A patient is having fewer than normal bowel movements with the difficult passage of hard, dry feces. The nurse would document this as
A common cause of lower urinary tract infection would be
Kinked or blocked urethral catherter
High fluid intake
Health promotion activities that the nurse might include in patient teaching to assist a patient in achieving normal defecation would include
Frequent use cathartics and laxatives
Lying flat to achieve continence on the bedpan
Limiting strenuous exercise that would hinder bowel functioning
Assure that the patient provides time to defecate when feels the urge to do so
When caring for a patient with an indwelling catheter the nurse knows that it is necessary to maintain the closed urinary drainage system. While caring for the patient the nurse would
Place all excess tubing off the bed to prevent the patient from lying on the tubing
Be sure to plan to reinsert the catheter at intermittent intervals
Maintain patency of the system and monitor urine flow
Remove catheter to reduce the risk of urinary tract infection
When documenting a common symptom of urinary alteration, the nurse would correctly document voiding a diminished urine output of 325 cc over 24 hours as
A patient was admitted with prostate gland enlargement. The patient continues to demonstrate urinary frequency with only small amounts voided with each void and is restless. The patient is most likely experiencing
Your patient is an alert 40-year-old male, who is timid and reluctant to talk about his urinary retention. Which part of this plan of care could create stress for the patient and possibly increase his inability to urinate?
Assist patient in assuming his usual voiding position.
Pull curtains around patient to provide privacy during voiding.
Stay with the patient while he is voiding.
Offer the urinal on a regular schedule.
During removal of a fecal impaction, which of the following could occur because of vagal stimulation?
Decrease bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
A caregiver of an 80-year-old patient tells the nurse that her mother frequently experiences nocturia and is sometimes incontinent. Following instructions about strategies to resolve the elimination problems, the nurse determines that the caregiver need further instructions when the caregiver says:
"I should be sure that my mother drink 2500 mL by 6:00 in the evening."
"I need to discourage my mother from drinking a cup of coffee at supper."
"My mother needs her walker at the bedside and a night light on in the bathroom to keep her safe."
"Have Mom take her diuretic medication in the morning so she urinates during the day."
When planning for the elimination needs of a patient, the nurse understands that:
Peristalsis increases after ingestion of food
Emotional stress initially decreases peristalsis
Enema solutions should be administered at room temperature
Intrathoracic pressure decreases when straining during defecation
When differentiating among the types of urinary incontinence, the nurse understands that stress incontinence occurs:
With a urinary tract infection
In response to emotional strain
As a result of increased intra-abdominal pressure
When a specific volume of urine is in the bladder
When caring for a patient who is unable to tolerate a large amount of enema fluid, which solution should the nurse anticipate that the physician will order?
When collecting a urine specimen for routine urinalysis from a patient, the nurse keeps in mind which of the following?
A sterile specimen is required for collection.
Results may be altered if a sample is left standing at room temperature for a long time.
The external meatus requires cleaning with antiseptic soap and water before voiding.
A clean-catch midstream specimen is necessary.
Which of the following would the nurse incorporate into the teaching plan for a patient to promote healthy urinary functioning?
Drinking more than 2,000 mL of fluid per day will cause fluid retention.
The healthy adult should drink four to six 8-ounce glasses of water per day.
Children need fewer reminders to drink because of greater thirst sensitivity.
Caffeine-containing beverages should be monitored to prevent excess intake.
When a person has a fever or diaphoresis, how would the urine output be described?
Decreased and highly concentrated
Decreased and highly dilute
Increased and concentrated
Increased and dilute
The physician has ordered an indwelling catheter inserted in a hospitalized male patient. The nurse is aware of which of the following considerations?
The male urethra is more vulnerable to injury during insertion.
In the hospital, a clean technique is used for catheter insertion.
The catheter is inserted 2″ to 3″ into the meatus.
Since it uses a closed system, the risk for urinary tract infection is absent.
Nursing care for a patient with an indwelling catheter includes which of the following?
Irrigation of the catheter with 30 mL of normal saline solution every 4 hours
Disconnecting and reconnecting the drainage system quickly to obtain a urine specimen
Encouraging a generous fluid intake if not contraindicated by the patient’s condition.
Telling the patient that burning and irritation are normal, subsiding within a few days
After surgery, Ms. Young is having difficulty voiding. Which nursing action would most likely lead to an increased difficulty with voiding?
Pouring warm water over Ms. Young’s fingers
Having Ms. Young ignore the urge to void until her bladder is full
Using a warm bedpan when Ms. Young feels the urge to void
Stroking Ms. Young’s leg or thigh
Mr. Cheng, a hospitalized patient with diabetes mellitus, has developed a UTI. He is 80 years old and has an indwelling catheter in place. Which factor is most likely the cause of his UTI?
