Patho Quiz 2

Question 1 of 75

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A 19-year-old male college student reports to his primary care provider that he cannot stay awake in class regardless of how much sleep he gets. A drug that stimulates which of the following areas would best treat his problem?

Select one of the following:

  • Reticular activating system

  • Cerebellum

  • Hypothalamus

  • Corpora quadrigemina

Question 2 of 75

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A 32-year-old female suffers from severe brain damage following a motor vehicle accident. After rehabilitation she notices that her thought processes and goal-oriented behavior are impaired. Which area does the nurse suspect is damaged?

Select one of the following:

  • Thalamus

  • Limbic

  • Occipital

  • Prefrontal

Question 3 of 75

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A neurologist is teaching about the location of the primary visual cortex in the brain. Which area is the neurologist discussing?

Select one of the following:

  • Parietal lobe

  • Frontal lobe

  • Occipital lobe

  • Temporal lobe

Question 4 of 75

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A nurse is preparing to teach about functions to maintain homeostasis and instinctive behavioral patterns. Which area of the brain is the nurse discussing?

Select one of the following:

  • Cerebellum

  • Medulla

  • Thalamus

  • Hypothalamus

Question 5 of 75

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A student nurse asks the nurse what controls reflex activities concerned with heart rate and blood pressure. What is the nurse’s best response? These reflex activities are controlled by the:

Select one of the following:

  • Pons

  • Cerebrum

  • Medulla oblongata

  • Midbrain

Question 6 of 75

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What term should the nurse use when talking about the outermost membrane surrounding the brain?

Select one of the following:

  • Dura mater

  • Pia mater

  • Falx cerebri

  • Arachnoid mater

Question 7 of 75

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The _____ ensures collateral blood flow from blood vessels supplying the brain.

Select one of the following:

  • Carotid arteries

  • Circle of Willis

  • Basal artery

  • Vertebral arteries

Question 8 of 75

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An aide asks a nurse what neurotransmitters interact with. Which response is the nurse’s best answer? Neurotransmitters interact with the postsynaptic membrane by binding to a:

Select one of the following:

  • Receptor

  • Nissl body

  • Neurofibril

  • Glial cell

Question 9 of 75

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A patient asks the nurse where nociceptors can be found. How should the nurse respond? One location in which nociceptors can be found is the:

Select one of the following:

  • Hypothalamus

  • Efferent pathways

  • Spinal cord

  • Skin

Question 10 of 75

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Which finding indicates the patient is having complications from heat stroke?

Select one of the following:

  • Cerebral edema and degeneration of the CNS

  • Alterations in calcium uptake

  • Mild elevation of core body temperatures

  • Spasmodic cramping in the abdomen and extremities

Question 11 of 75

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A 50-year-old diabetic patient experiences visual disturbances and decides to visit his primary care provider. After examination, the primary care provider tells the patient that the cells that allow him to see are degenerated. Which of the following structures is most likely damaged?

Select one of the following:

  • Lens

  • Pupil

  • Retina

  • Cornea

Question 12 of 75

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When a neurologist explains how pricking a finger with a needle provides minimal pain while cutting the finger with a knife provides more severe pain, what theory is being described?

Select one of the following:

  • Gate control theory

  • Specificity theory

  • Neuromodulation

  • Neuromatrix theory

Question 13 of 75

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A patient has increased intraocular pressure. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart?

Select one of the following:

  • Glaucoma

  • Diplopia

  • Nystagmus

  • Ocular degeneration

Question 14 of 75

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Which group of people is most prone to red-green color blindness?

Select one of the following:

  • Males

  • Elderly persons

  • Females

  • Children

Question 15 of 75

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The nurse would expect the patient with an alteration in proprioception to experience vertigo which is manifested by:

Select one of the following:

  • Loss of feeling in the lips

  • Headache

  • Light sensitivity

  • A sensation that the room is spinning

Question 16 of 75

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When a patient has a peculiar sensation that immediately precedes a seizure, what term should the nurse use to describe this sensation?

