMC of 56.45 and the area is 57.60, what is the BMD?

Select one of the following:

0.980
1.020
3251.52
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 314 of 429

1

The calibration of the desired energy peaks during DXA using an energy-switching system is maintained by the use of a ______

Select one of the following:

Calibration wheel
Energized plate
Generator
Rectifier

Explanation

Question 315 of 429

1

The Smaller the %CV (Coefficient of Variation) the better pecision.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 316 of 429

1

A mottled or moth eaten appearance at the edges of the hip during a DXA on a thin patient is

Select one of the following:

The use of a higher than needed speed setting.
The use of a slower than needed speed setting.
Speed setting has no effect on image.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 317 of 429

1

The scintillation detector used in most pencil-beam units detects X-ray by producing light.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 318 of 429

1

BMD (bone mineral density) is reported as grams/cm2 or BMC/area

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 319 of 429

1

Attenuation of the x-ray beam during a DEXA scan is due to:

Select one of the following:

Bone and soft tissue differences.
Soft tissue and body fat differences.
Soft tissue and weight differences.
Patient positioning.

Explanation

Question 320 of 429

1

Quality Control Assurance should be performed.

Select one of the following:

Every week.
Every day before scanning patients.
Every day after scanning patients.
Every time a patient is scanned.

Explanation

Question 321 of 429

1

The purpose of performing a quality assurance test is to:

Select one of the following:

Examine functionality.
Maintain proper warm up procedure.
Determine the daily patient schedule.
Ensure that the previous patients measurements have been archived.

Explanation

Question 322 of 429

1

When performing a follow-up BMD assessment, which of the following is least likely to a affect the validity of the comparison?

Select one of the following:

Different software versions used for the anatomy within the X-ray beam but identical regions of interest placement and sizes.
Differences in the positioning of the anatomy within the X-ray beam but identical regions of interest placement and sizes
Different scanner manufacturers but similar scanner types (pencil-beam to pencil-beam or fan beam or fan-beam to fan-beam for example).
Differences in region of interest size or placement but identical patient positioning.

Explanation

Question 323 of 429

1

Any ionizing radiation has the potential to cause damage to living tissue.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 324 of 429

1

The terms Rad and REM are used interchangeably.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 325 of 429

1

The largest source of manmade ionizing radiation is:

Select one of the following:

Medical -rays.
Concrete.
TV & microwaves.
All of the above.

Explanation

Question 326 of 429

1

The skin and effect doses of radiation in bone density will increase:

Select one of the following:

As the scan speed decreases and scans length increase
As the scan speed increase and scans length decrease
As the scan speed decreases and scans reproducibility increase
As the scan speed increases and scans reproducibility decreases

Explanation

Question 327 of 429

1

Caucasian Women are times more likely to suffer a fracture than men.

Select one of the following:

2
3
5
7

Explanation

Question 328 of 429

1

The technology for DXA testing utilizes:

Select one of the following:

X-ray.
Ultrasound.
Radioisotope.
Magnets.

Explanation

Question 329 of 429

1

The critical variable in the diagnosis of osteoporosis for adults is the:

Select one of the following:

Patients T-Score.
Patients age.
Patients height.
Patients ethnicity.

Explanation

Question 330 of 429

1

The current "Gold Standard" for the measurement of Bone Density is the:

Select one of the following:

DPA
DEXA
QCT
QUS

Explanation

Question 331 of 429

1

The percentage paired with the T-score indicating whether a bone density is above or below the peak bone density is called:

Select one of the following:

Young Adult percentage.
Reference Population percentage.
) Bone Mineral percentage.
Age Match Comparison percentage.

Explanation

Question 332 of 429

1

A YA (Young Adult) percentage reported as 75% is an indicator of probable loss of BMD.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 333 of 429

1

The is a numerical comparison to the average bone density found at peak bone mass,

Select one of the following:

T-score.
Z-score.
Young Adult percentage.
Age Match Comparison percentage.

Explanation

Question 334 of 429

1

The most effective method to aid in the determination of the spines response to anti-osteoporosis drug therapy is:

Select one of the following:

The most effective method to aid in the determination of the spines response to anti-osteoporosis drug therapy is:
DXA.
SXA.
DPA.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 335 of 429

1

DEXA is considered the gold standard for Bone density measurement because of its:

Select one of the following:

Low dose, high precision, and speed.
Low dose, low precision, and speed.
High dose, high precision, and speed.
High dose, low precision, and speed.

Explanation

Question 336 of 429

1

The T-score is reported with _____ decimal places to the right of the decimal point.

