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Question 1 of 90

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What structural areas allow maintenance to inspect or service aircraft components?

Select one of the following:

  • Nacelles

  • Windows

  • Doors

  • Plates and Skins

Question 2 of 90

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Which major structural area provides support for the engines?

Select one of the following:

  • Nacelles

  • Wings

  • Stabilizers

  • Fuselage

Question 3 of 90

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Which is not a major aircraft structural area?

Select one of the following:

  • Windows

  • Stabilizers

  • Wing Carry-Through

  • Fuselage

Question 4 of 90

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Which component guards against accidental firing of ejection seats?

Select one of the following:

  • Safety Pins

  • Stabilizers

  • Red Streamers

  • initiators

Question 5 of 90

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How do independent positioning determine subsystem function?

Select one of the following:

  • By recording radar data

  • By calculating aircraft velocity

  • Independent of inertial navigation

  • Independent of ground epuipment

Question 6 of 90

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which is not an avionics system?

Select one of the following:

  • built in test system

  • control and displays

  • central computing complex

  • navigation and weapon delivery

Question 7 of 90

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which is not part of an engine indicating system

Select one of the following:

  • oil quanity

  • water temperature

  • engine vibration

  • fuel flow

Question 8 of 90

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what is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?

Select one of the following:

  • 25 feet to the front and sides

  • 50 feet to the front and sides

  • 50 feet to the front and 25 feet to the sides

  • 25 feet to the front and 10 feet to the sides

Question 9 of 90

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When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel

Select one of the following:

  • from the side of the wheel

  • only after the blowout screen is installed

  • from the front of or behind the wheel

  • at a 45 degree angle to the wheel

Question 10 of 90

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initially what happens when RF energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body

Select one of the following:

  • heat is produced

  • nothing

  • your internal organs start to deteriorate

  • your heart beats irregulary

Question 11 of 90

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what is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 foot

  • 3 feet

  • 5 feet

  • 10 feet

Question 12 of 90

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the minimum safe distance from an HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is

Select one of the following:

  • 1 foot

  • 3 feet

  • 5 feet

  • 10 feet

Question 13 of 90

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which condition is usually not caused by an over exposure to noise?

Select one of the following:

  • hearing problems

  • fatigue

  • excessive energy

  • speech problems

Question 14 of 90

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the greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine is to rear of the engine through an angle of

Select one of the following:

  • 45 degrees on either side

  • 90 degrees on either side

  • 60 degrees on either side

  • 45 degrees on either side

Question 15 of 90

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which physical symptom is least likely to indicate a person is suffering from over exposure to noise?

Select one of the following:

  • unconsciousness

  • dizziness

  • vomiting

  • nausea

Question 16 of 90

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which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise

Select one of the following:

  • frequent nausea

  • permanent hearing loss

  • temporary weight gain

  • small overdoses have little to no effect

Question 17 of 90

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which is not an Air Force inspection concept

Select one of the following:

  • preflight

  • phased

  • isochronical

  • periodic

Question 18 of 90

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which units fall under the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept

Select one of the following:

  • All units regardless of majcom

  • ACC unit

  • AMC units

  • AFSOC units

Question 19 of 90

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which inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operations of the aircraft

Select one of the following:

  • preflight

  • phase

  • end of runway

  • basic post flight

Question 20 of 90

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when is the thruflight inspection perfromed

Select one of the following:

  • after the last flight of each day

  • before the aircraft goes on alert

  • prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops

  • after a specific number of flying hours has elapsed

Question 21 of 90

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which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspections

Select one of the following:

  • minor

  • major

  • phase

  • periodic

Question 22 of 90

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when the HSC inspection becomes due during a long-range mission, it is completed at the base

Select one of the following:

  • to which the aircraft belongs

  • where the first intermediate stop is made

  • from which the mission is being performed

  • nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due

Question 23 of 90

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which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing

Select one of the following:

  • special inspection

  • acceptance inspection

  • operator inspection

  • periodic inspection and scheduled lubrication

Question 24 of 90

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malfunctions documented on an AFTO form 244 are the responsibility of

Select one of the following:

  • aerospace ground equipment mechanics

  • avionics backshop personnel

  • flight line technicions

  • propulsion mechanics

Question 25 of 90

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Part V of the AFTO form 244 is used to document

Select one of the following:

  • maintenance/delayed discrepancies

  • non-scheduled inspections

  • item identifications

  • scheduled inspections

Question 26 of 90

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the AFTO form 781 series would not be used to document aircraft

