Semester 1 NMS Quiz

Question 1 of 57

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In most cases in the sympathetic nervous system, Acetylcholine is the pre-ganglionic neurotransmitter and Noradrenaline is the post-ganglionic neurotransmitter.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 2 of 57

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Pre-ganglionic neurones are longer in the sympathetic nervous system when compared to the parasympathetic nervous system.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 3 of 57

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What unique features does the sympathetic nervous system contain that is absent in the parasympathetic nervous system?

Select one of the following:

  • Sympathetic chain

  • Unmyelinated neurones

  • Plexuses

Question 4 of 57

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The motor components of the somatic nervous system contain pre and post ganglionic components after exit from the spinal cord.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 5 of 57

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Acetylcholine causes the adrenal medulla to secrete what substance? What is this type of interaction known as?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Adrenaline

  • VIP

  • Nitric Oxide

  • Neuro-endocrine interface

  • Endocrine interface

  • Autonomic interface

Question 6 of 57

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What is the main neurotransmitter at post-ganglionic sympathetic fibres?

Select one of the following:

  • Glutamate

  • Noradrenaline

  • Acetylcholine

  • VIP

Question 7 of 57

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Anticholinesterases are useful in treating myasthenia gravis. Why?

Select one of the following:

  • They prolong the time that acetylcholine is present in the synaptic cleft and increases its number, thereby allowing acetylcholine to outcompete with antibodies for the binding site and allow normal contractions to occur, relieving the symptoms of M.G.

  • They prolong the time that noradrenaline is present in the synaptic cleft and increases its number, thereby allowing noradrenaline to outcompete with antibodies for the binding site and allow normal contractions to occur, relieving the symptoms of M.G.

  • They decrease the time that acetylcholine is present in the synaptic cleft and increases its number, thereby allowing acetylcholine to outcompete with antibodies for the binding site and allow normal contractions to occur, relieving the symptoms of M.G.

Question 8 of 57

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Which are examples of non-depolarising blockers?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tubocurarine

  • Pancuronium

  • Suxamethonium

  • Hexamethonium

Question 9 of 57

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What is an example of a depolarising neuromuscular blocker?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Suxamethonium

  • Tubocurarine

  • Pancuronium

  • Hexamethonium

Question 10 of 57

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What is an example of a non-competitive antagonist of nicotinic receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hexamethonium

  • Suxamethonium

  • Tubocurarine

  • Pancuronium

Question 11 of 57

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What is an example of a muscarinic receptor antagonist?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Atropine

  • Tropicamide

  • Acetylcholine

  • Pilocarpine

Question 12 of 57

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The myenteric plexus is located between which two layers of the GI tract?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Circular muscle

  • Longitudinal muscle

  • Submucosa

  • Mucosa

Question 13 of 57

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The submucosal plexus is located between which two layers?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Submucosa

  • Circular muscle

  • Longitudinal muscle

  • Mucosa

Question 14 of 57

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The myenteric plexus is present throughout the GI tract

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 15 of 57

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In general, the submucosal plexus controls muscular activity.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 16 of 57

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What is the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin?

Select one of the following:

  • Proteases cleave the SNARE complex that mediates exocytosis of neurotransmitter

  • Competitive antagonist at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

  • Non-competitive antagonist at the nicotonic acetylcholine receptor

  • Depolarising blocker of the neuromuscular junction

Question 17 of 57

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Anticholinesterases exhibit suxamethonium-like properties when used in excess.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 18 of 57

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Why does calcium aid in synaptic transmission?

Select one of the following:

  • Calcium causes a conformational change in synaptotagmin which causes acetylcholine to fuse with the presynaptic membrane.

  • Calcium causes a conformational change in ryanodine which causes acetylcholine to fuse with the presynaptic membrane.

Question 19 of 57

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If the end plate potential in a muscle cell exceeds threshold, what happens?

Select one of the following:

  • Muscle contraction

  • Action potential produced

  • Release of acetylcholine by exocytosis

Question 20 of 57

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When an action potential travels along a T-tubule to a muscle triad, what series of events occur?

Select one of the following:

  • Action potential causes conformational shape change of the DHP receptor. This receptor then causes unplugging of ryanodine from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes mass efflux of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.

  • Action potential causes conformational shape change of the DHP receptor. This receptor then causes mass efflux of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.

  • Action potential causes conformational shape change of the DNP receptor. This receptor then causes unplugging of synaptotagmin from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes mass efflux of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.