Select one of the following:

  • Spasm

  • Aura

  • Prodroma

  • Agnosia

Question 17 of 75

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A patient has memory loss of events that occurred before a head injury. What cognitive disorder does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?

Select one of the following:

  • Selective memory deficit

  • Executive memory deficit

  • Anterograde amnesia

  • Retrograde amnesia

Question 18 of 75

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A 20-year-old male suffers a severe closed head injury in a motor vehicle accident. He remains in a vegetative state (VS) 1 month after the accident. Which of the following structures is most likely keeping him in a vegetative state?

Select one of the following:

  • Cerebellum

  • Brainstem

  • Spinal cord

  • Cerebral cortex

Question 19 of 75

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The patient is experiencing an increase in intracranial pressure. This increase results in:

Select one of the following:

  • Ventricular swelling

  • Expansion of the cranial vault

  • Intracranial hypotension

  • Brain tissue hypoxia

Question 20 of 75

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A 20-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER) for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. A spinal cord injury is suspected. What two regions should the nurse assess as they are most likely to be damaged?

Select one of the following:

  • Cervical and thoracic regions

  • Thoracic and lumbar regions

  • Cervical and lumbar regions

  • Lumbar and sacral regions

Question 21 of 75

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A 33-year-old male is brought to the ER for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. An MRI reveals an injury of the cervical cord. Cord swelling in this region may be life threatening because:

Select one of the following:

  • Bladder emptying will not occur.

  • Diaphragm function may be impaired.

  • Reflexes will be disrupted.

  • Increased ICP may occur.

Question 22 of 75

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Six weeks ago a female patient suffered a T6 spinal cord injury. She then developed a blood pressure of 200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia. What does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?

Select one of the following:

  • Extreme spinal shock

  • Autonomic hyperreflexia

  • Acute anxiety

  • Parasympathetic areflexia

Question 23 of 75

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A 72-year-old male demonstrates left-sided weakness of upper and lower extremities. The symptoms lasted 4 hours and resolved with no evidence of infarction. The patient most likely experienced a(n):

Select one of the following:

  • Stroke in evolution

  • Cerebral hemorrhage

  • Transient ischemic attack

  • Arteriovenous malformation

Question 24 of 75

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A 25-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, and decreased consciousness. She was previously treated for sinusitis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Nonpurulent meningitis

  • Fungal meningitis

  • Aseptic meningitis

  • Bacterial meningitis

Question 25 of 75

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A 23-year-old female begins having problems with tiredness, weakness, and visual changes. Her diagnosis is multiple sclerosis (MS). What is occurring in the patient’s body?

Select one of the following:

  • Reduced amounts of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

  • Depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system (CNS)

  • Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS

  • The development of neurofibril webs in the CNS

Question 26 of 75

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A patient is admitted with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which classic assessment findings will support the diagnosis of ALS?

Select one of the following:

  • Severe paresthesias

  • Progressive dementia

  • Muscle weakness and atrophy

  • Autonomic dysfunctions

Question 27 of 75

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Which statement by a patient indicates teaching was successful regarding myasthenia gravis? Myasthenia gravis results from:

Select one of the following:

  • Viral infection of skeletal muscle

  • Atrophy of motor neurons in the spinal cord

  • Autoimmune injury at the neuromuscular junction

  • Demyelination of skeletal motor neurons

Question 28 of 75

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As a portion of the assessment of the patient with meningitis, the health care provider flexes the patient’s neck to the chest. The patient responds with flexion of the legs and thighs. The name for this response is:

Select one of the following:

  • Decerebrate posturing

  • Decorticate posturing

  • Kernig’s sign

  • Brudzinski’s sign

Question 29 of 75

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The patient reports generalized muscle weakness. The health care provider orders administration of the medication edrophonium chloride (Tensilon). This medication is used in the diagnosis of:

Select one of the following:

  • Autonomic hyperreflexia

  • Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

  • Myasthenia gravis

  • MS

Question 30 of 75

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A 15-year-old male was struck by a motor vehicle and suffered a traumatic brain injury. Paramedics found him unconscious at the scene of the accident. During the ambulance ride, he regained consciousness and was able to maintain a conversation with the medical staff. Upon arrival to hospital, he was alert and oriented. Physical exam reveals confusion and impaired responsiveness. What is the probable nature of his brain injury based on this history?