Select one of the following:

  • flight records

  • configurations

  • component repair

  • inspections

Question 27 of 90

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except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on AFTO form 781

Select one of the following:

  • B

  • K

  • L

  • A

Question 28 of 90

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at what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO form 781A

Select one of the following:

  • when you enter them in error

  • when you find them to be incorrect

  • when you must correct a discrepancy

  • never, even if you entered them in error

Question 29 of 90

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who ensures the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO form 781 A

Select one of the following:

  • technicion

  • supervisor

  • crewchief

  • aircraft crew member

Question 30 of 90

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which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO form 781 A

Select one of the following:

  • description of the corrective action

  • TO reference

  • technicians signiture

  • supervisors signiture

Question 31 of 90

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who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all comsec required entries

Select one of the following:

  • crewchief

  • pro super

  • Comm/nav technician

  • aircrew

Question 32 of 90

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which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information

Select one of the following:

  • 781A

  • 781B

  • 781H

  • 781J

Question 33 of 90

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which AFTO form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data including operating time

Select one of the following:

  • 781A

  • 781J

  • 781K

  • 781L

Question 34 of 90

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Which AFTO form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data

Select one of the following:

  • 781A

  • 781B

  • 781K

  • 781L

Question 35 of 90

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Block C of the AFTO form 781K is used to document

Select one of the following:

  • inspection items that require inspection/testing at a specified time/period

  • all immediate and urgent action TCTOs upon compliance

  • the status of depot maintenance

  • higher authority inspection

Question 36 of 90

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to "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury of ignored, use

Select one of the following:

  • AFTO form 244

  • AFTO form 781K

  • AF form 1492

  • AF form 979

Question 37 of 90

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What portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder

Select one of the following:

  • the bottom portion

  • the top portion

  • neither

  • both

Question 38 of 90

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what helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electronic discharge

Select one of the following:

  • Humid air

  • use of non conductive packaging material

  • use of proper insulating materials

  • dehumidified air

Question 39 of 90

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an example of an ESDS devise is a

Select one of the following:

  • diode

  • PROM

  • Transistor

  • MOSROM

Question 40 of 90

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what type of failure associated with ESD is the most difficult to detect

Select one of the following:

  • intermittent

  • erroneous signal

  • latent or delayed

  • total component

Question 41 of 90

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which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?

Select one of the following:

  • touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation

  • touching the LRU case with your hand proir to removal from the aircraft

  • covering LRU connector plugs

  • using protective tote boxes

Question 42 of 90

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when working on ESDS devices in the shop area, you must use

Select one of the following:

  • ungrounded floor mats

  • a grounded work bench

  • nonconductive antistatic mats

  • a grounded LRU

Question 43 of 90

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what type of ground do you need to provide for soldering irons in an ESD protected area

Select one of the following:

  • hard

  • shielded

  • floating

  • common

Question 44 of 90

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which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an ESD protected area

Select one of the following:

  • improper use of conductive bags

  • wearing of personal clothing

  • use of ionozers

  • improper use of conductive tote boxes

Question 45 of 90

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which type of cable carries RF power from one point to another with a known rate of loss

Select one of the following:

  • emp

  • coaxial

  • shielded

  • insulated

Question 46 of 90

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which is not a type of connector coupling

Select one of the following:

  • friction

  • bayonet

  • insertion

  • threaded

Question 47 of 90

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all of the following are rf connectors precautions except

Select one of the following:

  • never step on the cable

  • ensure a good grip when using pliers

  • ensure you solder double shielded cables together

  • ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable

Question 48 of 90

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twisting of the fiber optic cable during installation or maintenance results in

Select one of the following:

  • stretching of the glass fibers

  • greater elasticity of the glass fibers

  • reduced optical power transmission

  • good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing

Question 49 of 90

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what is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over wire cables?