Select one of the following:

1
2
3
Whatever the unit utilizes.

Explanation

Question 337 of 429

1

Which of the following term best describes the sum of data values divided by the number of values?

Select one of the following:

Mean.
Standard deviation.
Variance.
The coefficient.

Explanation

Question 338 of 429

1

For each standard deviation of bone density below the young adult mean, the fracture risk generally increases by _____fold.

Select one of the following:

2
4
6
8

Explanation

Question 339 of 429

1

On the T-score scale, the average value is assigned the value of ______.

Select one of the following:

0
50
100
None of the above

Explanation

Question 340 of 429

1

The score indicates how the patient compares to:

Select one of the following:

Their age-matched peers.
The % Young Adult comparison.
The Army General Classification Test (AGCT).
The World population.

Explanation

Question 341 of 429

1

The mean is:

Select one of the following:

The sum of the values divided by the number of values.
A statistical measure of spread or variability.
The root mean square (RMS) deviation of the values from their arithmetic mean.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 342 of 429

1

The above is an example of:

Select one of the following:

Radiograph of a lateral spine.
VFA (Vertebral Fracture Assessment).
DXA PA lumbar spine.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 343 of 429

1

The unit necessary for a Vertebral Fracture Assessment (VFA) to be performed is:

Select one of the following:

Fan- beam densitometry.
Pencil-beam densitometry.
Quantitative computed Tomography (QCT).
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 344 of 429

1

Following menopause without HRT (Hormone Replacement Therapy), areas composed of bone are at greater risk of bone loss than areas of bone.

Select one of the following:

Trabecular, cortical
Cortical, trabecular
Flat, trabecular
Trabecular, flat

Explanation

Question 345 of 429

1

The best-proven treatment to stop the bone loss of menopause is:

Select one of the following:

HRT.
Calcium.
Weight-bearing exercise
Smoking cessation.

Explanation

Question 346 of 429

1

Examples of antiresorptive agents are estrogen, raloxifene, calcitonin and bisphosphonates.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 347 of 429

1

In- vivo precision (QC) testing should be done on a.

Select one of the following:

Patient.
Phantom.
Both of the above.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 348 of 429

1

Which of the following is a contraindication for a BMD examination?
1. Pregnancy.
2. Recent Nuclear Medicine study.
3. Oral contrast for an imaging study.
4. Diabetes medications.

Select one of the following:

1, 2, 3
2, 3, & 4
1, 3, & 4
1, 2, 3, & 4

Explanation

Question 349 of 429

1

Discordance is a term used When there is:

Select one of the following:

A difference in state or an instance of disagreement (i.e. hip is normal and the spine h
osteopenia).
A difference in the methods of measurement of the DXA.
A disagreement of equipment utilized for the measurements of the DXA
An obvious abnormality of the area being scanned.

Explanation

Question 350 of 429

1

The three (3) primary sites where osteoporotic fractures occur are:

Select one of the following:

Vertebrae, hip, and Wrist.
Vertebrae, foot, and wrist.
Hip, wrist, and foot.
Wrist, finger, and toe.

Explanation

Question 351 of 429

1

Studies have demonstrated that osteophytes can cause a statistically significant increase in the BMD of the AP lumbar spine.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 352 of 429

1

When performing a lumbar spine examination with DXA scanner, the hips and knees are flexed

Select one of the following:

Reduce the lordotic curve placing the spine flat against the table.
Reduce the kyphotic curve placing the spine flat against the table.
Increase the lordotic curve placing the spine flat against the table.
Increase the kyphotic curve placing the spine flat against the table.

Explanation

Question 353 of 429

1

Which of the following does NOT affect the measurement of the PA lumbar spine BMD when utilizing DXA?

Select one of the following:

BMI (body mass index).
Aorta calcification.
Compression fractures.
Degenerative spine disease.