Select one of the following:

  • Subdural hematoma

  • Mild diffuse axonal injury

  • Extradural (epidural) hematoma

  • Mild concussion

Question 31 of 75

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Which of the following diseases does the nurse screen for in all newborns?

Select one of the following:

  • Tay-Sachs disease

  • Epilepsy

  • Pica

  • Phenylketonuria (PKU)

Question 32 of 75

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A child presents to his primary care provider with disorientation, delirium, aggressiveness, and stupor. His parents report that he was recently ill with an upper respiratory infection, which they treated with aspirin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Epilepsy

  • Reye syndrome

  • PKU

  • Tay-Sachs

Question 33 of 75

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What nutrient should the nurse encourage a woman in the early stages of pregnancy to consume to prevent neural tube defects?

Select one of the following:

  • Folic acid

  • Iron

  • Protein

  • Vitamin D

Question 34 of 75

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A newborn child has a herniation of brain and meninges through a defect in the occipital area of the skull. What will the pediatrician call this condition?

Select one of the following:

  • Myelomeningocele

  • Encephalocele

  • Meningocele

  • Craniosynostosis

Question 35 of 75

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A 50-year-old male patient is deficient in ADH production. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to find?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased arterial vasoconstriction

  • Increased urine osmolality

  • Increased blood volume

  • Increased urine volume

Question 36 of 75

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A 70-year-old female has brittle bones secondary to osteoporosis. Her primary care provider prescribes calcitonin to:

Select one of the following:

  • Inhibit calcium resorption from bones

  • Stimulate osteoclastic activity

  • Promote thyroid hormone release

  • Activate vitamin D

Question 37 of 75

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A nurse is reviewing lab results. Which of the following lab results would slow down the rate of parathyroid hormone secretion?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased serum calcium levels

  • Decreased levels of TSH

  • Increased levels of TSH

  • Decreased serum calcium levels

Question 38 of 75

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An endocrinologist is teaching about aldosterone secretion. Which information should the endocrinologist include? Aldosterone secretion is regulated by:

Select one of the following:

  • ACTH feedback

  • Positive feedback

  • The renin-angiotension system

  • The sympathetic nervous system

Question 39 of 75

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When catecholamines are released in a patient, what should the nurse assess for?

Select one of the following:

  • Hypotension

  • Nutrient absorption

  • Fluid retention

  • Hyperglycemia

Question 40 of 75

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When a patient asks about target cell receptors, which is the nurse’s best response? Target cell receptors for most water-soluble hormones are located in the:

Select one of the following:

  • Endoplasmic reticulum

  • Cell membrane

  • Nucleus

  • Cytosol

Question 41 of 75

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A nurse is discussing endocrine system dysfunction with a patient. Which statement indicates the patient understood? Endocrine system dysfunction can result from hyposecretion, hypersecretion, or from:

Select one of the following:

  • Increased synthesis of second messengers

  • Extracellular electrolyte alterations

  • Abnormal receptor activity

  • Abnormal hormone levels

Question 42 of 75

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What common neurologic disturbances should the nurse assess for in a patient with a pituitary adenoma?

Select one of the following:

  • Confused states

  • Breathing abnormalities

  • Visual disturbances

  • Coma

Question 43 of 75

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A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find before treatment?

Select one of the following:

  • Slow heart rate, rash

  • Constipation, confusion

  • Skin hot and moist, rapid heart rate

  • Weight gain, cold intolerance

Question 44 of 75

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A 22-year-old female has a low level of TSH. What condition does the nurse expect the patient is experiencing?

Select one of the following:

  • Primary hypothyroidism

  • Autoimmune hypothyroidism

  • Secondary hypothyroidism

  • Atypical hypothyroidism

Question 45 of 75

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What problem should the nurse assess for in a patient with chronic hyperparathyroidism?

