Lachlan Matheson
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Lachlan Matheson
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Mid Course Exam Prep - EP's

Question 1 of 114

1

What is windshear?

Select one of the following:

  • A change in wind direction and/or speed including rapidly rising and falling columns of air known as updrafts and downdrafts

  • Wind that pushes through the engines of an aircraft

  • A dragon like creature that is known to hide in the cargo hold and cause turbulence near takeoff and landing

  • A hydraulic control system pilots activate to reduce aircraft speed for takeoff and landing

Explanation

Question 2 of 114

1

Thunderstorms are classified as severe weather hazards. Why?

Select one of the following:

  • Thunderstorms can be associated with heavy rain, hail and strong wind gusts. They ensure flying is difficult due to unstable air and moisture.

  • Thunderstorms scare people and this could cause people to devise a plan to break into the flight deck and crash the aircraft.

  • Thunderstorms always have lightning which could strike the aircraft and break it into a million peices inflight.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 3 of 114

1

When must Cabin Preflight Serviceability Checks be completed?

Select one of the following:

  • Prior to passengers boarding.

  • As soon as you place your bag in the overhead locker during crew boarding. I can still complete my Cabin Preflight Serviceability Checks even if passengers are boarding.

  • When the CSM makes a PA for crew

  • Ground staff are responsible for completing these checks, therefore cabin crew do not need to complete them unless during boarding they notice a suspicious HOT item.

Explanation

Question 4 of 114

1

When must unserviceable/missing cabin equipment be reported?

Select one of the following:

  • Immediately to the CSM once known during Cabin Preflight Serviceability Checks.

  • During the "Cabin Preflight Serviceability Checks Callback" from the CSM..

  • Immediately directly to the flight crew, who will check the MEL (Minimum Equipment List) and notify whether any further action required.

  • Inform CSM only if you feel it places all passengers/crew at danger.

Explanation

Question 5 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: Crash Axe

Select one of the following:

  • Present.

  • Present and Unused.

  • Present, Vacuum Sealed and Tightly Compressed.

  • Present and Tamper Prevention integrity seals in place.

Explanation

Question 6 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: 1.5 kg BCF

Select one of the following:

  • Check red plastic disc is intact in rear of handle.

  • Present.

  • Present and within expiry date.

  • Pressure gauge needle in red band.

Explanation

Question 7 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: PBE (Personal Breathing Equipment)

Select one of the following:

  • Tamper prevention integrity seals in place and foil pack vacuum seal intact (tightly compressed).

  • Present.

  • To be conducted by Engineering Personnel.

  • Present and and foil pack vacuum seal intact (tightly compressed).

Explanation

Question 8 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: 310 Litre Portable Oxygen Cylinder (SINGLE OUTLET)

Select one of the following:

  • Pressure gauge needle between the green band and FULL.

  • Pressure gauge needle in the red band.

  • Pressure gauge needle between the green band.

  • Present.

Explanation

Question 9 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: 310 Litre Portable Oxygen Cylinder (MULTI OUTLET)

Select one of the following:

  • Pressure gauge needle in the red band.

  • Pressure gauge needle between the green band and FULL.

  • Present.

  • Pressure gauge needle in the red band and FULL.

Explanation

Question 10 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: Portable Therapeutic Mask

Select one of the following:

  • Present.

  • Present, unopened.

  • Foil pack vacuum seal is intact.

  • Present and sealed.

Explanation

Question 11 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: Emergency First Aid Kit

Select one of the following:

  • Present and sealed.

  • Present.

  • Present and all items within expiry.

  • Nil

Explanation

Question 12 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: Dangerous Goods Spill Kits

Select one of the following:

  • Present and sealed.

  • Present.

  • Present and seal is intact.

  • Nil.

Explanation

Question 13 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: Infant Lifejacket

Select one of the following:

  • Present.

  • Present and uninflated.

  • Present and sealed.

  • Present and vacuum sealed (tightly compressed).

Explanation

Question 14 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: Emergency Locator Beacon

Select one of the following:

  • Present.

  • Present and unused.

  • Present and in original packaging.

  • Nil.

Explanation

Question 15 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: DME Torch

Select one of the following:

  • Present, safety-wired, red light blinking.

  • Present.

  • Present and red light blinking.

  • Nil.

Explanation

Question 16 of 114

1

What is the Preflight Serviceability Check of: Megaphone

Select one of the following:

  • Present.

  • Present with battery operational.

  • Present and operational.

  • Nil.

Explanation

Question 17 of 114

1

Where is the Crash Axe located?

Select one of the following:

  • Flight deck.

  • Cabin crew rest compartment.

  • Flight deck and cabin crew rest compartment.

  • In the CSM station.

Explanation

Question 18 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

What is the operation or use of the Crash Axe?

Select one or more of the following:

  • As an aid while fighting fires inflight, use spiked end to lever or pry a panel open if fire source is
    difficult to locate.

  • To assist with clearing physical obstructions in the event of a crash, eg to chop/clear jammed
    doors or windows, broken seats or other obstructions to allow exit.

  • As a basic survival aid in a remote area. Use to chop wood for fires and shelter, dig for roots, cut
    vines, etc.