The close proximity of the male genitalia to the rectum
A high urine glucose level
The indwelling urinary catheter
Which of the following terms denotes a patient’s inability to void even though the kidneys are producing urine that enters the bladder?
Mrs. D’Ambrosia, an alert, ambulatory, older nursing home resident, voids frequently and has difficulty making it to the bathroom in time. The nurse planning her care is aware of which of the following?
Incontinence is to be expected in a woman Mrs. D’Ambrosia’s age.
One of every 10 nursing home residents is incontinent.
Kegel exercises performed at regular intervals throughout the day may be helpful.
An indwelling catheter should be inserted as soon as possible.
The priority treatment option for Mrs. D’Ambrosia would most likely involve which of the following?
Use of absorbent products
A patient taking phenazopyridine (Pyridium, a urinary tract analgesic) should be cautioned that her urine may change to what color?
Mr. Bales is 60 years old and alert. He is timid and reluctant to talk about his urinary retention problem. Which part of this plan could create stress for Mr. Bales and possibly increase his inability to urinate?
Assisting him in assuming his normal voiding position
Pulling curtains around him to provide privacy during voiding
Staying with him while voiding
Offering the urinal on a regular schedule
Which of the following is a nursing priority when caring for a male patient with a condom catheter?
Preventing the tubing from kinking to maintain free urinary drainage
Not removing the catheter for any reason
Fastening the condom tightly to prevent the possibility of leakage
Maintaining bed rest at all times to prevent the catheter from slipping off
A patient has a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Urinary Elimination related to maturational enuresis. You recognize that your patient is which of the following?
An adult older than 65 years of age who is incontinent
A child older than 4 years of age who has involuntary urination
A 12-month-old child who has involuntary urination
A patient with neurologic damage resulting in bladder dysfunction
Data must be collected to evaluate the effectiveness of a plan to reduce urinary incontinence in an older adult patient. Of the information below, which is least important for the evaluation process?
The incontinence pattern
State of physical mobility
Medications being taken
Age of the patient
If a patient was instructed to avoid foods that may have a laxative effect, the nurse would advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Which of the following is a true statement about the effects of medication on bowel elimination?
Diarrhea commonly occurs with amoxicillin clavulanate use.
Anticoagulants cause a white discoloration of the stool.
Narcotic analgesics increase gastrointestinal motility.
Iron salts impair digestion and cause a green stool.
Mr. J. has a fecal impaction. The nurse correctly administers an oil-retention enema by doing which of the following?
Administering a large volume of solution (500–1,000 mL)
Mixing milk and molasses in equal parts for an enema
Instructing the patient to retain the enema for at least 30 minutes
Administering the enema while the patient is sitting on the toilet
As the nurse prepares to assist Mrs. P. with her newly created ileostomy, she is aware of which of the following?
An appliance will not be required on a continual basis
The size of the stoma stabilizes within 2 weeks
Irrigation is necessary for regulation
Fecal drainage will be liquid
Which class of laxative acts by causing the stool to absorb water and swell?
Mr. T. is nervous about a colonoscopy scheduled for tomorrow. The nurse describes the test by explaining that it allows which of the following?
Visual examination of the esophagus and stomach
Visual examination of the large intestine
Radiographic examination of the large intestine
Fluoroscopic examination of the small intestine
A bowel training program includes which of the following?
Using a diet that is low in bulk
Decreasing fluid intake to 1,000 mL
Administering an enema once a day to stimulate peristalsis
Allowing ample time for evacuation
Your patient complains of excessive flatulence. When reviewing the patient’s dietary intake, which food, if eaten regularly, would you identify as possibly responsible?
A barium enema should be done before an upper gastrointestinal series because of which of the following?
Retained barium may cloud the colon.
Barium can cause lower gastrointestinal bleeding.
The physician’s orders are in that sequence.
Barium is absorbed readily in the lower intestine.
Nurses should recommend avoiding the habitual use of laxatives. Which of the following is the rationale for this?
They will cause a fecal impaction.
They will cause chronic constipation.
They change the pH of the gastrointestinal tract.
They inhibit the intestinal enzymes.
When explaining the action of a hypertonic solution enema, the nurse incorporates which of the following as the basis for action?
Bowel mucosa irritation
Diffusion of water out of colon
Osmosis of water into colon
Softening of fecal contents
Which of the following are included in the nursing plan of care to prevent adverse effects when caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube in place for gastric decompression? Select all that apply.
