V2Set2

Question 1 of 100

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A requirement for military explosives is that raw materials must be

Select one of the following:

  • cheap

  • nonhygroscopic

  • common to America

  • vital to the war effort

Question 2 of 100

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Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce

Select one of the following:

  • pressure

  • energy

  • vapors

  • heat

Question 3 of 100

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What property of an explosive do we refer to by the word “hygroscopicity?”

Select one of the following:

  • Moisture-absorbing property

  • Tendency to produce sensitive metallic salts.

  • Ability of an explosive to be cast into a mold or form

  • Ability to liberate gaseous products during detonation.

Question 4 of 100

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Upon what factor does the rate of detonation depend?

Select one of the following:

  • Degree of confinement and loading density

  • Degree of confinement and volatility

  • Volatility and loading density

  • Loading density only

Question 5 of 100

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What are the basic components of an explosive train?

Select one of the following:

  • Fuze, detonator, booster, and bursting charge.

  • Detonator, booster, and a bursting charge.

  • Fuze, booster, and a bursting charge.

  • Detonator and booster only

Question 6 of 100

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What does an explosive train booster do?

Select one of the following:

  • Detonates the fuze

  • Detonates the main charge

  • Transmits energy from one detonating component to the next

  • Controls the delay in the functioning of the fuze explosive train

Question 7 of 100

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How can you achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb?

Select one of the following:

  • Use a time action high-explosive (HE) train

  • With a super quick action HE train

  • With a delay action HE train

  • Use a nondelay delay

Question 8 of 100

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What effect does more damage than the fragmentation effect of a specific bomb?

Select one of the following:

  • Heat

  • Blast

  • Detonation

  • Penetration

Question 9 of 100

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The penetrating action of a shaped charge is the result of the

Select one of the following:

  • size of the burster charge

  • type and amount of explosive

  • shock wave and a jet of dense gas

  • density and thickness of the target

Question 10 of 100

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The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candlepower, color, weather, and

Select one of the following:

  • light

  • altitude

  • humidity

  • chemical composition

Question 11 of 100

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What are the classifications of pyrotechnics?

Select one of the following:

  • Illuminants and signals only

  • Illuminants and igniters only

  • Illuminants and combinations of signals only

  • Illuminants, signals, combinations of signals and illuminants, and simulators

Question 12 of 100

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When considering pyrotechnics, two types of effects for signals are

Select one of the following:

  • fire and flash

  • heat and flash

  • smoke and heat

  • light and smoke

Question 13 of 100

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What do the colored bands, letters, or patches on signal munitions indicate?

Select one of the following:

  • Color of the signal produced

  • Type of pyrotechnic ammunition

  • Different factory modification of signals

  • Different manufacturer identification codes

Question 14 of 100

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What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN–MK13 signal?

Select one of the following:

  • Noise only

  • Flare and noise

  • Smoke and flare

  • Smoke and noise

Question 15 of 100

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When and where is the MK124 Mod 0 signal used?

Select one of the following:

  • Day and land use only

  • Night and sea use only

  • Day or night, land use only

  • Day or night, land or sea use

Question 16 of 100

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How much light does the M127A1 signal produce?

Select one of the following:

  • 50,000 candlepower

  • 100,000 candlepower

  • 1,000,000 candlepower

  • 2,000,000 candlepower

Question 17 of 100

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What is the largest caliber ammunition that we classify as “small arms”?

Select one of the following:

  • Caliber .38

  • Caliber .50

  • 5.56 millimeter

  • 7.62 millimeter

Question 18 of 100

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What shotgun round is the exception to the gauging principle?

Select one of the following:

  • .22

  • .30

  • .50

  • .410

Question 19 of 100

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What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition?

Select one of the following:

  • Ejection of the primer

  • The wad can cause injury

  • There is no significant hazard

  • Fragmentation of the projectile

Question 20 of 100

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What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge?

Select one of the following:

  • Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant

  • Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and detonator

  • Cartridge case, shot pellets, and propellant

  • Cartridge case, propellant, and tracer

Question 21 of 100

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What substance is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?

Select one of the following:

  • Inert powder

  • Black powder

  • Composition B

  • White phosphorus

Question 22 of 100

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How far in front of an M18A1 mine do we consider inside the danger zone?

