Techniques of arthrocentesis includes skin prepping/draping, using a 30 mL syringe, and:
22-24 gauge needle
In order to obtain a diagnostic radiograph, what angle would you ideally want an x-ray?
1. Anterior Posterior
4. Posterior Anterior
1 and 3
2 and 4
1, 2, 3
All of the above
A 55 year old patient complains of acute knee pain w/o trauma localized over the patella and is unable to bear his own weight. What would this be an indication of and how would you proceed with treatment?
Positive Ottowa criteria; perform radiological exam
Patellar dislocation; perform reduction
ACL injury; perform arthrocentesis
Positive McMurray test; perform x-ray
While performing an arthrocentesis, you begin to draw blood into the syringe. What should you strongly suspect?
Femoral head fracture
Identify what test you would use to diagnose a meniscal tear:
2. Apley Distraction
4. Straight leg raise
A history of malalignment of the knee and increased Q-angle is needed in order to diagnose Chondromalacia patella.
A young female is more likely to be treated for what condition?
1. Bi-partite patella
2. Patellar dislocation
3. Pelvic fracture
4. Chondromalacia patella
A 34 year old female presents with knee inflammation and pain localized over her left lateral femoral epicondyle while training for a marathon. What is the most likely injury?
Iliotibial band syndrome (ITBS)
Medial collateral ligament (MCL) injury
A 15 year old male complains of pain while walking and his knee periodically "locking up". You notice the patient has an altered gait due to external rotation in his right lower leg. What are these signs consistent with?
Osteochondritis dessicans (OCD)
Osgood Schlatter's disease (OSD)
Subchondral bone necrosis of the femoral condyle indicates:
Osteochondritis dessicans (OCD) may take several days to weeks to heal.
Possible secondary injury associated with an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury:
1. Gapping >10 millimeters
2. Avulsion of tibial spine
3. Aponeurosis tear
4. Segond fracture
In relation to the distal femur, an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury would displace the tibia anteriorly.
Collateral ligament tears present with effusion.
Upon performing varus/valgus stress testing in a patient with suspected lateral cruciate ligament (LCL) tear, you record a gapping of the joint line is 11 millimeters. What would you classify this as?
Grade III tear
Grade I tear
Grade II tear
Grade IV tear
Posterior patellar surface inflammation secondary to abnormal mechanical wear and often maltracking of the patella indicates:
What is the appropriate test to confirm an ACL injury?
3. Anterior drawer
4. Apley distraction
A PCL injury would most likely present with:
Difficult with ambulation
Joint line tenderness
The mechanism of injury for a MCL tear is valgus and rotary stress.
What injury would you be looking for if a patient's MOI is knee flexion with rotational stress while bearing weight?
A common MOI for an ACL injury is rotational twist with a flexed knee.
Blunt trauma to the anterior tibia would present a positive history MOI for what injury?
When would you classify an injury as a knee dislocation?
1. ACL tear
2. Collateral ligament tear
3. PCL tear
4. Bi-partite patella
The dangerous complication of a knee dislocation which requires immediate reduction is:
1. Popliteal artery damage
2. Tibial nerve injury
3. Severed peroneal nerve
4. Vascular compromise
Visible deformity and instability secondary to ischemia is indicative of Osgood Schlatter's disease (OCD)
You can treat tendonitis with all of the following EXCEPT:
Tendonitis is an overuse injury, leading to micro tears.
A 12 year old male complains of pain at the site of patellar tendon insertion on the proximal tibia while playing basketball. What should you suspect based on patient history and presentation?
1. Osteochondritis dessicans
2. Tibial tubercle apophysitis
3. ACL injury
4. Osgood Schlatter's disease (OSD)
What treatment is appropriate for Iliotibial band syndrome (ITBS)?
1. Corticosteroidal injection
2. Eversion orthotics
What statement is NOT true in regards to shin splints versus tibial stress fractures?
Shin splints presents as linear tenderness or pain
Tibial stress fracture pain is localized along short band
Tibial stress fracture is more common in females
Shin splints causes severe nocturnal pain
Prepatellar bursitis (housemaid's knee) is the most common synovial disorder.
What is indicated in bursitis management?
1. Compression wrap
3. Corticosteroidal injection
4. VMO strengthening
Synovial disorder in the popliteal fossa that presents as a synovial lined sac:
2. Popliteal cyst
3. Prepatellar bursitis
4. Baker cyst
Baker cysts develops secondary to intra-articular disorder in children.
While treating a femur fracture, the patient has sudden onset dyspnea prior to losing consciousness and you notice a patch of small lesions develop. What should you immediately suspect?
What would you expect to see in early compartment syndrome?
1. Disproportionate pain during muscle stretch
2. Absent pulses
Distal pulses may be intact during late stage compartment syndrome.
34 year old patient complains of lower leg pain after a fall. Upon inspection, you notice severe edema in distal tibia and ankle with pallor and varying temperatures of the foot. What is your treatment for this patient?