Explanation

Question 354 of 429

1

The importance of the elevation of the patients legs during a PA Spine examination is to:

Select one of the following:

Reduce the natural curvature.
Increase the natural curvature.
Patient comfort.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 355 of 429

1

Regions of Interest (ROI) are designed to:

Select one of the following:

Define areas to be analyzed.
Provide an estimate of bone age.
Be the identical for all equipment manufacturers.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 356 of 429

1

The vertebra that is anticipated to have the lowest BMD during a PA spine With a DXA unit is:

Select one of the following:

L1
L2
L3
L4

Explanation

Question 357 of 429

1

The largest increase in the BMD (bone mineral density) usually occurs between:

Select one of the following:

L1 and L2
L2 and L3
L3 and L4
L4 and L5

Explanation

Question 358 of 429

1

Pancreatic calcification will cause an increase in the BMD in the PA lumbar spine.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 359 of 429

1

Renal stones will cause an increase in the BMD in the PA lumbar spine.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 360 of 429

1

Gallstones will cause an increase in the BMD in the PA lumbar spine.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 361 of 429

1

Contrast agents will cause an increase in the BMD in the PA lumbar spine.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 362 of 429

1

Ingested calcium tablets will cause an increase in the BMD in the PA lumbar spine.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 363 of 429

1

Osteophytes will cause an increase in the BMD in the PA lumbar spine.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 364 of 429

1

Aortic calcification will cause an increase in the BMD in the PA lumbar spine.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 365 of 429

1

Fractures will cause an increase in the BMD in the PA lumbar spine.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 366 of 429

1

Any degree of rotation of the spine with a DXA unit will result in a decrease in bone density.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 367 of 429

1

Which vertebra is expected to have the lowest BMD in the PA spine with the use of DXA?

Select one of the following:

L1
L2
L3
L4

Explanation

Question 368 of 429

1

Which of the following will have the LEAST effect on the BMD of the PA spine with DXA?

Select one of the following:

Aortic calcification.
Osteophytes.
Facet sclerosis.
Vertebral end-plate sclerosis.

Explanation

Question 369 of 429

1

Which of the following is labeled incorrectly for the PA spine ?

Select one of the following:

The image on the left.
The image on the right.

Explanation

Question 370 of 429

1

The greatest rates of change in bone density testing are found in the skeletal regions that contain.

Select one of the following:

Lowest % of trabecular bone.
Highest % of trabecular bone.
Lowest % of cortical bone.
Highest % of cortical bone.

Explanation

Question 371 of 429

1

The lumbar vertebra that frequently has the lowest BMC (bone mineral content) and BMD (bone mineral density) is:

Select one of the following:

L1
L2
L3
L4

Explanation

Question 372 of 429

1

What is Wrong with the acquired PA Spine image?

Select one of the following:

Spine is not centered properly
The vertebrae are mislabeled.
No bone edge detection is visible.
The wrong Scan mode was used.

Explanation

Question 373 of 429

1

What is wrong with the acquired PA Spine Image ?

Select one of the following:

Spine is not labeled properly.
A visible artifact is detected.
No edge detection is visible.
The wrong scan mode was used.

Explanation

Question 374 of 429

1

Is this lumbar spine labeled correctly?

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 375 of 429

1

The artifact in the image is:

Select one of the following:

An undigested Calcium tablet.
A stent.
A fracture.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 376 of 429

1

The 4th Lumbar vertebra labeled demonstrates.

Select one of the following:

Paget's disease
Contrast Media
A Fracture
An Artifact

Explanation

Question 377 of 429

1

What is Wrong with the acquired hip image?

Select one of the following:

The Scan did not go far enough medially and part of the femoral head is missing.
The scan did not go far enough laterally and part of the femoral head is missing
due to poor positioning.
The leg was very internally rotated due to poor positioning.
The leg was very externally rotated due to poor positioning.

Explanation

Question 378 of 429

1

What is wrong with the acquired hip image?

Select one of the following:

The hip shows obvious signs of prior fracture and osteosynthesis.
Too much of the femoral shaft is included
Motion.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 379 of 429

1

This type of hip fracture is a:

Select one of the following:

Intertrochanteric fracture.
Femoral neck fracture.
Impacted femoral fracture.
Subcapitulum fracture.

Explanation

Question 380 of 429

1

Which letter represents the femoral neck?

Select one of the following:

A
B
C
D

Explanation

Question 381 of 429

1

Which letter represents the ischium?

Select one of the following:

B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 382 of 429

1

Which letter represents the femoral head?

Select one of the following:

B
C
D
E

Explanation

Question 383 of 429

1

The following image has:

Select one of the following:

A metal artifact.
A fracture.
The ischium underlying the femoral neck.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 384 of 429

1

Mortality rate of 20% or higher has been associated with osteoporotic hip fractures.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 385 of 429

1

When performing a femur study, the femoral neck ROI (region of interest) should be:

Select one of the following:

Perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck.
Parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck.
At a 45 degree angle to the long axis of the femoral neck.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 386 of 429

1

The three (3) primary sites where osteoporotic fractures occur are:

Select one of the following:

Vertebrae, hip, and wrist.
Vertebrae, foot, and wrist.
Hip, wrist, and foot.
Wrist, finger, and toe.