  • To attack passengers who are unruly and non-compliant.

  • To be provided to an Air Security Officer (ASO) upon request.

Explanation

Question 19 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

What are the precautions of a BCF EXTINGUISHER?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Protective Breathing Equipment should be worn.

  • Before discharging a BCF extinguisher on the flight deck, oxygen masks and smoke goggles (as
    installed) should be put on and crew oxygen regulators set 100% (diluter lever).

  • Do not allow any metal part of the extinguisher to make contact with live wires.

  • If fighting fluid fires avoid getting too close to reduce risks of scattering or splashing fluid surface.

  • BCF has been shown not to be effective on combustible metal fires (class D) but it can be effective
    in fighting the subsequent fire of surrounding material.

Explanation

Question 20 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the AEPM)

Correctly order the OPERATION OR USE of a BCF.




Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Push up red catch.
    Aim at the base if fire.
    Squeeze the handle.
    Sweep the flames.

Explanation

Question 21 of 114

1

What is the optimum range for use of a BCF?

Select one of the following:

  • 1.5 to 2 meters.

  • 1 meter.

  • 2 meters.

  • Crew to decide based on intensity of flame.

Explanation

Question 22 of 114

1

As per the AEPM, how many degrees should the BCF be held?

Select one of the following:

  • Hold within 60 degrees of vertical.

  • Hold within 45 degrees of vertical.

  • Hold within 90 degrees of vertical.

  • Hold horizontal (180 degrees)

Explanation

Question 23 of 114

1

What is the minimum duration of a BCF?

Select one of the following:

  • 10 seconds.

  • 15 seconds.

  • 8 seconds.

  • 30 seconds.

Explanation

Question 24 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

What are the precautions of a PBE?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Be careful not to damage the neck seal when fitting. Be aware of glasses, necklaces and earrings.

  • Remove scarves and ensure long hair is contained within the neck seal inside the hood.

  • After use do not use water to cool the canister.

  • Do not expose device directly to flame.

  • Remove expired hood away from fire, built up oxygen in hood can be highly flammable.

  • Use PBE if you have had a big night out on the town and need some supplementary oxygen.

  • Ensure all crew utilise PBE to scare little children on Halloween.

Explanation

Question 25 of 114

1

Where should activated PBE be placed to cool down?

Select one of the following:

  • In a safe place on a heat resistant surface (galley bench)

  • On the carpet in the aisle.

  • In the flight deck.

  • In one of the overhead lockers.

Explanation

Question 26 of 114

1

What is the minimum duration of a PBE as per the AEPM?

Select one of the following:

  • 15 minutes

  • 10 minutes

  • 5 minutes

  • 8 minutes

Explanation

Question 27 of 114

1

What is the flow rate for 310 litre portable oxygen cylinders?

Select one of the following:

  • HI flow (4 LPM)

  • HI flow (4 MLPM)

  • LO flow (2 LPM)

  • LO flow (4 LPM)

Explanation

Question 28 of 114

1

What is the estimated duration of a SINGLE or MULTI oxygen cylinder used according to our AEPM?

Select one of the following:

  • 70-75 minutes

  • 70 minutes

  • 140-150 minutes

  • 100 minutes

Explanation

Question 29 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

What are the precautions for Portable Oxygen Cylinders?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Avoid bumping/dropping the cylinder.

  • No ignition sources within four metres of oxygen equipment.

  • Remove make-up from the person before administering oxygen.

  • When administering oxygen to a passenger, the cylinder must be secured, to prevent movement
    and possible injury during turbulence or other unanticipated aircraft movement.

  • Flight deck oxygen cylinders must not be used for passengers if there is oxygen remaining in the
    passenger cabin cylinders. The Captain's approval is required prior to the use of these cylinders
    for passengers.

  • Always use oxygen for intoxicated passengers.

  • The captain must provide authorisation for cabin crew to administer oxygen to passengers.

Explanation

Question 30 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the AEPM)

Please order the correct operation of a SKYBLAZER XLT FLARE.





Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Hold muzzle away from eye level (90 deg)
    Press on top until flare drops down.
    Pull flare down to lock in place.
    Unscrew cap.
    Pull chain to activate flare.

Explanation

Question 31 of 114

1

What is the duration of the PORTABLE EMERGENCY LOCATOR BEACON?

Select one of the following:

  • 24 hours

  • 48 hours

  • 12 hours

  • 72 hours

Explanation

Question 32 of 114

1

What is the duration of the DME TORCH?

Select one of the following:

  • 4 hours

  • 2 hours

  • 6 hours

  • 24 hours

Explanation

Question 33 of 114

1

What is the brace command?

Select one of the following:

  • “Brace, Brace, Brace”
    “Heads Down, Stay Down” (repeated)

  • “Brace, Brace, Brace” (repeated)
    “Heads Down, Stay Down” (repeated)

  • “Brace, Brace, Brace”
    “Heads Down, Stay Down”

  • “Brace, Brace, Brace”

Explanation

Question 34 of 114

1

Irrespective of who initiates the Brace Command, during a no contact period all crew must:

Select one of the following:

  • Conform and repeat
    the brace command.

  • Not conform.