Select one of the following:

  • 50 meters

  • 100 meters

  • 250 meters

  • 300 meters

Question 23 of 100

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How far behind an M18A1 mine should personnel take cover before they fire it?

Select one of the following:

  • 50 meters

  • 100 meters

  • 250 meters

  • 300 meters

Question 24 of 100

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What mortar has a short range and a small explosive charge?

Select one of the following:

  • Short

  • Light

  • Heavy

  • Medium

Question 25 of 100

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What device(s) do we use to detonate high explosives (HE)?

Select one of the following:

  • Firing wire

  • Blasting caps

  • Galvanometer

  • Detonating cord clip

Question 26 of 100

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What device is used to initiate time fuse?

Select one of the following:

  • M60 igniter

  • Firing wire

  • Galvanometer

  • Blasting machine

Question 27 of 100

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The M112 demo block is made of what substance?

Select one of the following:

  • Ammonia

  • Nitroglycerin

  • Black powder

  • Composition C–4

Question 28 of 100

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The difference between commercial dynamite and military dynamite is that military dynamite does not contain

Select one of the following:

  • initiators

  • nitroglycerin

  • gelatin dynamite

  • ammonia dynamite

Question 29 of 100

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In what length is fire wire issued?

Select one of the following:

  • 50 feet

  • 100 feet

  • 500 feet

  • 1000 feet

Question 30 of 100

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How do we classify bomb fuzes?

Select one of the following:

  • Action and contents

  • Position and action

  • Method of arming and contents

  • Position, action, and method of arming

Question 31 of 100

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The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and

Select one of the following:

  • electrical.

  • hydraulic

  • proximity

  • inertia

Question 32 of 100

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Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb?

Select one of the following:

  • Nose

  • Tail

  • Nose and tail

  • Between the lugs

Question 33 of 100

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In an electronically-timed fuze, what component replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes?

Select one of the following:

  • Battery-firing device

  • Arming lanyard assembly

  • Electric charging assembly

  • Electronically timed sensor

Question 34 of 100

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The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled?

Select one of the following:

  • Seal wires

  • Cotter pins

  • Safety blocks

  • “Detonator safe” feature

Question 35 of 100

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What action must you take to set the “SECONDS TO ARM” setting below six seconds on an M904 fuze?

Select one of the following:

  • Depress the time lock

  • Install the stop screw in the fuze body

  • Remove the stop screw from the fuze body

  • Depress the detent pin on the arming vane shaft

Question 36 of 100

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What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze?

Select one of the following:

  • T44

  • T45

  • T46

  • FZU–2/B

Question 37 of 100

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In a bomb body, where is the M905 fuze installed?

Select one of the following:

  • Either the nose or the tail

  • The nose fuze well

  • The tail fuze well

  • Between the lugs

Question 38 of 100

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The FMU–54 series tail fuzes are used in

Select one of the following:

  • laser-guided bomb series

  • BLU–109/B series guided bombs

  • MK80 and M series general-purpose bombs with conical fins

  • MK80 series general-purpose bombs with an air inflatable retarder

Question 39 of 100

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With electrical fuzes, which device is used in place of arming wire?

Select one of the following:

  • Bungee cord.

  • Battery-firing device

  • Linear-shaped charge

  • Target-detecting device

Question 40 of 100

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How many FZU–2/B boosters are used with the FMU–81/B fuze when installed in the nose fuze well and the tail fuze well, respectively?

Select one of the following:

  • One; four

  • Four, two.

  • Two; four

  • Four; one

Question 41 of 100

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What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–139A/B fuze?

Select one of the following:

  • FZU–39/B sensor

  • FZU–48/B initiator

  • Battery-firing device

  • MK32 Mod 1 arming device

Question 42 of 100

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The FMU–143 series fuze was designed for use in

Select one of the following:

  • chemical bombs

  • penetration bombs.

  • land and sea mines

  • blast and fragmentation bombs

Question 43 of 100

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What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–143 series fuze?

Select one of the following:

  • FZU–39/B sensor

  • FZU–48/B initiator

  • FZU–55 series fuze initiator

  • FZU–32 series fuze initiator

Question 44 of 100

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What hazard is associated with the DSU–33 proximity sensor?