Select one of the following:

  • Hyponatremia

  • Vitamin D malabsorption

  • Osteoporosis and pathologic fractures

  • Seizure disorders

Question 46 of 75

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A 45-year-old female with Graves disease underwent surgical removal of her thyroid gland. During the postoperative period, her serum calcium was low. The most probable reason for her low serum calcium is:

Select one of the following:

  • Myxedema secondary to surgery

  • Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury to the parathyroid glands

  • Hypothyroidism resulting from lack of thyroid replacement

  • Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves disease

Question 47 of 75

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A 12-year-old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. When the parents ask what causes this, what is the nurse’s best response?

Select one of the following:

  • A familial, autosomal dominant gene defect

  • Obesity and lack of exercise

  • Hyperglycemia from eating too many sweets

  • Immune destruction of the pancreas

Question 48 of 75

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A nurse is reviewing lab results for glycosylated hemoglobin (hemoglobin A1c) levels. A nurse recalls the purpose of this test is to:

Select one of the following:

  • Monitor long-term serum glucose control.

  • Measure fasting glucose levels.

  • Detect acute complications of diabetes.

  • Check for hyperlipidemia.

Question 49 of 75

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A 19-year-old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with the following lab values: serum glucose 500 mg/dl (high), urine glucose and ketones 4+ (high), and arterial pH 7.20 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the “flu” for a week. Which of the following statements best explains her acidotic state?

Select one of the following:

  • Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation.

  • Low serum insulin promotes lipid storage and a corresponding release of ketones.

  • Increased insulin levels promote protein breakdown and ketone formation.

  • Her uncontrolled diabetes has led to renal failure.

Question 50 of 75

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A 55-year-old female is admitted to the medical unit for complications of long-term, poorly controlled type 2 DM. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in addition to elevated glucose?

Select one of the following:

  • Elevated liver enzymes

  • Anemia

  • Metabolic alkalosis

  • Atherosclerosis

Question 51 of 75

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A nurse checks lab results as both Cushing syndrome and Addison disease can manifest with elevated levels of:

Select one of the following:

  • Aldosterone

  • Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

  • ADH

  • Cortisol

Question 52 of 75

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A 30-year-old female presents with hypertension, headache, tachycardia, impaired glucose tolerance, and weight loss. Which of the following diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart?

Select one of the following:

  • Conn disease

  • Cushing disease

  • Pheochromocytoma

  • Addison disease

Question 53 of 75

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A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate?

Select one of the following:

  • Dilutional hyponatremia

  • Cardiac arrest from hyperkalemia

  • Dehydration from polyuria

  • Metabolic acidosis

Question 54 of 75

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Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations?

Select one of the following:

  • Thirst

  • Vomiting and abdominal cramping

  • Polyuria

  • Edema

Question 55 of 75

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A 50-year-old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst. He was given exogenous ADH. For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective?

Select one of the following:

  • Psychogenic diabetes insipidus

  • Neurogenic diabetes insipidus

  • Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

  • SIADH

Question 56 of 75

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During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes. Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:

Select one of the following:

  • Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.

  • Microorganisms are accumulating.

  • The nodes are not functioning properly.

  • Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.

Question 57 of 75

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A nurse is discussing a cell that can differentiate into any tissue type. Which term is the nurse describing?

Select one of the following:

  • Pluripotent

  • Hematopoietic

  • Blastocyst

  • Progenitor

Question 58 of 75

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Which condition will cause a patient to secrete erythropoietin?

Select one of the following:

  • Inflammation

  • Hypoxia (oxygen deficient)

  • Hypercarbia

  • Low blood pressure

Question 59 of 75

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After erythrocytes have circulated for about 120 days, they are removed by macrophages, which are mainly in the:

Select one of the following:

  • Spleen

  • Liver

  • Appendix

  • Bone marrow

Question 60 of 75

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A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?

Select one of the following:

  • Fibrinogen

  • Thrombin

  • Fibrin

  • Collagen

Question 61 of 75

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When a staff member asks how erythrocytes can carry oxygen, which of the following properties should the nurse describe that allow erythrocytes to function as gas carriers? (Select all that apply.)