  • Not conform and interphone flight crew.

  • Not conform and leave seat harness to ask crew member why they have initiated brace command.

Explanation

Question 35 of 114

1

If the brace command is initiated by cabin crew, during taxi all crew must:

Select one of the following:

  • Not conform and await further instructions from a PA.

  • Conform and repeat the brace command.

  • Not conform and leave seat harness to ask crew member why they have initiated brace command.

  • Conform and immediately commence evacuation commands.

Explanation

Question 36 of 114

1

In a prepared Land or Ditching Emergency, when the PA is unserviceable, passengers are briefed that when ___________________________________, Cabin Crew will commence the “Brace” command.

Select one of the following:

  • seat belt signs flash and chime

  • seat belt signs and no smoking signs flash and chime

  • no smoking signs flash and chime

  • lavatory occupied/not occupied signs flash and chime

Explanation

Question 37 of 114

1

What command alerts other crew and passengers that your door/exit is useable?

Select one of the following:

  • “Come This Way”

  • “Get Out”

  • “Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate”

  • "Pull Tag"

Explanation

Question 38 of 114

1

What are the crew commands for a land evacuation once it has been ordered?

Select one of the following:

  • Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate.
    Seatbelts Off.
    High Heels Off.

  • Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate.
    Unfasten Seatbelts.
    High Heels Off.

  • Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate.
    High Heels Off.
    Unfasten Seatbelts.

  • Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate.
    High Heels Off.
    Seatbelts Off.

Explanation

Question 39 of 114

1

What are the initial commands for ditching when an aircraft has stopped in the water?

Select one of the following:

  • Seatbelts Off.
    Fit Lifejackets.
    High Heels Off.

  • Seatbelts Off.
    High Heels Off.
    Fit Lifejackets.

  • Fit Lifejackets they are located
    under your seat/armrest.
    High Heels Off.

  • Come This Way.
    Get Out.
    Pull Tag.

Explanation

Question 40 of 114

1

While taxiing to the runway, a weird and unusual clicking noise was heard by Left 1, George. He notified the Capitano immediately through a "PP" interphone call. A PA was conducted shortly after advising passengers and crew a precautionary disembarkation was going to take place from Right 5 via the Stairs. You are seated in Right 5. The PA has just ceased. Choose the best course of action.

Select one of the following:

  • Commence precautionary disembarkation commands ("Remain Seated, High Heels Off")
    Disarm door Right 5
    Await door opening by ground staff
    Once door usable ("Seatbelts Off, Come This Way, Move Down The Stairs")
    Once passenger flow ceased and area checked, notify CSM precautionary disembarkation complete.
    All crew to exit via Right 5

  • Commence precautionary disembarkation commands ("Remain Seated, High Heels Off")
    Disarm door Right 5
    Await door opening by ground staff
    Once door usable ("Seatbelts Off, Come This Way, Move Down The Stairs")
    Once passenger flow ceased and area checked, notify CSM precautionary disembarkation complete.
    Crew to exit through their primary door.

  • Commence precautionary disembarkation commands ("Remain Seated, High Heels Off")
    Disarm door Right 5
    Await door opening by ground staff
    Once door usable ("Seatbelts Off, Come This Way, Move Down The Stairs")
    Once passenger flow ceased and area checked, disembark through Right 5.

  • Commence precautionary disembarkation commands ("Remain Seated, High Heels Off")
    Disarm door Right 5
    Open door Right 5
    Once door usable ("Seatbelts Off, Come This Way, Move Down The Stairs")
    Once passenger flow ceased and area checked, notify CSM precautionary disembarkation complete.
    All crew to exit via Right 5

Explanation

Question 41 of 114

1

While your escape slide is inflating during an evacuation; a passenger is attempting to get past your guard position. Which is the best course of action?

Select one of the following:

  • Tense in the guard position to ensure you are still blocking the exit and minimise potential to fall out. Continue to yell commands. If the passenger persists, let him/her fall to his death.

  • Remain in the guard position; however, move to the right side to allow him to pass on the left.

  • Leave the guard position, allowing the doorway to be clear for passengers to jump onto an un-inflated slide.

  • Immediately interphone the Captain of this outrageous behaviour. Obtain the flexi-cuffs and strap him into the nearest seat.

Explanation

Question 42 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

In an evacuation using an escape slide, to reduce the chance of injury, a Crew member should:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Jump well clear of the girt bar area.

  • Drop into seated position with legs straight, feet shoulder width apart and toes pointed back.

  • Lean well forward by placing their hands on their knees to slow the descent.

  • Be aware that deceleration pads at the bottom of the slide will assist them returning to a standing position.

  • Keep moving to let their momentum carry them away from the bottom of the slide.

  • Jump as high and far forward from the aircraft onto the slide.

  • Instruct passengers to remain seated on the bottom of the escape slide.

Explanation

Question 43 of 114

1

During a CSM's emergency announcement, Cabin Crew:

Select one of the following:

  • Immediately stand at standard safety demonstration position and listen to CSM's PA.

  • Assist passengers.

  • Talk over the PA to nearby passengers.

  • Sit in jump seat, fasten harness.