Select one of the following:

  • Explosives

  • Fragmentation

  • Thermal battery

  • Radio frequencies

Question 45 of 100

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Which sensor is a radio frequency (RF) radar ranging system used with the suspension utility unit (SUU)–64/B, SUU–65/B, and SUU–66/B dispensers?

Select one of the following:

  • FZU–39/B

  • FMU–56/B.

  • FMU–110/B

  • FMU–124/B

Question 46 of 100

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What does HOF stand for on the FZU–39/B proximity sensor?

Select one of the following:

  • Hour of flight.

  • Hour of function

  • Height of function

  • Height of fragmentation

Question 47 of 100

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What component is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M series bomb?

Select one of the following:

  • Fuze adapter

  • Bomb adapter

  • Adapter booster

  • Adapter burster

Question 48 of 100

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Which fin provides a high-drag, low-altitude bombing capability for the M117 bomb?

Select one of the following:

  • BSU–50/B

  • BSU–49/B

  • BSU–93/B

  • MAU–103

Question 49 of 100

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Which air inflatable retarder (AIR) fin is used on the MK82 bomb?

Select one of the following:

  • BSU–49/B

  • BSU–50/B

  • BSU–92

  • BSU–93/B

Question 50 of 100

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What air inflatable retarder (AIR) fin is used on the MK84 bomb?

Select one of the following:

  • BSU–49/B

  • BSU–50/B

  • BSU–92

  • BSU–93/B

Question 51 of 100

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Which bomb is used as the warhead in the GBU–28A/B?

Select one of the following:

  • BLU–113

  • BLU–118

  • BLU–122

  • BLU–126

Question 52 of 100

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Which bomb is filled with a thermobaric explosive?

Select one of the following:

  • BLU–113

  • BLU–118

  • BLU–122

  • BLU–126

Question 53 of 100

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Externally, the M129 leaflet bomb is similar to the

Select one of the following:

  • M117, 750-pound bomb

  • MK82, 500-pound bomb

  • MK84, 2,000-pound bomb.

  • BLU–109, 2,000-pound bomb

Question 54 of 100

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Which suspension utility unit (SUU) does the PDU–5/B utilize?

Select one of the following:

  • SUU–64/B

  • SUU–65/B

  • SUU–66/B

  • SUU–76C/B

Question 55 of 100

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The BLU–126/B bomb is identical to the

Select one of the following:

  • M117, 750-pound bomb

  • MK82, 500-pound bomb.

  • MK84, 2,000-pound bomb.

  • BLU–109, 2,000-pound bomb

Question 56 of 100

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What is the net explosive weight (NEW) of the BLU–126/B?

Select one of the following:

  • 27 pounds

  • 92 pounds

  • 192 pounds

  • 270 pounds

Question 57 of 100

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What is the weight of the BDU–33 series practice bomb?

Select one of the following:

  • 10 pounds

  • 20 pounds

  • 25 pounds

  • 45 pounds

Question 58 of 100

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The BDU–48/B resembles the ballistics of the

Select one of the following:

  • MK82 high-drag munition

  • MK82 low-drag munition

  • M117 high-drag munition

  • MK84 low-drag munition

Question 59 of 100

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Which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser does the CBU–87 cluster bomb use?

Select one of the following:

  • SUU–66

  • SUU–65

  • SUU–64

  • SUU–30

Question 60 of 100

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Which submunitions are loaded into a CBU–87 cluster bomb?

Select one of the following:

  • BLU–61 bomblets

  • BLU–63 bomblets

  • BLU–97 bomblets

  • MK118 bomblets

Question 61 of 100

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What is the only difference between the CBU–87/B and the CBU–87A/B cluster bombs?

Select one of the following:

  • The A/B has modified bomblets

  • The A/B has the live FZU–39/B sensor installed

  • The B comes in a different container

  • The B has the live FZU–39/B sensor installed

Question 62 of 100

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How many different types of bomblets are loaded into a single CBU–89/B cluster bomb at one time?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

  • 4

Question 63 of 100

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How many projectiles are contained in each BLU–108/B submunition?

Select one of the following:

  • 1

  • 2

  • 3

  • 4

Question 64 of 100

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What ejects the BLU–108 series submunition into the airstream?

