Jeff Carter
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Jeff Carter
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Pulmonology Exam

Question 1 of 55

1

These signs and symptoms are indicative of which of the following?
-Inc. CO2 Retention -Inc. Mucus -Orthopneic -Exertional Dyspnea -1-2 Word Dyspnea -Prolonged Expiratory Time -Thin Appearance
-No Cyanosis -Ineffective Cough -Barrel Chest -Easily Fatigued -Anxious -Use of Accessory Muscles -Leads to R Sided Heart Failure
-Purse Lip Breathing -Bronchi Collapse on Expiration -SOB -Wheezing -Frequent U.R.I.s -Digital Clubbing

Select one of the following:

  • Pulmonary emphysema

  • Chronic bronchitis

  • Asthma

  • Right sided failure

  • Left sided failure

Explanation

Question 2 of 55

1

Define Respiration:

Select one of the following:

  • The exchange of air into and out of the lungs.

  • The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the organism and the environment. A cellular level of exchange.

Explanation

Question 3 of 55

1

Define Ventilation:

Select one of the following:

  • The exchange of air into and out of the lungs.

  • The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the organism and the environment. A cellular level of exchange.

Explanation

Question 4 of 55

1

Where should the distal end of an ETT be if it is correctly placed?

Select one of the following:

  • The right mainstem bronchi

  • The left mainstem bronchi

  • The larynx

  • Just superior to the carina

Explanation

Question 5 of 55

1

What is Atelectasis?

Select one of the following:

  • The natural balance the body tries to maintain.

  • The collapse or partial collapse of a lung caused by deflation of the alveoli.

  • The counter movement caused by 2 or more breaks in 2 or more consecutive ribs.

  • The inflammation of the abdomen caused by alcoholism or poor liver function.

Explanation

Question 6 of 55

1

Which of the following is true of the diaphragm? (Choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • It is the primary mover of the respiratory system

  • It is the secondary mover of the respiratory system

  • It is controlled by the phrenic nerve

  • It is controlled by the vagus nerve

  • It is involved in inhalation, which is a passive process

  • It is involved in inhalation, which is an active process

  • It is involved in exhalation, which is a passive process

  • It is involved in exhalation, which is an active process

Explanation

Question 7 of 55

1

What is the term given to the lining of the outside of the lungs?

Select one of the following:

  • Parietal Pleura

  • Visceral Pleura

  • Pleurisy

  • Pleuritis

Explanation

Question 8 of 55

1

What is the rubbing of the visceral and parietal pleura called?

Select one of the following:

  • Parietal Pleura

  • Visceral Pleura

  • Pleurisy

  • Pleuritis

Explanation

Question 9 of 55

1

What is the term given to the inner lining of the chest cavity?

Select one of the following:

  • Parietal Pleura

  • Visceral Pleura

  • Pleurisy

  • Pleuritis

Explanation

Question 10 of 55

1

How are ventilations regulated on a healthy, conscious patient? (Choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • By the medulla

  • By the pons

  • By the vagus nerve, via stretch receptors

  • By the phrenic nerve, via chemoreceptors

  • By changes in the partial pressure of O2, detected by chemoreceptors in the carotid arteries, aorta, and the medulla

  • By changes in the partial pressure of CO2, detected by chemoreceptors in the carotid arteries, aorta, and the medulla

Explanation

Question 11 of 55

1

What is the normal SpO2 range for a patient with COPD?

Select one of the following:

  • 95-100%

  • 80-100%

  • 88-92%

  • 85-90%

Explanation

Question 12 of 55

1

Which of the following can cause interference with diffusion of O2 and CO2 particles accross the alveolar membrane? (Choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Trauma

  • Fluid in interstital spaces

  • Thickening of the endothelial lining

  • Increased intrathoracic pressure due to inhalation

  • A fever

Explanation

Question 13 of 55

1

What does our body require for good pulmonary perfusion? (Choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Adequate blood volume

  • Intact pulmonary capillaries

  • Efficient pumping action by the heart

Explanation

Question 14 of 55

1

Obstruction due to trauma, infection, or foreign body in the lower or upper airway can cause disruption in ventilations.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 15 of 55

1

Which of the following are signs of a life threatening problem with regards to the assessment of the respiratory system? (Choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Altered Mental Status (AMS)

  • Severe central cyanosis, pallor, or diaphoresis

  • Absent or abnormal breath sounds

  • 1-2 word dyspnea

  • Tachycardia

  • Use of accessory muscles or presence of retractions

  • Doubled over grasping the knees

  • Systolic blood pressure of 115

Explanation

Question 16 of 55

1

Which of the following are causes for disruption of ventilations? (Choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Obstruction due to trauma, foreign body, or infection