Explanation

Question 44 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

The Captain is responsible for initiating the evacuation.
Flight Crew order evacuation by as many means as possible. Select them below:

Select one or more of the following:

  • PA “Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate”.

  • Verbal evacuation order by first Flight Crew Member entering cabin.

  • Emergency Evacuation Signal System (if installed).

Explanation

Question 45 of 114

1

If you consider crew safety and that of the passengers is in direct danger and believe an evacuation should occur:

Select one of the following:

  • You must attempt to contact the flight crew before initiating an evacuation.

  • You must commence evacuation commands and attempt to contact the flight crew to inform them of the evacuation in progress.

  • Sit in your jumpseat with nil action because you assume the Captain knows of the toxic smoke filling the cabin.

  • You must attempt to contact the flight crew before initiating an evacuation. Should the flight crew not respond in a reasonable time period, you can order an evacuation. You must use all means necessary to ensure all passengers/crew are aware of your evacuation in progress.

Explanation

Question 46 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the AEPM)

Correctly order the land evacuation impact drill (generic aircraft):









Drag and drop to complete the text.

    As Directed by Captain, Commence Evac...
    Check Door/Exit safe to open.
    Open Door/Exit (armed)
    Ensure correct inflation.
    Direct passengers.
    Take Torch, check your area, assist o...
    Evacuate.
    Assist on ground.
    Door Unusable - Remain, Block, Redire...

Explanation

Question 47 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the AEPM)

Correctly order the land evacuation impact drill ASSIST (generic aircraft):





Drag and drop to complete the text.

    As directed by Captain, commence evac...
    Assume role of incapacitated primary.
    Establish even flow of passengers to ...
    When all assistance rendered, evacuate.
    Assist on ground.

Explanation

Question 48 of 114

1

A Precautionary Disembarkation is an emergency situation where the passengers disembark the aircraft as quickly as it is deemed safe. The pace of a Precautionary Disembarkation is slower to minimise injury. A Precautionary Disembarkation may be upgraded to an evacuation if the situation requires and in this instance all primary escape routes, providing they are safe, must be opened.

Doors that are not nominated to be opened will remain:

Select one of the following:

  • Armed

  • Disarmed by crew immediately

  • Armed and then disarmed always if an evacuation is commenced.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 49 of 114

1

The Captain will declare an Alert Phase if there is a need to assess the safety of the Aircraft while on the ground. It would usually commence with which of the following PA's from the flight deck?

Select one of the following:

  • “Attention! All passengers remain seated and await further instructions.”

  • "All cabin crew and passengers must be seated with their seatbelts securely fastened."

  • "Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate"

  • “Ladies and Gentlemen, thank you for your co-operation. Remain seated. Cabin Crew resume normal duties.”

Explanation

Question 50 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

Which of the following scenarios will occur in isolation or combination after an Alert PA phase?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cancellation of the Alert Phase.

  • Precautionary Disembarkation using steps.

  • Precautionary Disembarkation using slides.

  • Evacuation.

Explanation

Question 51 of 114

1

The aircraft has just come to a complete stop in the water. The PA "Attention, this is a ditching, follow your Crew Member’s instructions" has NOT been made by the flight crew.

As a Cabin Crew door primary, what are your next actions?

Select one of the following:

  • Initiate Ditching Impact Drills.

  • Attempt to call the flight crew using a "PP" call to seek permission to open doors and activate sliderafts.

  • Attempt to call the CSM to seek permission to open doors and activate sliderafts.

  • Remain seated in your jumpseat and await PA from flight crew. Utilise the Alert PA Command to passengers: "Remain Seated".

Explanation

Question 52 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the AEPM)

Correctly order the Ditch Impact Drill PRIMARY (generic aircraft):









Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Commence Initial Ditching Commands. F...
    Check Door/Exit safe to open.
    Open Door/Exit
    Ensure correct inflation.
    Direct passengers.
    Take torch, check your area, assist o...
    Ensure beacon taken.
    Evacuate
    Door/Exit unuseable, remain, block, r...

Explanation

Question 53 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the AEPM)

Correctly order the Ditch Impact Drill ASSIST (generic aircraft):





Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Commence initial ditching commands an...
    Assume role of incapacitated primary.
    Establish even flow of passengers to ...
    When passenger flow established — boa...
    Assist in slideraft/raft.

Explanation

Question 54 of 114

1

During a prepared ditch, the cabin has been secured for ditching. Passengers are aware of what they need to action. They have been briefed by the Captain and CSM.
The flight crew will make a PA when close to touchdown “Attention! Cabin Crew resume your seats immediately.” You move to you jumpseat and begin your silent review.

Before touchdown, flight crew order "brace, brace, brace" over the PA. Approximately how long before touchdown does this occur?