Select one of the following:

  • cost

  • light weight

  • low attenuation

  • immunity to electromagnetic interference

Question 50 of 90

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optoelectric transducer detectors perform what functions in a fiber optic transmission

Select one of the following:

  • amplifies output circuit signals

  • converts electrical signal to light signals

  • converts optical energy to electrical energy

  • emit light when current is passed through them

Question 51 of 90

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utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures

Select one of the following:

  • connectors will mate properly

  • solder will adhere properly

  • RF will not be impeded

  • proper connections

Question 52 of 90

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flux is designed to

Select one of the following:

  • keep connections clean

  • bond electrical connection

  • ensure electrical conductivity

  • proper connections

Question 53 of 90

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proper care of an electric soldiering iron involves

Select one of the following:

  • cooling the iron by dipping it in water

  • jerking the iron to remove excess solder

  • tapping an iron on a table to remove excess solder

  • keeping iron in a proper holder when you are not using it

Question 54 of 90

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which is not a type of solderless connector

Select one of the following:

  • splice

  • terminal lugs

  • connector splice

  • connector plug pins

Question 55 of 90

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what type of solderless connector permits easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment

Select one of the following:

  • splice

  • terminal lugs

  • connector splice

  • connector plug pins

Question 56 of 90

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one purpose of crimper positioner is to

Select one of the following:

  • align crimper handles to pin contact

  • put pin contacts in the proper position

  • put the turret head in line with pin contact

  • adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins

Question 57 of 90

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the colored end of an insertion and extraction is used for contact

Select one of the following:

  • insertion into a rear release connector plug

  • extraction from a rear release connector plug

  • insertion into a front release connector plug

  • extraction from a front release connector plug

Question 58 of 90

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one way of pressure and moisture sealing the back of a connector is to use

Select one of the following:

  • silicone tape

  • silicone caulking

  • heat shrinkable tape

  • electrical wrapping tape

Question 59 of 90

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the MIL-STD that governs heat tool operation in a potentially explosive environment is

Select one of the following:

  • 810

  • 811

  • 812

  • 813

Question 60 of 90

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the heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat shrink products is controlled by the

Select one of the following:

  • tool operater

  • air/nitrogen regualtor

  • temperature controller

  • tubular heating elements

Question 61 of 90

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as a flight line technician, you can repair up to

Select one of the following:

  • 20% of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

  • 20% of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

  • 25% of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

  • 25% of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

Question 62 of 90

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Before performing any type of wire repair, you must consult the procedures in TO

Select one of the following:

  • 1-1A-14

  • 1-1A-15

  • 1-1A-16

  • 1-1A-18

Question 63 of 90

Medal-premium 1

what precaution must you adhere to prior to heat shrink to a wire repair job

Select one of the following:

  • ensure proper lighting

  • inventory required tools

  • read all procedures in TO 1-!A -14

  • warnings concerning use of heat tools on aircraft

Question 64 of 90

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what is the purpose of prewaxing cotton or linen tape when used for wire bundling

Select one of the following:

  • prevents sliping

  • lessens tendencies to cut wire insulation

  • promotes moisture and fungus resistance

  • fulfills temperature requirements for tying materials

Question 65 of 90

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which of the following is not considered a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles

Select one of the following:

  • lace or tie bundles tightly enough to prevent slipping

  • tie all wire groups or bundles 12in or less apart

  • do not use ties on any part of a wire group or bundles that is located inside a conduit

  • when tying wire bundles behind connectors, start ties far enough back from the connector to avoid playing (spreading) of contacts

Question 66 of 90

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the circuit used in an AM trasmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designated frequency required for carrier wave operation is

Select one of the following:

  • a buffer amplifier

  • an audio amplifier

  • a power amplifier

  • a frequency multiplier

Question 67 of 90

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to achieve AM, what device is used to ensure the output signal contains frequencies not present in the input signals

Select one of the following:

  • linear amplifier

  • power amplifier

  • balanced amplifier

  • non-liner amplifier

Question 68 of 90

Medal-premium 1

the frequencies created by the heterodyning process in an AM transmitter modulator are the

Select one of the following:

  • different and original

  • sum and difference

  • sum and original

  • two originals

Question 69 of 90

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which is not a basic characteristic that can vary in a modulating wave or signal?

Select one of the following:

  • frequency

  • amplitude

  • phase

  • rate

Question 70 of 90

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in an FM signal, the amount of frequency modulation is controlled by the modulating signal's

Select one of the following:

  • frequency

  • amplitude

  • phase

  • rate

Question 71 of 90

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in an FM transmitter, the frequency of the oscillator is controlled by the

Select one of the following:

  • reactance modulator

  • power amplifier circuit

  • frequency multiplier circuit

  • frequency discriminator

Question 72 of 90

Medal-premium 1

in an FM transmitter, which circuit detects the output frequency changes and produce an automatic frequency control correction voltage?