Select one of the following:

  • Thermal battery

  • Drogue parachute

  • Airbag ejection system

  • Linear shape cutting charge

Question 65 of 100

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The components of a wind corrected munitions dispenser consist of a fin guidance system, a variable position umbilical connector, and

Select one of the following:

  • dummy fuze.

  • rocket motor

  • signal cartridge

  • operational flight program

Question 66 of 100

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Which wind-corrected munitions dispenser component cants the fins to spin the dispenser during flight?

Select one of the following:

  • Gas grain generator

  • Fin lanyard assembly

  • Fin stabilizer assembly

  • Control actuation assembly

Question 67 of 100

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What 20 millimeter (mm) round is used for drill or testing feeder assemblies?

Select one of the following:

  • Target practice tracer

  • Target practice

  • Dummy

  • Inert

Question 68 of 100

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What M505 series fuze safety feature prevents accidental arming during handling?

Select one of the following:

  • Fuze is bore safe

  • M505 series fuze is inertia armed

  • Rotor assembly is safety pinned until loading

  • M505 series fuze does not have a safety, but it does require very careful handling

Question 69 of 100

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What is the arming delay distance for the M505 fuze?

Select one of the following:

  • 5–10 feet

  • 10–35 feet

  • 45–50 feet

  • 50–55 feet

Question 70 of 100

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The identifying information on a 20 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition is marked on the

Select one of the following:

  • bourrelet

  • projectile

  • primer

  • fuze

Question 71 of 100

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When 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds may you expect to find in an M548 container?

Select one of the following:

  • 50–100

  • 150–175

  • 200–250

  • 275–300

Question 72 of 100

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What aircraft cannon fires the 25 millimeter (mm) round?

Select one of the following:

  • GAU–2.

  • GAU–8

  • GAU–12

  • GAU–18

Question 73 of 100

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How can you tell a 25 millimeter (mm) dummy cartridge from other 25 mm rounds?

Select one of the following:

  • Dummy cartridge is painted blue.

  • Dummy cartridge is hollow and lighter

  • Dummy cartridge projectile is nonseparable and the total cartridge is gold in color

  • Dummy cartridge projectile is gold in color with white lettering on the cartridge case

Question 74 of 100

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When 25 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds you expect to find in a CNU–405 container?

Select one of the following:

  • 80 or 100

  • 150 or 175

  • 200 or 250

  • 275 or 300

Question 75 of 100

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How is ignition from the primer carried to the propellant in a 30 millimeter (mm) target practice round?

Select one of the following:

  • The primer vents directly into the propellant

  • The propellant is ignited electrically when the gun is fired

  • The primer ignites black power in a flash tube, which ignites the propellant

  • The primer activates the M505 time delay fuze, which ignites the propellant after it is fully armed and detonates.

Question 76 of 100

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What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter (mm) M505A3 impact fuze in an unarmed position until it is fired?

Select one of the following:

  • Lock ring

  • Split latch

  • Safety block

  • Detonator safety latch

Question 77 of 100

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Which component allows the 30 millimeter (mm) armor-piercing round to achieve target penetration?

Select one of the following:

  • Fumer charge

  • Linear shape charge

  • Munroe effect shape charge

  • Depleted uranium penetrator

Question 78 of 100

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What is the purpose of the 30 millimeter (mm) dummy ammunition?

Select one of the following:

  • As ballast

  • For target practice on small ranges

  • For use in static displays and award presentations

  • As familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system

Question 79 of 100

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How long does the red tracer composition burn in the 40 millimeter (mm) AAA, target practice tracer (M91) round?

Select one of the following:

  • 10 seconds

  • 12 seconds

  • 14 seconds

  • 16 seconds

Question 80 of 100

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Name the components of a 40 millimeter (mm) round.

Select one of the following:

  • Ignition booster, cartridge case, and projectile.

  • Propellant, cartridge case, and ignition booster

  • Propellant, cartridge case, ignition booster, and fuze

  • Primer, cartridge case, propellant charge, projectile, and fuze.

Question 81 of 100

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What is the total number of rounds can the MK1 ammunition box hold?

Select one of the following:

  • 36

  • 24

  • 20

  • 16

Question 82 of 100

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What aircraft fires 105 millimeter (mm) ammunition?