Select one of the following:

  • 15 seconds

  • 30 seconds

  • 1 minute

  • 2 minutes

Explanation

Question 55 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

Fire protection is part of the design of an aircraft. The flight crew can control extinguishing systems from the flight deck. This automatically extinguishes the fire in certain components/areas of the aircraft. Select those areas controlled by the flight crew below:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Engines

  • Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)

  • Cargo hold

  • Lavatory

  • Galley

  • IFE screens in the back of headrest of passengers seats

  • Waste bins

Explanation

Question 56 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the AEPM)

The basic fire drill involves a minimum of three crew members. List in the correct order their roles:



Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Fire Fighter
    Communicator
    Backup

Explanation

Question 57 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

The first crew member to observe any smoke or flames becomes the fire fighter and they must obtain which equipment:

Select one or more of the following:

  • BCF

  • PBE

  • Fire Retardant Gloves

  • Additional uniform for added protection

Explanation

Question 58 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

During an inflight fire, the communicator must Immediately notify the Flight Crew and other crew by making an ‘ALL STATIONS emergency call from an interphone nearest to the affected area. They must confirm that Flight Crew have responded to the ALL STATIONS (emergency call).

Select the items below which form the clear and concise description of the incident you provide to the flight crew:

Select one or more of the following:

  • The location and if you see smoke and/or flames.

  • The intensity and type of smoke and/or flames.

  • Colour of any smoke.

  • Density of smoke

  • Actions being taken by crew.

  • Results following crew actions.

  • Passenger in seat 14B wants a Gin and Tonic.

Explanation

Question 59 of 114

1

If the fire fighter has discharged a BCF. Then the backup crew member must fit PBE and relieve first fire fighting crew member. Try to obtain a situation brief from the fire fighter.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 60 of 114

1

Passenger Oxygen Masks will automatically deploy from the PSU at approximately:

Select one of the following:

  • 14,000ft

  • 10,000ft

  • 12,000ft

  • 15,000ft

Explanation

Question 61 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

An oven incident can be caused by an electrical fault or build up of grease in the oven. Electrical incidents have a distinctive smell which helps determine the type of fire you may be confronting.

When encountered with an oven incident (smoke only), crew will:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Switch off electrical power supply (if possible).

  • Keep door closed.

  • Implement Basic Fire Drill.

  • Spray BCF into oven.

  • Open oven door 2–5cm.

Explanation

Question 62 of 114

1

If at any time crew detect the presence of heat, smoke or fire the Basic Fire Drill should be implemented.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 63 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

Loss of cabin pressure at cruise altitude may be classified as:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Explosive

  • Gradual

  • Sudden

  • Slow

  • Rapid

  • Hypoxia

Explanation

Question 64 of 114

1

What is the estimated time of useful consciousness at 30,000ft?

Select one of the following:

  • 45 seconds

  • 1 minute

  • 2 minutes

  • 3 minutes

Explanation

Question 65 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

Should the cabin altitude reach an unsafe level which of the following will occur?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Oxygen masks drop from Passengers Service Units (PSU) located in lavatories and above all seats.

  • Cabin lighting illuminates to maximum brightness on some aircraft.

  • No Smoking and Fasten Seat Belt signs illuminate.

  • Automatic PA instructs passengers how to use the oxygen masks. The PA repeats three times.

  • Crew should command "Brace, Brace, Brace" immediately

  • The CSM will don portable oxygen and walk through the cabin immediately to check for injuries in order to notify the flight crew.

Explanation

Question 66 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the AEPM)

In relation to the CABIN CREW NON-NORMAL CHECKLIST DEPRESSURISATION, without delay, Cabin Crew are to systematically accomplish all Recall Items. Recall Items are critical steps that must be accomplished from memory.

Please order them below correctly:




Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Nearest Oxygen Mask - DON
    Nearest Seat - OCCUPY
    Seat Belt - FASTEN
    Passengers - INSTRUCT

Explanation

Question 67 of 114

1

Visible indications of hypoxia include:
‐ Blueness around fingertips and lips.
‐ Laboured breathing.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 68 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

Gases expand and contract in the human body and can cause problems during variations of cabin altitude.
Select the sites for trapped gases below:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Ears

  • Sinuses

  • Abdomen/Intestines

  • Teeth

  • Anus

  • Mouth

  • Fingertips

Explanation

Question 69 of 114

1

Decompression sickness is also known as gas bubble formation and 'the bends'. In decompression sickness the nitrogen dissolved in the blood is forced out of solution by decreased atmospheric pressure.

Occurrence is most common in scuba divers if they are exposed to a rapid decrease in pressure when surfacing from a long dive. Flying aggravates this condition by decreasing the atmospheric pressure further.

As you are a crew member it is important to ask passengers about the timeframe between diving and flying during boarding if you suspect they have been engaged in these activities. Ultimately you are ensuring they have a safe and comfortable flight. Keep in mind you should allow 24 hours to elapse between scuba diving and flight duties.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 70 of 114

1

When attempting to contact the flight crew, in the event that the Flight Crew do not answer an interphone call, a second call should be made after approximately _________________. You are worried potentially they are incapacitated.

Select one of the following:

  • 10 seconds

  • 30 seconds

  • 1 minute

  • 2 minutes

Explanation

Question 71 of 114

1

Utilising the counter threat response model, an attack on the flight deck is classified as:

Select one of the following:

  • Level 4

  • Level 2

  • Level 5

  • Level 3

Explanation

Question 72 of 114

1

The carriage of Dangerous Goods on Qantas aircraft is primarily governed by CASA in virtue of:
• the Australian Civil Aviation Act Section 23, and
• the Australian Civil Aviation Safety Regulations (CASRs).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 73 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

Select which Dangerous Goods which are acceptable for carriage in the passenger cabin – must not be used in flight under any circumstances.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cigarette lighters or matches

  • Hair curlers containing hydrocarbon gas.

