Jorge Linero
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Examen de adición boeing 787

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Jorge Linero
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BOEING 787_1

BOEING 787_1

Question 1 of 200

1

What are the 2 types of Toolbox?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Toolbox Remote and Toolbox Online

  • b. Toolbox Internet and Toolbox Local

  • c. Toolbox Remote and Toolbox Web

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

Where is Toolbox Remote data stored?

Select one of the following:

  • a. On an airline server

  • b. On a Boeing server

  • c. On the hard drive of the ML

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

Where is Toolbox Online data stored?

Select one of the following:

  • a. On an airline server

  • b. On a Boeing server

  • c. On the hard drive of the ML

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

Look at this DMC: DMC-B787-A-23-15-00-01A-300B-A. What is the 6-digit ATA code
included in the number?

Select one of the following:

  • a. A-23-15

  • b. 23-15-00

  • c. 15-00-01

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

To find maintenance procedures or fault isolation data in Toolbox, select the:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Data Manager Tab.

  • b. Library Tab.

  • c. Structures Tab

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

In Toolbox, which tab gives access to the FIM Fault Finder page?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Data Manager Tab.

  • b. Systems Tab.

  • c. Structures Tab

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

Toolbox Remote gives access to more maintenance data than Toolbox Online.

Select one of the following:

  • a. True

  • b. False

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

Which of the following data you cannot find in Toolbox Remote?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Fault isolation data

  • b. Schematics and wiring diagrams

  • c. Supplier data

  • d. Parts data

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

Which of the following components are not in the common computing resource (CCR)
cabinets?

Select one of the following:

  • a. General processor modules (GPM)

  • b. ARINC 664 network cabinet switches (ACS)

  • c. Remote data concentrators (RDC)

  • d. Fiber optic translator (FOX) modules

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

In which CCS components are the hosted software applications for airplane systems
stored?

Select one of the following:

  • a. General processor modules (GPM)

  • b. ARINC 664 network cabinet switches (ACS)

  • c. Remote data concentrators (RDC)

  • d. Fiber optic translator (FOX) modules

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

What is the purpose of the fiber optic translator (FOX) modules?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Changes A664 signals to electrical A429

  • b. Changes light signals to electrical and vice versa

  • c. Changes A429 signals to electrical

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

ARINC 664 network cabinet (ACS) switches:
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one of the following:

  • a. Have 2 channels.

  • b. Have fiber optic ARINC 664 connections.

  • c. Have electrical ARINC 664 connections.

  • d. Connect to the general processor (GPM) modules

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

The ARINC 664 network remote switches (ARS):
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one of the following:

  • a. Connect to the remote data concentrators (RDC).

  • b. Connect to the fiber optic translator (FOX) modules.

  • c. Have ARINC 429 connections.

  • d. Filter, monitor, and forward data.

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

The Remote data concentrators (RDC) have:
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one of the following:

  • a. Fiber optic connections.

  • b. ARINC 429 connections.

  • c. Analog and analog discrete connections.

  • d. Controller area network (CAN) bus connections

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

Which components are parts of the common data network (CDN)?
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one of the following:

  • a. ARINC 664 network cabinet (ACS) switches

  • b. General processor modules (GPM)

  • c. ARINC 664 network remote (ARS) switches

  • d. Fiber optic translator (FOX) modules

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

When does the common core system (CCS) power-up in the inhibited mode?

Select one of the following:

  • a. In the air. Either fuel control switch in RUN. No Fuel Cutoff switch data is available.

  • b. In the ground. Either fuel control switch in RUN. No Fuel Cutoff switch data is available.

  • c. In the air. Either fuel control switch in CUTOFF. No Fuel Cutoff switch data is available.

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

You apply power to the airplane on battery power only. How long does it take for the
displays to show?

Select one of the following:

  • a. About 50 seconds

  • b. About 100seconds

  • c. About 150 seconds

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

In flight, all displays go blank. The flight crew pushes the L CCR reset switch. What
happens?

Select one of the following:

  • a. The power conditioning modules in the CCR cabinet remove the power to the cabinet
    modules in the left CCR cabinet

  • b. The power conditioning modules in the CCR cabinet remove and reapply power to the
    cabinet modules in the left CCR cabinet

  • c. The power conditioning modules in the CCR cabinet reapply power to the cabinet
    modules in the left CCR cabinet

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

Some components have a direct connection with the CDN (they do not go through RDCs).
Where can you see the status of these connections?

Select one of the following:

  • a. On the DCAS maintenance pages

  • b. On the ATA 31 maintenance pages

  • c. On the CCS maintenance pages

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

To make alert indications, the caution and warning system uses:
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one of the following:

  • a. EICAS messages.

  • b. comm/warning speakers.

  • c. Master warning/caution lights.

  • d. Fail flags.

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

What 2 signals must the stick shaker motors receive before they operate?