Explanation

Question 387 of 429

1

Regions of Interest (ROI) are designed to:

Select one of the following:

Define areas to be analyzed
Provide an estimate of bone age.
Be the identical for all equipment manufactures
None of the above

Explanation

Question 388 of 429

1

As the hip axis length increases, an increase in the risk of a hip fracture occurs independently of the BMD.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 389 of 429

1

Leg dominance does NOT exert a significant effect on the bone densities in the proximal femur

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 390 of 429

1

A prior fracture of the forearms can increase the BMC (bone mineral content) by as much as 20% (percent):

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 391 of 429

1

The forearm is NOT used to monitor the effects of therapy for osteoporosis because:

Select one of the following:

It is comprised mostly of cortical bone
It is comprised mostly of tracecular bone
It is too small of an area to test
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 392 of 429

1

When performing a BMD on the distal forearm, most manufactures suggest:

Select one of the following:

That the non-dominant arm be evaluated for accurate results.
That the dominant arm be evaluated for accurate results.
That either arm can be evaluated with no change in results.
Both should be evaluated for comparison.

Explanation

Question 393 of 429

1

The dominant forearm is expected to have a higher BMC (bone mineral content) and BMD (bone mineral density) than the non-dominant forearm.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 394 of 429

1

The commonly measured sites such as 33%, the 50% and 10& of the forearm are named based on:

Select one of the following:

The location of the site in relationship to the overall length of the radius.
The location of the site in relationship to the overall length of the ulna.
The percentage of cortical bone at the site.
The percentage of trabecular bone at the site.

Explanation

Question 395 of 429

1

The measurement that must be obtained prior to performing a 33% radius DXA (Dual energy X-ray Absorptiometry) of the forearm is the length of the:

Select one of the following:

Ulna from the styloid process to the olecranon.
Radius from the styloid process to the olecranon.
Ulna from the radial head to styloid process.
Radius from the radial head to styloid process.

Explanation

Question 396 of 429

1

The structure labeled J is the:

Select one of the following:

Radius
Ulna.
Cortical Bone.
Trabecular Bone

Explanation

Question 397 of 429

1

The structure labeled M is the:

Select one of the following:

Radial head
Radial neck
Ulna tuberosity.
None of the above

Explanation

Question 398 of 429

1

BMD measurements With DXA are two dimensional or areal measurements, Whereas QCT measurements are three-dimensional or Volumetric.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 399 of 429

1

The area of the forearm that has the least percentage of trabecular bone is the:

Select one of the following:

33% radius or ulna.
10% radius or ulna.
8-mm radius or ulna
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 400 of 429

1

If the femoral neck is not parallel to the plane of the scan table, the -ray beam enters the neck at an angle that is greater or lesser than 90 degrees.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 401 of 429

1

Improper rotation of the proximal femur results in:

Select one of the following:

A shortening of the length of the neck of the femur and an increase in the mineral content
in the path of the beam equaling an increase in BMD.
A shortening of the length of the neck of the femur and a decrease in the mineral content
in the path of the beam equaling an increase in BMD.
An elongation of the length of the neck of the femur and an increase in the mineral
content in the path of the beam equaling a decrease in BMD.
An elongation of the length of the neck of the femur and a decrease in the mineral
content in the path of the beam equaling a decrease in BMD.

Explanation

Question 402 of 429

1

The 5- or -7 mm sites located in the distal forearm are located:

Select one of the following:

On either bone at the point where the separation distance between the radius and ulna is-or-mm, respectively.
By the distance from the styloid process of the ulna.
In relationship to the overall length of the radius.
In relationship to the overall length of the ulna.

Explanation

Question 403 of 429

1

Excessive internal rotation of the proximal femur will result in the total disappearance of the lesser trochanter.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 404 of 429

1

BMC increases accordingly from_ to __.

Select one of the following:

L1 to L4
L2 to L4
L1 to L3
L4 to L1

Explanation

Question 405 of 429

1

The BMD of 3-4 continuous vertebrae is preferred for the measurement in DXA over the BMD of 2 vertebrae averages.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 406 of 429

1

A plus (+) or minus (-) sign is placed in front of the score value to indicate whether the value lies above or below the average value.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 407 of 429

1

The average value of the T-score is assigned the value of 50. If the actual value were 2 standard deviation below the average, the T-score would be:

Select one of the following:

30
40
60
70

Explanation

Question 408 of 429

1

What two factors have the greatest effect on the failure to achieve an average peak bone
density?
1. Dietary calcium deficiency.
2. Lack of exercise.
3. Early menopause.