  • Nail polish remover or other toiletry articles which may produce strong vapours or noxious fumes.

  • Facial moisturiser

  • Hairspray

  • Coffee

Explanation

Question 74 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the AEPM)

After a ditching emergency the following immediate actions should be completed aboard the raft:














Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Establish Command
    Distribute Occupants Evenly
    Release from Aircraft
    Search For/Recover Survivors
    Deploy Sea Anchor
    Recover Survival Pack From Water
    Erect Canopy
    Beacon
    Obtain First Aid Kit
    Obtain Distress Flares and Torch
    Appoint Look Outs Day and Night
    Distribute Water to Infants and Injured
    Raft Maintenance
    Liferaft Not Available

Explanation

Question 75 of 114

1

The HELP (Heat Escape Lessening Posture) position ensures that a person retains body heat by remaining motionless with their head out of the water.
The inner sides of the arms are held tight to the sides of the chest and the thighs are raised to close off the groin region. The head is above the water.

This posture gives an increase in predicted survival time of nearly _________.

Select one of the following:

  • 25%

  • 50%

  • 75%

  • 100%

Explanation

Question 76 of 114

1

During boarding or transit, Cabin Crew shall assume that __________________________ whenever the Seat Belt signs are extinguished.

Select one of the following:

  • refuelling is taking place

  • the aircraft is running off APU

  • there is an aircraft issue

  • a hijacking is taking place

Explanation

Question 77 of 114

1

During refuelling, the cabin requires two crew members to man the main aft doors. Moving forward in the cabin, only 1 crew member is required for every subsequent pair of doors. This allows them to access left and right doors.

How many rows are cabin crew allowed to move out of their zone for Premium Economy?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 Seat Row

  • 2 Seat Rows

  • 3 Seat Rows

  • 4 Seat Rows

Explanation

Question 78 of 114

1

The flight deck door is not allowed to remain permanently open during preflight and passenger boarding?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 79 of 114

1

Prior to exiting the flight deck, all crew members look through the peephole before opening the door.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 80 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the AEPM)

Where passenger carry-on baggage is required to be stowed in the hold for any reason, the passenger must be asked whether the baggage contains any dangerous goods. Select below dangerous goods that are permitted in carry-on baggage, but not in hold-stowed baggage

Select one or more of the following:

  • Spare lithium batteries or lithium ion cell batteries.

  • Mercury barometers or thermometers.

  • Fuel cell systems and spare fuel cartridges.

  • Hair spray

  • Laptop

  • Mobile phone

Explanation

Question 81 of 114

1

If cabin baggage is excessive the CSM shall arrange for stowage in the hold after allowing the passenger to remove any medication, valuables and any dangerous goods that are permitted as carry-on baggage but not hold-stowed baggage.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 82 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the CCOM)

Select all the additional items allowed onboard for our passengers.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Small items of duty free goods provided they can be stowed safely in overhead lockers or under the seat.

  • A ladies handbag or purse which is appropriate to normal travelling dress and is not being used as a container for the transportation of articles that would otherwise be regarded as baggage.

  • An overcoat, wrap or blanket.

  • An umbrella or walking stick.

  • A small camera and/or pair of binoculars.

  • Reading material for the flight.

  • A pair of crutches/other prosthetic devices provided the passenger is dependent.

  • A fully collapsible wheelchair, which could be stowed in the hold once the passenger is seated.

Explanation

Question 83 of 114

1

The accepted minimum dress standard for commercial passengers, male or female, on Qantas aircraft is:
• clean T-shirt or singlet top (not torn or displaying offensive language and/or graphics).
• clean shorts.
• footwear.
If a passenger’s dress standard does not meet this basic requirement, ground personnel shall ask the passenger to conform.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 84 of 114

1

Who makes the final decision to offload passengers?

Select one of the following:

  • Pilot In Command

  • CSM

  • Cabin Crew

  • Airport Personnel

Explanation

Question 85 of 114

1

“Intoxication” for these purposes means an individual who appears to be affected by alcohol to the point of no longer having their normal control, their judgement or that they no longer have the use of all their intellectual/physical faculties.

Civil Aviation Regulations (CAR256) prohibit a person entering any aircraft while in a state of intoxication.

Cabin Crew may refuse alcoholic service to disruptive passengers and prohibit the consumption of alcohol brought onboard the aircraft by any passenger.
Under no circumstance must reference be made to intoxication, drugs or unsoundness of mind. Such conditions can be confirmed only by a medical practitioner and a false accusation could render Qantas liable to legal action by the person concerned.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 86 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the CCOM)

What are the most common signs of intoxication?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Reduced coordination.

  • Changed pace of speech.

  • Sleepiness.

  • Face flushing.

  • Slurred speech.

Explanation

Question 87 of 114

1

For a single normal pregnancy, what is the latest time a woman is permitted to fly?