Irrigate with saline.
Measure the length of the exposed tube.
Measure the pH of the aspirated tube contents.
Administer frequent oral hygiene.
Which of the following would be a common nursing diagnosis for the patient with an ileostomy?
Disturbed Body Image
Delayed Growth and Development
Excess Fluid Volume
Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action to promote regular bowel habits?
encouraging the patient to avoid moving his bowels until a certain time of the day
encouraging the patient to avoid excess fluid intake and too much fiber
avoiding strenuous exercise to limit stress on abdominal muscles and impair peristalsis
assisting the patient to as normal position as possible to defecate
How many mLs does the bladder hold before we get the desire to void?
When do most children develop urinary control?
Between the age of 1 and 2.
Before the age of 1.
Between the ages 5 and 7.
Between the ages of 2 and 5.
What are liquids that decrease urine formations?
High sodium content beverages
Anticoagulants may cause hematuria. (blood in urine)
Diuretics can lighten the color of urine to pale yellow.
Phenazopyridine can turn the urine black or brown.
Antidepressants or Beta complex vitamins turn the urine pale yellow.
Antiparkinson drugs can turn your urine black or brown.
Anuria is 24-hour urine output less than 500mL.
Dysuria is pain or difficult urination.
Oliguria is an increased amount of urine over a given amount of time.
Polyuria is excessive output of urine. (diuresis)
Pyuria is pus in the urine and makes it appear cloudy.
Stress incontinence is coughing, sneezing, laughing, or other physical activities like childbirth, menopause, obesity, or straining.
Reflex urination is experiencing emptying of the bladder without the sensation of the need to void.
Total incontinence is urine loss caused by the inability to reach the toilet because of environmental barriers, physical limitations, loss of memory, or disorientation.
Total Incontinence is a continuous and unpredictable loss of urine, resulting from surgery, trauma, or physical malformation.
For a clean voided (midstream), a sterile urine specimen is not required for a routine uri-nalysis. Collect urine by having the patient void into a clean bedpan
Sterile specimen means that the patient voids and discards a small amount of urine; continues voiding in a sterile specimen container to collect the urine.
Characteristics of healthy urine (select all that apply):
Straw colored, pale yellow, or amber
Clear or translucent
Odor is aromatic
pH is 3.0 ( 2.0-5.0)
Gravity is 2.005-2.030
Intravenous pyelogram is the radiographic examination of the kidney and ureter after a contrast material is injected intravenously. It is used to diagnose kidney and ureter disease and impaired renal function.
Cystoscopy is the direct visual examination of the bladder, ureteral oriﬁces, and urethra with a cystoscope. It is used to view, diagnose, and treat disorders of the lower urinary tract, interior bladder, urethra, male prostatic urethra.
Retrograde pyelography is the radiographic and endoscopic examination of the kidneys and ureters after a contrast material is injected into the renal pelvis through the ureter.
Antibody is an immunoglobin produced by the body in response to a specific antigen.
Antigen is a foreign material capable of inducing a specific immune response.
Anaerobic is bacteria that require oxygen to live and grow.
Aerobic is bacteria that require oxygen to live and grow.
An animal or person on or within which microorganisms live.
An infection that occurs as a result of a treatment or diagnostic procedure.
Medical asepsis is practices designed to reduce the number and transfer of pathogens; synonym for clean technique.
Surgical asepsis are practices that render and keep objects and areas free from microorganisms; synonym for sterile technique.
A vector can be (select all that apply):
Virulence is the inability to produce a disease.
Exudate is a fluid that accumulates in a wound; may contain serum, cellular debris, bacteria, and white blood cells.
Drainage that is comprised of white blood cells, liquefied dead tissue debris, and both dead and live bacteria.
Drainage that is a mix of serum and red blood cells.
Drainage that is composed of clear, serous portion of the blood and from serous membranes.
Incubation period, prodromal stage, full stage of illness, and the convalescent period are the stages in order of an infection.
A person is most infectious during the incubation stage.
Incubation Period is the interval period between the pathogen’s invasion of the body and the appearance of symptoms of infection.
Convalescent period is the recovery period of an infection.
What are the cardinal signs and symptoms of inflammation?
Loss of function
The protective mechanism to the inflammatory response is localization, attack, remove dead damaged tissue and repair/replace.
When the injury is flooded with blood to promote wound healing is called vasoconstriction.
Vasoconstriction is when the wound is confined of blood to limit tissue damage.
During the cellular response there is increased cellular permeability and WBCs move into area-Clean wound-consume debris which results in pain, edema, loss of function.