Select one of the following:

  • a. 28v dc from an RPDU and ground signal from an RDC

  • b. 28v dc from an RPDU and ground signal from CRN

  • c. 28v dc from an RPDU and ground signal from an CCS

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

During a warning condition, you push a master warning light. What happens?
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one of the following:

  • a. The related EICAS warning level message goes away.

  • b. The master warning light goes off.

  • c. The aural alert may stop.

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

Which are the major components of the primary display system (PDS)?
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one of the following:

  • a. Graphics generators (GG)

  • b. Head-down displays (HDD)

  • c. General processor modules (GPM)

  • d. Head-up displays (HUD)

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

What components format display data and make the images for the displays?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Graphics generators

  • b. GPM

  • c. RDC

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

Which switches change the primary flight display (PFD) to narrow format and move it to the
inboard head-down display (HDD)?

Select one of the following:

  • a. ND/EFIS switches

  • b. ND/PFD switches

  • c. PFD/MFD switches

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

What device do you use to move the cursor to the onside electronic flight bag (EFB)?

Select one of the following:

  • a. CCD

  • b. EFB

  • c. MFD

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

What 2 devices can you use to control the cursor on the multifunction displays?

Select one of the following:

  • a. EFB and CURSOR CONTROL switch on the MFD

  • b. CCD and CURSOR CONTROL switch on the MFK

  • c. CCD and CURSOR CONTROL switch on the EFIS/DSP

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

To transfer the EICAS display from the captain inboard DU to the first officer inboard DU:

Select one of the following:

  • a. Push the EICAS button on the EFIS/DSP.

  • b. Push the MFD R switch.

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

How do you show the vertical situation display (VSD) on the navigation display (ND)?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Select VSD from the pull-down menu

  • b. Select VSD from the MFK

  • c. Select VSD from the PFD

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

The MANUAL snapshot column for CARGO HEAT says SHOW LIST. What does this
mean?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. There is 1 manual snapshots stored

  • b. There are 2,3,4 or 5 automatic snapshots stored

  • c. There are 2,3,4 or 5 manual snapshots stored

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

In the core network cabinet, the non-flight critical components connect to the:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Isolated Data Network.

  • b. Open Data Network.

  • c. Common Data Network

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

The airport terminal cannot communicate with the airplane terminal wireless network. There
may be a problem in the:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Common data network (CDN).

  • b. Isolated Data Network (IDN).

  • c. Open data network (ODN).

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

The airline engineering department transmits a loadable software airplane part (LSAP) to
the airplane for later installation. Put the components in the sequence in which the LSAP
data flows to the airplane.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 1st Terminal wireless local area network unit (TWLU) antenna, 2nd Terminal wireless
    local area network unit (TWLU) module, 3rd Ethernet gateway module (EGM), 4th File
    server module (FSM)

  • b. 1st Terminal wireless local area network unit (TWLU) antenna, 2nd File server module
    (FSM), 3rd Terminal wireless local area network unit (TWLU) module, 4th Ethernet
    gateway module (EGM)

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

The wireless network antenna on the top of the fuselage is the:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Terminal wireless LAN unit (TWLU) antenna.

  • b. Crew wireless LAN unit (CWLU) antenna.

  • c. ADF antenna

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

The core network cabinet connects to the airplane common data network (CDN) with:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Electrical buses.

  • b. Fiber optic buses.

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

What is the maximum number of maintenance laptop wired connections to the airplane?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 3

  • b. 4

  • c. 5

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

Ethernet ports for a maintenance laptop wired connection are:
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. On the flight deck.

  • b. On the P40 panel on the nose landing gear.

  • c. In the forward E/E bay.

  • d. In the aft E/E bay.

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

The maintenance laptop-to-airplane connections are:
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Internet.

  • b. Wired.

  • c. Wireless

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

The maintenance control display function (MCDF) task bar shows:
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. User ID.

  • b. Current flight leg.

  • c. Tail ID.

  • d. Connection type.

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

Which connection types permit all maintenance functions?
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Wired

  • b. Wireless Initial

  • c. Wireless Full

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

The maintenance laptop-to-airplane connection is Wireless Full. On the Airplane Functions
Menu, ODLF shows as not active because:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The connection type must be wired for ODLF to be active.

  • b. The GND TEST switch is not in the DATA LOAD / ENABLE position.

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

To get access to Toolbox Remote from the Maintenance Control Display Function (MCDF)
task bar, select the:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. AIRPLANE FUNCTIONS button.

  • b. SUPPORT FUNCTIONS button.

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

The low range radio altimeter system fails. Fault data goes to the primary display system
(PDS) and CMCF. CMCF shows a:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. non-correlated maintenance message.

  • b. correlated maintenance message.

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

A sensor has a fault and sends fault data to CMCF. There is no flight deck effect (FDE).
CMCF shows a:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. non-correlated maintenance message.

  • b. correlated maintenance message.

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

The airplane is on the ground and power is applied. The engines are not operating. The
EICAS message, EFIS/DSP PANEL L, shows. The CMCF shows a:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. fault code with no maintenance message.

  • b. non-correlated maintenance message.