  • Pneumothorax

  • Hemothorax

  • Flail chest

  • Neuromuscular disease/defect

  • Pyrogenic reaction

  • Carpopedal spasms

  • Cirrhosis

  • Hysterosalpingo-oophorectomy

Explanation

Question 17 of 55

1

Proper ventilation cannot take place without which of the following? (Select one)

Select one of the following:

  • Respirasomes

  • An adequate airway

  • Mast cells

  • A nose

Explanation

Question 18 of 55

1

Which of the following indicate respiratory distress?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tripod position

  • Sniffer's position

  • Retractions

  • Purse lip breathing

  • Grunting

  • Ability to speak in full sentences

  • 1-2 word dyspnea

  • Blue or pink skin

  • Altered mental status

  • Excessive accessory muscle usage

Explanation

Question 19 of 55

1

Which of the following is the term for hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen?

Select one of the following:

  • oxyhemoglobin

  • hypoxyhemoglobin

  • hyperoxyhemoglobin

  • carboxyhemoglobin

Explanation

Question 20 of 55

1

Which of the following can cause a false reading on an SpO2 sensor?

Select one of the following:

  • Potassium Chloride

  • Hydrogen Peroxide

  • Sodium Bicarbonate

  • Carbon Monoxide

Explanation

Question 21 of 55

1

Which of the following can cause disruption in perfusion?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Alteration in blood flow

  • Change in hemoglobin availability

  • Pulmonary shunting

  • Smoking

  • A hard night of drinking

  • Atelectasis

  • Ascites

Explanation

Question 22 of 55

1

What is the first thing you should check when arriving on scene?

Select one of the following:

  • Your zipper

  • A pulse

  • Respirations

  • Scene safety

Explanation

Question 23 of 55

1

What Is characterized by sudden and severe shortness of breath at night that can wake a person up can cause coughing and wheezing.

Select one of the following:

  • Night Terrors

  • Paraoxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea

  • Myocardial Infarction

  • Ascites

Explanation

Question 24 of 55

1

Which of the following are important to ask in an OPQRST history?

Select one or more of the following:

  • What makes it better/worse

  • Allergies

  • What made you call us today

  • How bad is it (scale of 1-10)

  • How long has it been going on

  • How do you feel

  • Are you currently taking any medications

Explanation

Question 25 of 55

1

Which of the following refers to blood produced with coughing?

Select one of the following:

  • Hemoptysis

  • Hematuria

  • Hemetheratabar

  • Melena

Explanation

Question 26 of 55

1

Which of the following does Pneumonia produce?

Select one of the following:

  • Brown/Rusty tinged

  • Yellow/White and thick

  • Hemoptysis

  • Boogers

Explanation

Question 27 of 55

1

Which of the following does Asthma or Bronchitis produce?

Select one of the following:

  • Brown/Rusty tinged

  • Yellow/White and thick

  • Hemoptysis

  • Boogers

Explanation

Question 28 of 55

1

Which of the following does TB produce?

Select one of the following:

  • Brown/Rusty tinged

  • Yellow/White and thick

  • Hemoptysis

  • Boogers

Explanation

Question 29 of 55

1

What is another term for paradoxical movement?

Select one of the following:

  • Flail chest

  • Thoracic spasms

  • Intrathoracic impotence

  • Contralateral chest syndrome

Explanation

Question 30 of 55

1

Crackles in the skin are indicitave of __________.

Select one of the following:

  • Acne

  • Pneumonia

  • Air leaking from the respiratory system

  • Flail chest

Explanation

Question 31 of 55

1

What 3 things should you do for a physical examination of the respiratory system?

Select one of the following:

  • Palpate, measure, and inspect

  • Inspect, palpate, and percuss

  • Stop, drop, and roll

  • Look, listen, and learn

Explanation

Question 32 of 55

1

What is a major difference between asthma and emphysema?

Select one of the following:

  • Emphysema patients are barrel chested all the time, Asthma patients are only barrel chested when they are having an exacerbation

  • There is no difference

  • Asthma patients have wheezes, Emphysema patients do not

  • Asthma patients will have anxiety as one of their symptoms, Emphysema patients will not

Explanation

Question 33 of 55

1

Which of these patients are known as "Pink Puffers?"

Select one of the following:

  • Pulmonary Emphysema

  • Pulmonary Embolism

  • Asthma

  • Chronic Bronchitis

Explanation

Question 34 of 55

1

What kind of sound is snoring?

Select one of the following:

  • Upper airway obstruction

  • Lower airway obstruction

  • Fluid in lower airway

  • Atelectasis

Explanation

Question 35 of 55

1

Which breath sound could be described as ominous, inspiratory, and in the upper airway?

Select one of the following:

  • Snoring

  • Stridor

  • Wheezing

  • Rales

Explanation

Question 36 of 55

1

Which breath sound is associated with being "musical?"