Select one of the following:

1 & 2
2 & 3
1 & 3
None of the above

Explanation

Question 409 of 429

1

BMD based diagnostic classification should not be made:
1. If only one single vertebra can be utilized.
2. If only two vertebrae can be utilized.
3. If only three vertebrae can be utilized.

Select one of the following:

1 only
2 only
3 only
1 & 3 only

Explanation

Question 410 of 429

1

Anatomically abnormal vertebrae may be excluded from analysis if:
1. The vertebra appears clearly abnormal.
2. There is more than a 1.0 T-score difference between the vertebra in question and adjacent Vertebrae.
3. There is more than a -2.0 T-score difference between the vertebra in question and adjacent vertebrae.

Select one of the following:

1 & 2
2 & 3
1 & 3
None of the above

Explanation

Question 411 of 429

1

The term osteopenia" means low bone mass” or low bone density".

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 412 of 429

1

The ROI (Region of Interest) labeled A is the:

Select one of the following:

Femoral neck.
Wards Area.
Total femur
Greater trochanter.

Explanation

Question 413 of 429

1

The structure labeled as B is the:

Select one of the following:

Lamina.
Pedicle.
Transverse process.
Spinous process.

Explanation

Question 414 of 429

1

The structure labeled as E is the:

Select one of the following:

Vertebral body
Pedicle.
Transverse process.
Spinous process.

Explanation

Question 415 of 429

1

One of the risk factor associated with osteopenia and osteoporosis is:

Select one of the following:

Positive family history.
Low protein intake.
Obesity.
Early menarche.

Explanation

Question 416 of 429

1

Bone _______ is the process of regulating the size and shape of bone.

Select one of the following:

Modeling
Regeneration
Remodeling
Strengthening

Explanation

Question 417 of 429

1

Z-scores in BMD measurements are relative percent values for:

Select one of the following:

Young normal controls.
Young controls.
Age-matched controls.
Age-matched normal controls.

Explanation

Question 418 of 429

1

When performing an -ray of the forearm in the AP projection, the placement of the hand
should be in _______.

Select one of the following:

Pronation
Supination
Oblique.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 419 of 429

1

When performing an -ray of the forearm in the AP projection, the placement of the hand in
pronation will:

Select one of the following:

Cause the radius to cross over the ulna at the proximal third.
Cause the radius to cross over the ulna at the distal third.
Cause the radius to cross over the ulna at the proximal half.
Cause the radius to cross over the ulna at the distal half.

Explanation

Question 420 of 429

1

When analyzing the proximal femur, the ROI of the femoral neck should include the greater trochanter.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 421 of 429

1

A difference in state or an instance of disagreement (i.e. hip is normal and the other has osteopenia) is the definition of:

Select one of the following:

Parallax effect.
BMD disagreement.
Discordance.
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 422 of 429

1

The DXA system that employs a rare earth filtered -ray source utilizes a detector.

Select one of the following:

Calibration wheel
Pulse counting
Energy switching system
Current integrating

Explanation

Question 423 of 429

1

What does the acronym LSC represent?

Select one of the following:

Least Significant Change
Length of Significant Change
Least Statistical Confidence
None of the above.

Explanation

Question 424 of 429

1

The unit of measure that is used with QCT (quantitative computed tomography) is:

Select one of the following:

g/cm2
g/cm3
mg/cm2
mg/cm3

Explanation

Question 425 of 429

1

Which of the following bone density techniques delivers the largest amount of radiation?

Select one of the following:

QCT
DXA
QUS
Radiogrammetry

Explanation

Question 426 of 429

1

The unit of measure that is used with QCT (quantitative computed tomography) is:

Select one of the following:

g/cm2
g/cm3
mg/cm2
mg/cm3

Explanation

Question 427 of 429

1

Which of the following bone density techniques delivers the largest amount of radiation?

Select one of the following:

QCT
DXA
QUS
Radiogrammetry

Explanation

Question 428 of 429

1

Placing a leg block under the patient
1. Reduces the curve of the lumbar spine.
2. Increases the intervertebral spaces.
3. Helps the pelvis remain parallel to the table.

Select one of the following:

1 & 2
2 & 3
1 & 3
1, 2 & 3

Explanation

Question 429 of 429

1

When performing a DXA of the forearm, the two regions of interest are mainly the Ultradistal and 33% radius.

Select one of the following:

True
False

	Created by John Appleseed9305 over 9 years ago