Select one of the following:

  • B–52

  • B–1B

  • KC–10

  • AC–130

Question 83 of 100

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What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105 millimeter (mm) high-explosive (HE) round?

Select one of the following:

  • Comp B.

  • Comp C.

  • Cyclonite (RDX).

  • Pentaerythritol Tetranitrate (PETN).

Question 84 of 100

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Approximately how many fragments will the high fragmentation (HF) PGU–45/B projectile produce?

Select one of the following:

  • 300

  • 1,300

  • 3,300

  • 13,000

Question 85 of 100

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What is the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU–160/B fuze to optimize lethality?

Select one of the following:

  • 15 feet

  • 30 feet

  • 32 feet

  • 42 feet

Question 86 of 100

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The 105 millimeter (mm) clearing cartridge was designed to

Select one of the following:

  • clean the bore of a 105 mm cannon

  • prepare the 105 mm cannon for shipping

  • clear the immediate area around a ground target

  • clear a projectile lodged in the bore of a 105 mm cannon

Question 87 of 100

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What are countermeasure flares designed to do?

Select one of the following:

  • Emergency signaling by a downed aircraft

  • Illuminate emergency landing fields at night

  • Emergency signaling to rescue aircraft from the ground

  • Divert enemy aircraft infrared/heat-seeking missiles from friendly aircraft

Question 88 of 100

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Which impulse cartridge initiates the MJU–7/B flare?

Select one of the following:

  • BBU–35/B

  • BBU–36/B

  • BBU–46/B

  • BBU–47/B

Question 89 of 100

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The SD–206 infrared flare (Smokey Devil) provides

Select one of the following:

  • less heat than the M206 flare

  • more heat than the M206 flare

  • more flexibility due to its smaller size

  • smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes

Question 90 of 100

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Which impulse cartridge does the RR–170 chaff cartridge use?

Select one of the following:

  • BBU–35/B

  • BBU–36/B

  • BBU–45/B

  • BBU–46/B

Question 91 of 100

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The LUU–2 series aircraft flare produces

Select one of the following:

  • 500,000 candlepower for an average burn time of three minutes

  • 300,000 candlepower for an average burn time of two minutes

  • two million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes

  • one million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes

Question 92 of 100

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What output does the LUU–5/B target marker produce?

Select one of the following:

  • Red light

  • Green light

  • White light

  • Yellow light

Question 93 of 100

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What output does the LUU–19 series illumination flare produce?

Select one of the following:

  • Red light

  • Green light

  • Visible light

  • Light in the near-infrared region

Question 94 of 100

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In which direction are flares launched from the SUU–25E/A flare dispenser?

Select one of the following:

  • Downward

  • Rearward

  • Sideward

  • Forward

Question 95 of 100

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What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares from the SUU–25E/A dispenser?

Select one of the following:

  • ARD 446–1

  • ARD 863–1

  • MK2 Mod 0.

  • MK107 Mod 0

Question 96 of 100

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The gas pressure produced by the impulse in an SUU–25 ejects the flare at a speed of approximately

Select one of the following:

  • 50 feet per second (fps).

  • 60 (fps).

  • 65 (fps).

  • 75 (fps).

Question 97 of 100

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What are initiators, found in cartridge-actuated devices (CAD), designed to do?

Select one of the following:

  • Supply gas pressure to operate other CADs

  • Supply gas pressure to remove aircraft canopies

  • Eject external stores

  • Eject seats

Question 98 of 100

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What are removers, found in cartridge-actuated devices (CAD), designed to do?

Select one of the following:

  • Remove obstacles from the ejecting pilot’s path

  • Remove the aircraft seat from the aircraft

  • Eject crew members safely

  • Eject aircraft canopy

Question 99 of 100

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What are the two types of impulse cartridges found in propellant-actuated devices (PADS)?

Select one of the following:

  • Electric and gas

  • Explosive and gas

  • Percussion and electric

  • Explosive and nonexplosive

Question 100 of 100

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What must you do before you handle any impulse cartridge?

Select one of the following:

  • Ensure service life is not expired

  • Ensure shelf life is not expired

  • Install shorting clips

  • Ground yourself.

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Munitions study guide

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