Select one of the following:

  • Wheezing

  • Rales

  • Snoring

  • Ronchi

Explanation

Question 37 of 55

1

Which of the following can be described as coarse and rattling?

Select one of the following:

  • Ronchi

  • Rales

  • Stridor

  • Eupnea

Explanation

Question 38 of 55

1

Which of the following could be described as crackles?

Select one of the following:

  • Rales

  • Ronchi

  • Stridor

  • Wheezing

Explanation

Question 39 of 55

1

What does PEFR stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Peak Expiratory Flow Rate

  • Perfusing Even Flow Rate

  • Pulmonary Edema Friction Rub

  • Pulmonary Education For Rehab

Explanation

Question 40 of 55

1

Which of the following indicates chronic hypoxia?

Select one of the following:

  • Swelling

  • Streaks

  • Finger clubbing

  • Cyanosis

Explanation

Question 41 of 55

1

Define Pulsus Paradoxus:

Select one of the following:

  • When you have paradoxical movement of the chest resultant of multiple fractures of 2 or more consecutive ribs

  • When there is a drop of 10 or more mmHg in systolic blood pressure on inhalation due to increased intrathoracic pressure

  • Inflammation of the abdomen due to increased pulse rate

  • The collapse of the alveoli due to a lack of surfactant

Explanation

Question 42 of 55

1

Which of the following can provide a false positive when using capnography? (Choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Antacid use

  • Carbonated beverages

  • ACE inhibitors

  • Diuretics

Explanation

Question 43 of 55

1

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?

Select one of the following:

  • 12-20 per minute

  • 15-30 per minute

  • 25-50 per minute

Explanation

Question 44 of 55

1

What is the age at which patients are determined to be adults?

Select one of the following:

  • 8

  • 12

  • 16

  • 18

Explanation

Question 45 of 55

1

What is the normal respiratory rate for a child (1-8 yrs)?

Select one of the following:

  • 12-20 per minute

  • 15-30 per minute

  • 25-50 per minute

Explanation

Question 46 of 55

1

What is the normal respiratory rate for an infant (<1 yr)?

Select one of the following:

  • 12-20 per minute

  • 15-30 per minute

  • 25-50 per minute

Explanation

Question 47 of 55

1

Which of the following are the basic principles of Respiratory Distress management?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Maintain the airway, use an advanced of an airway as you feel comfortable with ASAP. Maintainting airway patency is the priority.

  • Maintain the airway, start with basic airway maintenance and advance from there. Always protect C-Spine if trauma is suspected.

  • Any patient with respiratory distress should receive O2.

  • O2 should never be withheld from a patient with suspected hypoxia.

  • Put an OPA in every patient, regardless of consciousness.

  • Give every patient with respiratory distress an albuterol treatment, it can't hurt them.

Explanation

Question 48 of 55

1

The number 1 cause of upper airway obstruction is ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • blood

  • the tongue

  • bronchoconstriction

  • mucus and surfactant

Explanation

Question 49 of 55

1

What does ARDS stand for?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome

  • Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

  • Acute Repositional Dyspnea Sleep

  • Alive but Ready to Die for Shit

Explanation

Question 50 of 55

1

COPD can be caused by all of the following: Sepsis, Aspiration, PNA, Pulmonary Injury, Burns/Inhalation Injury, O2 Toxicity, Drugs, High Altitude, Hypothermia, Near Drowning Syndrome, Head Injury, Pulmonary Embolism, Tumor Destruction, Pancreatitis, Invasive Procedures (Bypass, Hemodialysis), Hypoxia, Hypotension, or Cardiac Arrest.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 51 of 55

1

What are the 3 -ates of managing an Asthma patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Oxygenate, Dilate, Hydrate

  • Oxygenate, Inflate, Hydrate

  • Hydrate, Elevate, Palpate

  • Oxygenate,Elevate, Hydrate

Explanation

Question 52 of 55

1

Which way will the trachea deviate if the patient has a collapsed left lung?

Select one of the following:

  • Right

  • Left

  • It won't

Explanation

Question 53 of 55

1

Which way will the trachea deviate if the patient has a tension pneumothorax on the right side?

Select one of the following:

  • Right

  • Left

  • It doesn't

Explanation

Question 54 of 55

1

Which of the following are signs and symptoms of left sided failure? (Choose all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

  • Elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

  • Blood tinged sputum

  • Cough

  • Orthopnea

  • Exertional dyspnea

  • Cyanosis

  • Cor pulmonale

  • Pulsus paradoxus

  • Ascites

Explanation

Question 55 of 55

1

Which of the following are indicative of right sided heart failure?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Fatigue

  • Increased peripheral venous pressure

  • Ascites

  • JVD

  • Anorexia and complaints of GI distress

  • Cyanosis

  • Dependent edema

  • Thin

  • Anxious

  • Onset before age 12 years

Explanation