Select one of the following:

  • Not after 36th week of pregnancy

  • Not after 34th week of pregnancy

  • Not after 32nd week of pregnancy

  • Not after 38th week of pregnancy

Explanation

Question 88 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the CCOM)

A passenger with a disability is defined by CAO 20.16.3 as a person requiring special attention because of illness, injury, age, congenital malfunction or other incapacity or disability, either temporary or permanent, which makes that person unable, without special facilities or assistance, to utilise air transportation facilities and services as effectively as persons who are not so affected.

Select whom will be classified as a passenger with a disability:

Select one or more of the following:

  • physical disabilities (ie mobility limitations).

  • mental illness.

  • intellectual disabilities.

  • learning disabilities.

  • autism.

  • epilepsy.

  • medical conditions that render them physically or psychologically disabled.

  • are deaf or hearing impaired.

  • are blind or vision impaired.

  • cannot speak (mute).

Explanation

Question 89 of 114

1

A passenger with a disability and the carer, must be given an individual preflight safety briefing appropriate to their needs on the procedures to be followed in the event of an evacuation.
The crew member responsible for the zone where the passenger is seated must ensure that a personal briefing is given appropriate to the passenger’s needs, usually prior to general boarding as passengers with a disability usually board first.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 90 of 114

1

A Cabin Crew member must give UMs a safety briefing and indicate the location of the exits, oxygen mask, lifejacket, seat belt and Safety Onboard card as well as instructions on disembarkation procedures. A general orientation of the aircraft, service and facilities is to be given. Ensure their seat belt is securely fastened and they are able to undo their seat belt. Advise the UM that in the event of an emergency they should leave the aircraft with the other passengers and remain with them until Cabin Crew exit the aircraft and resume responsibility.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 91 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the CCOM)

The HOT Principle can be used by Aircrew to make an initial assessment if confronted by doubtful or suspicious article/unknown substance in the course of their duties.

Order the HOT principle below:



Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Is the item Hidden?
    Is the item Obviously suspicious?
    Is the item not Typical of that area?

Explanation

Question 92 of 114

1

Where is the Passenger Restraint Pack stored on the aircraft?

Select one of the following:

  • Overhead lockers

  • With the Physician's Kit

  • In the forward galley

  • Under Right 5 jump seat

Explanation

Question 93 of 114

1

When assist crew members or Supernumerary crew members are not available an ABP should be nominated to provide assistance. The CSM, in conjunction with their crew, should carefully select the ABP. What should not influence the decision?

Select one of the following:

  • Gender

  • Alcohol intake.

  • Level of fluency in English.

  • Nature of work or background.

Explanation

Question 94 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the CCOM)

All Cabin Crew will sign on via computer. This is to ensure compliance with the applicable Civil Aviation Acts and Regulations and Company Policy.
By signing on, a Cabin Crew member is confirming that they:

Select one or more of the following:

  • have collected their manual amendments.

  • have read, understood, will comply with and are proficient in the requirements of the Cabin Crew Operations Manual suite, current Cabin Standing Orders published and the latest Service and Safety information contained in qfcrew.com.

  • have, a valid ASIC ID card, current passport/visa and health documents in their possession

  • are not carrying cash (in any currency) equal to or greater than A$10,000. Any currency equal to or greater than A$10,000, will be reported to a Customs Officer before leaving Australia.

Explanation

Question 95 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the CCOM)

Prior to each duty period, the CSM will conduct a briefing to the Cabin Crew.
The briefing MUST cover:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Major aircraft differences.

  • Major operational and safety changes

  • Flight deck access codes (both emergency and normal).

  • Emergency equipment and security check.

  • At least one current CCOM revision/CSO question.

  • Work position allocation.

  • Miscellaneous business.

Explanation

Question 96 of 114

1

Prior to passenger boarding the CSM will make the following PA: “Cabin Crew equipment call back”

What is your response as Right 5 primary to the all stations call back?

Select one of the following:

  • "Right 5, name, emergency equipment and security checks complete, door disarmed pin inserted" > Remain on interphone until call back complete and CSM ceases call.

  • "Right 5, name, emergency equipment and security checks complete, door disarmed pin inserted"

  • "name, Right 5, emergency equipment and security checks complete, door disarmed pin inserted"

  • "Right 5, name, emergency equipment and security checks complete, door armed"

Explanation

Question 97 of 114

1

To ensure the safety of passengers and crew, Cabin Crew members must not interfere with the safety equipment onboard.

Cabin Crew members must never:
• Deactivate smoke detectors.
• Deactivate chiller switches without permission or direction from the Flight Crew.
• Place foreign objects in air conditioning vents or light fixtures.

If crew members observe a colleague tampering with any aircraft equipment, they shall.....

Select one of the following:

  • address the issue with them immediately and report it to the CSM, who will in turn advise the Captain.

  • address the issue with them immediately, no further action required if they stop tampering.

  • inform the CSM immediately.

  • inform the Captain immediately.

Explanation

Question 98 of 114

1

If the aircraft is refuelling during boarding, the CSM is to make the appropriate PA, at intervals of approximately ______ minutes until refuelling is complete.