  • Action potential causes conformational shape change of the DHP receptor. This receptor then causes unplugging of ryanodine from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes mass efflux of sodium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.

Question 21 of 57

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What regulatory proteins does actin have associated with it?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tropomyosin

  • Troponin

  • Tropocollagen

  • Tropoelastin

Question 22 of 57

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What is the role of calcium in muscle fibres?

Select one or more of the following:

  • To bind to troponin, causing a conformational change which exposes myosin head binding sites.

  • To bind to tropomyosin, causing a conformational change which exposes myosin head binding sites.

  • To bind to tropomyosin, causing a conformational change which exposes actin head binding sites.

  • To bind to troponin, causing a conformational change which exposes actin head binding sites.

Question 23 of 57

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Which is longer, the action potential or muscle contraction?

Select one of the following:

  • Action potential

  • Muscle contraction

Question 24 of 57

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What are the 3 energy systems of muscle contraction?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Phosphocreatine

  • Lactic acid

  • Oxidative phosphorylation

  • Substrate level phosphorylation

  • Hyaluronic acid

  • Glucuronic acid

Question 25 of 57

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Muscle contraction occurs in which order?

Select one of the following:

  • Cross-bridge attachment -> Power stroke, hydrolysing ATP via the ATPase capacity of the myosin head -> binding of ATP which breaks cross-bridge attachment -> hydrolysis of ATP which recocks the myosin head to its original position -> repeat

  • Cross-bridge attachment -> Power stroke, hydrolysing GTP via the GTPase capacity of the myosin head -> binding of GTP which breaks cross-bridge attachment -> hydrolysis of GTP which recocks the myosin head to its original position -> repeat

  • Cross-bridge detachment-> Power stroke, hydrolysing ATP via the ATPase capacity of the myosin head -> binding of ATP which causes cross-bridge attachment -> hydrolysis of ATP which recocks the myosin head to its original position -> repeat

Question 26 of 57

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Do slow twitch fibres or fast twitch fibres produce greater force?

Select one of the following:

  • Slow twitch

  • Fast twitch

Question 27 of 57

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Which type of muscle fibre generally fatigues quicker?

Select one of the following:

  • Fast twitch

  • Slow twitch

Question 28 of 57

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The spinal cord exists from?

Select one of the following:

  • C1 -> L2

  • C1 -> L1

  • C1 -> T10

  • C1 -> S3

Question 29 of 57

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How many spinal nerves are there, and how many are there for each section of the spinal cord?

Select one of the following:

  • 31 - 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair

  • 31 - 6 cervical, 12 thoracic, 6 lumbar, 6 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair

  • 30 - 7 cervical, 14 thoracic, 3 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair

  • 27 - 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair

Question 30 of 57

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Why do the first 7 cervical nerves begin above the cervical vertebrae but the thoracic spinal nerves begin below the thoracic sections of the spinal cord?

Select one of the following:

  • There are 8 cervical spinal nerves but only 7 cervical vertebrae therefore the thoracic spinal nerves are 'displaced' and run below each thoracic vertebrae piece.

  • There are 6 cervical spinal nerves and 7 cervical vertebrae so the thoracic spinal nerves are 'displaced' and run below each thoracic vertebrae piece.

Question 31 of 57

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The meninges of the nervous system run in what order from inside to outside?

Select one of the following:

  • PAD

  • DAP

  • PDA

  • DPA

Question 32 of 57

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What is a dermatome?

Select one of the following:

  • An area of skin with single spinal nerve innervation

  • An area of skin with dual spinal nerve innervation

  • An area of muscle with single spinal nerve innervation

  • An area of muscle with dual spinal nerve innervation

Question 33 of 57

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What is a myotome?

Select one of the following:

  • An area of muscle with single spinal nerve innervation

  • An area of muscle with dual spinal nerve innervation

  • An area of skin with single spinal nerve innervation

  • An area of skin with dual spinal nerve innervation

Question 34 of 57

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Conditions such as shingles do not show the usefulness of dermatomes.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 35 of 57

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Sulci are the depressions in the brain structure.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 36 of 57

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Gyri are the ridges in the brain.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 37 of 57

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Upper motor neurones are found where?

Select one of the following:

  • Brain

  • Spinal cord

Question 38 of 57

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In the context of motor units, a graded force describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • The amount of motor unit recruitment needed. If it is a large force then fast-twitch elements are recruited. If it is a small force then slow-twitch elements are recruited.