Select one of the following:

  • Biconcavity
    Reversible deformability

  • Presence of many mitochondria
    Undergoes mitotic division
    Presence of a nucleus

Question 62 of 75

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Which of the following individuals should the nurse assess first for a vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?

Select one of the following:

  • 3-year-old female who is a fussy eater

  • 26-year-old female in the second trimester of her first pregnancy

  • 64-year-old male with a history of duodenal ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding

  • 47-year-old male who had a gastrectomy procedure (removal of the stomach)

Question 63 of 75

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A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding. A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:

Select one of the following:

  • Bone marrow failure

  • Folate deficiency

  • Iron deficiency

  • Vitamin B12 deficiency

Question 64 of 75

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A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?

Select one of the following:

  • Hemolytic anemia

  • Posthemorrhagic anemia

  • Iron deficiency anemia

  • Aplastic anemia

Question 65 of 75

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A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia. When he asks what the most likely cause of this disease is, what is the nurse’s best response?

Select one of the following:

  • Misshapen erythrocytes with low hemoglobin

  • Premature erythrocyte destruction and erythropoietin deficiency

  • Decreased levels of tissue iron with megaloblastic erythrocytes

  • Ineffective iron uptake and abnormal hemoglobin production

Question 66 of 75

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A 70-year-old male is brought to the emergency department, where he dies shortly thereafter. Autopsy reveals polycythemia vera (PV). His death was most likely the result of:

Select one of the following:

  • Acute renal failure

  • Sepsis

  • Acute leukemia

  • Cerebral thrombosis

Question 67 of 75

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A 30-year-old female presents with hematuria, menorrhagia, and bleeding gums. She is diagnosed with immune thrombocytic purpura (ITP). A nurse realizes the most likely cause is:

Select one of the following:

  • An immune response to hypersplenism

  • T cell injury to megakaryocytes

  • Antibody destruction of platelets

  • Allergy-induced platelet lysis

Question 68 of 75

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A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:

Select one of the following:

  • High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.

  • Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.

  • Clotting factors are produced in the liver.

  • The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.

Question 69 of 75

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A 40-year-old female develops disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Upon obtaining the history, which finding is the most likely cause of this condition?

Select one of the following:

  • Sepsis

  • Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

  • Snake bite

  • Blood transfusion

Question 70 of 75

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A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following assessment findings would he most likely demonstrate? (Select all that apply.)

Select one of the following:

  • Lymph node enlargement.
    Fever and sore throat
    Enlargement of liver and spleen
    Fatigue

  • Rash on the trunk and extremities

Question 71 of 75

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A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. A blood smear reveals severely sickled cells. A nurse recalls the sickled cells will be removed from circulation mostly by the:

Select one of the following:

  • Pancreas

  • Kidney

  • Liver

  • Spleen

Question 72 of 75

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A geneticist is discussing thalassemias. Which information should be included? The alpha and beta thalassemias are inherited in an _____ fashion.

Select one of the following:

  • X-linked recessive

  • Autosomal dominant

  • Autosomal recessive

  • X-linked dominant

Question 73 of 75

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The mother of a 3-year-old child speaks to the pediatrician because the child took several hours to stop bleeding following a minor scrape. Testing reveals that the child has hemophilia A resulting from a deficiency in factor:

Select one of the following:

  • VIII

  • IX

  • XIII

  • XII

Question 74 of 75

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Which mother is at most risk for a maternal-fetal blood incompatibility?

Select one of the following:

  • Mother is Rh-negative, and fetus is Rh-positive.

  • Mother has type A blood, and fetus has type O blood.

  • Mother has type AB, blood and fetus has type B blood.

  • Mother is Rh-positive, and fetus is Rh-negative.

Question 75 of 75

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A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. When the parents ask who is responsible for this disease, what is the nurse’s best response? He most likely inherited it from:

Select one of the following:

  • His father

  • None of the above; sickle cell disease is not clearly an inherited disease.

  • His mother

  • Both his mother and father

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Patho Quiz 2

Crystal Thorn
Quiz by , created about 2 years ago

Quiz on Patho Quiz 2, created by Crystal Thorn on 02/12/2014.

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