Select one of the following:

  • 5

  • 10

  • 15

  • 20

Explanation

Question 99 of 114

1

Who has the authorisation to accept passengers onto the aircraft for boarding?

Select one of the following:

  • Pilot In Command

  • CSM

  • Ground staff

  • Cabin crew

Explanation

Question 100 of 114

1

Which PA will the CSM make to commence boarding?

Select one of the following:

  • “Cabin Crew, please get ready to welcome our customers”.

  • "Cabin Crew, please move to your boarding positions".

  • "Cabin Crew, we are ready to board".

  • "Cabin Crew, boarding".

Explanation

Question 101 of 114

1

Passengers may board with a hot beverage in a cup, provided the cup is fitted with a secure lid.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 102 of 114

1

All passengers, excluding infants, shall wear footwear with a sole to board the aircraft. Socks are also permitted and are classified as footwear.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 103 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the CCOM)

Select the passengers below who shall not be seated in an emergency exit row due to seating restrictions in exit rows.

Select one or more of the following:

  • children travelling alone who are less than 15 years of age.

  • passengers travelling with infants.

  • Passengers who require an infant/extension seat belt.

  • deportees or Persons In Custody.

  • passengers with a disability that impairs their ability to move quickly in the event of an emergency.

  • passengers requiring hearing aids or visual aids other than glasses or contact lenses.

Explanation

Question 104 of 114

1

(This question may contain multiple answers; please select all correct answers as per the CCOM)

In order for the final door to be closed, the CSM must ensure that:

Select one or more of the following:

  • All passengers are seated

  • Overhead lockers secured

  • There is enough alcohol to last the flight.

  • Ground personnel have disembarked.

  • All necessary paperwork is onboard.

Explanation

Question 105 of 114

1

The commencement of NO-CONTACT sterile flight deck begins:

Select one of the following:

  • When the final door of the aircraft is closed.

  • The aircraft is taxiing to the runway.

  • The airway commences it's takeoff roll.

  • Gear up.

Explanation

Question 106 of 114

1

The re-opening of any aircraft door after the final main deck door has been closed, and the aircraft is awaiting pushback, must be approved by the Captain and coordinated with the CSM, Ground Engineer and MOCO (where available).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 107 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the CCOM)

You hear “Cabin Crew ARM doors and cross check” over the PA. What are your actions?




Drag and drop to complete the text.

    ARM your designated door.
    Check your door is ARMED.
    Cross check opposite door ARMED.
    Return to your designated door, await..

Explanation

Question 108 of 114

1

Upon completion of the safety demonstration, how long do you have to complete securing the cabin and be seated for takeoff/ready for CSM callback?

Select one of the following:

  • 30 seconds

  • 1 minute

  • 2 minutes

  • 3 minutes

Explanation

Question 109 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the CCOM)

The CSM advises “Cabin Crew commence silent review” prior to takeoff.

List OLDABC below:





Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Operation of Doors/Exits
    Location of Equipment
    Drills (Impact)
    Able Bodied and Disabled Passengers
    Brace Position and Signal
    Commands

Explanation

Question 110 of 114

1

If it is deemed necessary to illuminate the Seat Belt signs for unanticipated light turbulence, the Flight Crew are to make the following PA: “All passengers and crew be seated and fasten seat belts.”

How long do you have to secure carts, galleys (including galley curtains), items of service equipment and the passenger cabin and be seated in your jump seat?

Select one of the following:

  • 30 seconds

  • 1 minute

  • 2 minutes

  • 3 minutes

Explanation

Question 111 of 114

1

In the event of unanticipated turbulence that poses an immediate safety hazard, the Seat Belt signs shall be illuminated and the following PA shall be made by the Flight Crew: “All passengers and crew be seated and fasten seat belts IMMEDIATELY.”

What is the Cabin Crew reaction?

Select one of the following:

  • Cabin Crew will lock carts in position and secure themselves in the nearest seat or wedge themselves in the aisle.

  • You understand you have 1 minute to return to your seat for some turbulence.

  • You sit on the ground immediately.

  • You run towards the nearest phone to call the flight crew to ask why there is unexpected turbulence.

Explanation

Question 112 of 114

1

How long prior to the Seat Belt signs being illuminated for landing do the Flight Crew will give the following PA: "Cabin Crew prepare the cabin for landing"?

Select one of the following:

  • 10 minutes

  • 1 minute

  • 5 minutes

  • 15 minutes

Explanation

Question 113 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the CCOM)

The Door Primary is the only Cabin Crew member who may DISARM their designated door.
You are in close proximity to the terminal. The Flight Crew make a PA: “Cabin Crew DISARM doors and cross check.”

What are your immediate actions?



Drag and drop to complete the text.

    DISARM your designated door.
    Check door DISARMED.
    Cross check opposite door DISARMED.
    Return to designated door, awaiting d...

Explanation

Question 114 of 114

1

(This question requires you to order the correct procedure; as per the CCOM)

List the procedure if you inadvertently begin to open a door in armed mode.





Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Attempt to stop door opening before p...
    Reclose door.
    Rotate handle to CLOSED position.
    Notify the Captain immediately.
    Notify the CSM, who will CCSIR
    Make an entry in the Cabin/IFE Log.

Explanation