  • The amount of motor unit recruitment needed. If it is a small force then fast-twitch elements are recruited. If it is a large force then slow-twitch elements are recruited.

Question 39 of 57

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Recruitment of motor units describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • The number of motor units firing, specifically an increase.

  • The frequency of motor units firing, specifically an increase.

  • The number of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.

  • The frequency of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.

Question 40 of 57

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Rate coding describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • The frequency of motor units firing, specifically an increase.

  • The number of motor units firing, specifically an increase.

  • The frequency of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.

  • The number of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.

Question 41 of 57

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Contractile force is proportional to what?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cross-bridge number

  • Force produced by cross-bridges

  • Velocity produced by cross-bridges

  • Number of ATP molecules

  • Force produced by Troponin conformation change

  • Force produced by Tropomyosin conformation change

Question 42 of 57

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Slow-twitch fibres produce less force but over a longer period of time. Fast-twitch fibres produce more force but over a shorter period of time.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 43 of 57

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Neurogenic and Myopathic motor unit diseases have what common symptoms?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Weakness

  • Wasting

  • Muscle mass increase

  • Absence of fasciculations

Question 44 of 57

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ALS affects what part of the motor neuron?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cell body

  • Axon

Question 45 of 57

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Peripheral neuropathies typically affect which part of the motor neuron?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cell body

  • Axon

Question 46 of 57

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What is responsible for DMD?

Select one of the following:

  • A fault in dystrophin - a vital part of a protein complex that anchors the cytoskeleton of a muscle fibre to the ECM through the cell membrane

  • A fault in collagen - a vital part of a protein complex that anchors the cytoskeleton of a muscle fibre to the ECM through the cell membrane

  • A fault in elastin - a vital part of a protein complex that anchors the cytoskeleton of a muscle fibre to the ECM through the cell membrane

Question 47 of 57

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What plasma indicator shows signs of DMD muscle damage?

Select one of the following:

  • High creatine kinase levels in the serum - should be only intracellular.

  • Low creatine kinase levels in the serum - should be only intravascular.

  • High plasma protein binding

  • Low plasma protein binding

Question 48 of 57

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Dermatomyositis is a condition characterised by what?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Inflammation and visible rashes, with atrophy of muscle fibres.

  • Inflammation and visible rashes, with hypertrophy of muscle fibres.

Question 49 of 57

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Efficacy of a drug means?

Select one of the following:

  • The ability of a drug to produce a response

  • The likelihood of a drug binding to a receptor

  • The mechanism by which the drug acts

  • The permeability of the drug to the plasma membrane

Question 50 of 57

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What is meant by an inverse agonist?

Select one of the following:

  • A drug that decreases activity of the agonist and produces the opposite response to the agonist.

  • A drug that produces the same response as the agonist but with higher efficacy.

Question 51 of 57

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What is meant by allosteric inhibition? What is an example and it's subsequent mechanism?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Binding of a drug to a site other than the agonist binding site.

  • Binding of a drug to the same site as the agonist binding site.

  • Benzodiazepam - binds to an alternative site on GABA receptors. This causes a conformational change and creates higher affinity for GABA to bind to the receptor. This therefore increases the inhibitory effect that GABA provides, making users feel drowsy.

  • Benzodiazepam - binds to an alternative site on GABA receptors. This causes a conformational change and creates lower affinity for GABA to bind to the receptor. This therefore decreases the inhibitory effect that GABA provides, making users feel more alert.

Question 52 of 57

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The body can become desensitised to drugs. For example intake of tobacco which contains nicotine can cause inactivation of nAchR in very high doses.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 53 of 57

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RMP is primarily maintained at -65mV to -70mV by?

Select one of the following:

  • The permeability of the membrane to potassium ions

  • Na+/K+ ATPase

  • The permeability of the membrane to sodium ions

  • None of the options

Question 54 of 57

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An action potential can be initiated in the absolute refractory period.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 55 of 57

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An action potential can be initiated in the relative refractory period.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 56 of 57

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Myelinated axons conduct action potentials faster.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 57 of 57

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The 'feet' of motor proteins possess what property that allows them to 'walk' along the cytoskeleton?

Select one of the following:

  • ATPase activity

  • GTPase activity

  • ATP supply

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Semester 1 NMS Quiz

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Quiz by , created almost 2 years ago

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Created by jp950 almost 2 years ago
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