Select one of the following:

  • filter

  • converter

  • modulator

  • discriminator

Question 73 of 90

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the low pass filter in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a FM transmitter prevents

Select one of the following:

  • the lower sideband from being transmitted

  • correction voltage changes caused by the modulation signals

  • carrier frequency feedback from tuning the reactance modulator

  • the audio signal from the audio amplifier from tuning the reactance modulator

Question 74 of 90

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which is not an advantage of single sideband over double sideband

Select one of the following:

  • power frequency

  • frequency stability

  • signal to noise ratio

  • spectrum conservation

Question 75 of 90

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in a single sideband transmitter, frequency stability is controlled by

Select one of the following:

  • the original carrier frequency

  • reinserted carrier frequencies

  • precision frequency standards

  • carefully controlled oscillators

Question 76 of 90

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in a single sideband transmitter, the balanced modulator's output consists of

Select one of the following:

  • the carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband

  • the upper and lower sidebands

  • the lower sideband only

  • upper sideband only

Question 77 of 90

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the single sideband transmitter circuit that increases the power output without introducing distortion is the

Select one of the following:

  • balanced amplifier

  • power synthesizer

  • balanced modulator

  • liner power amplifier

Question 78 of 90

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the ability of a radio receiver to select a particular station frequency from all other station frequencies that appear at the receiver antenna is called

Select one of the following:

  • sensitivity

  • reception

  • detection

  • selection

Question 79 of 90

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In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control is called

Select one of the following:

  • slug tuning

  • ganged parallel

  • parallel tuning

  • staggered tuning

Question 80 of 90

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in a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the heterodyning process produces four frequencies; they are the two basic input frequencies, there sum, and their difference frequency is known as the

Select one of the following:

  • sum frequency

  • original frequency

  • sideband frequency

  • intermediate frequency

Question 81 of 90

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the purpose of the limiter circuit in an FM receiver is to

Select one of the following:

  • add amplitude variations to the intermediate frequency signal

  • remove amplitude variations from the intermediate frequency signal

  • remove frequency variations from the intermediate frequency signal

  • rectify the audio frequency signal from the intermediate frequency section

Question 82 of 90

Medal-premium 1

FM modulation signals provide much more realistic sound reproduction than AM signals because

Select one of the following:

  • FM uses a lower frequency range

  • amplitude modulation of the carrier increases

  • of an increase in the number of sidebands

  • of a decrease in the number of sidebands

Question 83 of 90

Medal-premium 1

the two advantages of using a single-sideband receiver over an AM receiver are the ability to place

Select one of the following:

  • more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver band pass

  • more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a wider receiver band pass

  • fewer signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver bandpass

  • fewer signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a wider receiver bandpass

Question 84 of 90

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the basic difference between the single sideband receiver and a conventional superheterodyne receiver is that the single-sideband receiver uses a

Select one of the following:

  • carrier reinsertion oscillator and special mixer circuits

  • special detector and carrier reinsertion oscillator

  • discriminator and local oscillator circuit

  • limiter and special mixer circuit

Question 85 of 90

Medal-premium 1

a major drawback in using a single sideband recierver over an amplitude modulated receiver is the

Select one of the following:

  • need for critical frequency stability

  • single-sideband receiver has a narrow bandpass

  • amplitude modulated receiver requires only one oscillator circuit

  • weak signals are easy to detect in the amplitude modulated receiver

Question 86 of 90

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a receiver radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by

Select one of the following:

  • accepting and amplifying the minute current

  • removing the radion frequency carrier wave

  • converting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force

  • electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna thus causing current to flow

Question 87 of 90

Medal-premium 1

the ratio of the maximum radiation intensity of a given directional radio antenna to the radiation intensity of a non directional radio antenna using the same power input is known as antenna

Select one of the following:

  • gain

  • arrays

  • efficiency

  • reciprocity

Question 88 of 90

Medal-premium 1

the radio frequency line that has uniform capacitance between the conductors throughout the length of the line is the

Select one of the following:

  • shielded pair

  • air coaxail line

  • parallel two wire

  • flexible coaxial line

Question 89 of 90

Medal-premium 1

when the impedance of a radio frequency transmission line and load do not match, the reflected wave and the applied wave are on the line at the same time are creating a

Select one of the following:

  • traveling wave

  • standing wave

  • reflected wave

  • resultant wave

Question 90 of 90

Medal-premium 1

what type of radio frequency transmission line losses result from the skin effect?

Select one of the following:

  • copper losses

  • dielectric losses

  • radiation losses

  • induction losses

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