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

The airplane arrives at the gate with status messages. Which CMCF selection do you use
to show correlated maintenance messages from the last flight only?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. EXTENDED MAIN > INBOUND FLIGHT DECK EFFECTS

  • b. LINE MAIN > INBOUND FLIGHT DECK EFFECTS

  • c. EXTENDED MAINT > PRESENT LEG FAULTS 60. Where do you see non-correlated
    maintenance messages from the last flight leg?

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

If a fault tolerant system is one fault away from making an FDE, the CMCF makes a:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. SCHEDULED MAINTENANCE TASK.

  • b. MAINTENANCE MEMO.

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

For most ground tests, the GND TEST switch must be in the:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. NORM position.

  • b. ENABLE position

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

The maintenance laptop is on and you are logged in. The laptop is connected to the
airplane. What are the steps to show the CMCF main menu on the laptop?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Show MCDF toolbar > Select Airplane Functions > Select MCDF

  • b. Show MCDF toolbar > Select Support Functions > Select CMCF

  • c. Show MCDF toolbar > Select Airplane Functions > Select

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

A technician repairs a fault. The system test passes and the maintenance message shows
NOT ACTIVE for the fault. He/she signs off the logbook. The next flight crew reports the
status message still shows. What did the technician NOT do that he/she should have done?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Erase the latched maintenance message

  • b. Erase the latched status message

  • c. Clear the fail in the Logbook

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

What program do you use to load the LSAPs from the file server module (FSM) on the
airplane to airplane systems?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. OSM (On board Storage Management)

  • b. ODLF (On board Data Load Function)

  • c. SMT (Software Maintenance Tool)

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

What program do you use to see and delete loadable software airplane parts (LSAP) stored
on the file server module (FSM) on the airplane?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. OSM (On board Storage Management)

  • b. ODLF (On board Data Load Function)

  • c. SMT (Software Maintenance Tool

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

Which devices can you use to see and delete loadable software parts (LSAPs) on the
airplane?
(Select the incorrect response.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Maintenance laptop

  • b. Electronic flight bag (EFB)

  • c. Multifunction display (MFD)

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

Which function monitors, records, and reports airplane conditions such as engine
performance and trend analysis of maintenance data?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. CMCF

  • b. ACMF

  • c. ODLF

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

To download digital audio data from the flight recorder (FR):

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Connect the maintenance laptop to any Ethernet port and use the Flight Recorder
    Download function to start the download.

  • b. Remove the FR from the airplane and send the FR to the shop.

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

The recorder independent power supply (RIPS) provides backup power to:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The forward flight recorder (FR).

  • b. The aft flight recorder (FR).

  • c. The Maintenance laptop download software.

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

The B787 is a twin engine airplane for medium and long range flights with Three certified
versions:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 787-800, 787-900, 787-1000

  • b. 787-8, 787-9, 787-10

  • c. 787-80, 787-90, 787-100

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

Which is the longer version of the B787?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 787-8

  • b. 787-10

  • c. 787-9

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

Two of the new features of B787 are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Cabin altitude of 6000 ft and larger dimmable windows

  • b. Cabin altitude of 8000 ft and larger dimmable windows

  • c. Cabin altitude of 6000 ft and standard dimmable windows

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

How many E/E bays have the B787?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. One

  • b. Two

  • c. Three

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

The B787 uses ONLY Electronic Circuit Breakers (ECB)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. YES, the ECB are accessed electronically through Multi-Function Displays

  • b. YES, the ECB are accessed electronically through Multi-Function Displays and E/E
    bays

  • c. NO, the ECB are accessed electronically through Multi-Function Displays and Thermal
    CB (TCB) are viewed electronically through Multi-Function Displays and controlled
    manually through E/E bays

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

The COCKPIT overhead panel is named also as:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. P4 panel

  • b. P5 panel

  • c. P6 panel

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

The B787 system which uses software applications and common processors to calculate
data to operate many airplane system functions is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. CCS – Common Core System

  • b. CCS – Computerized Cored System

  • c. CCS – Cabin Computer System

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

The CCS uses the CDN (Common Data Network), which interconnects all the CCS
components with the airplane systems using:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Fiber Optic, protocol ARINC 664

  • b. Fiber Optic, protocol ARINC 429

  • c. Fiber Optic, protocol ARINC 600

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

The CCS uses ___Common Computing Resource (CCR) cabinets which have PCM (Power
Conditioning Modules), GPM (General Processing Modules), GG (Graphic Generators),
FOX (Fiber Optic Translators) and ACS (A664 cabinet switch) modules.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 1

  • b. 2

  • c. 3

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

Eight _______ in each CCR cabinet have software programs that calculate data for many
airplane systems:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. GPM (General Processing Modules)

  • b. GG (Graphic Generators)

  • c. FOX (Fiber Optic Translators)

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

The ___________________ keeps software and data for airplane systems. It also supplies
wired and wireless connections for the flight crew and the airplane maintenance.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Cabin Core System

  • b. Common Core Network

  • c. Core Network

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

The __________ system shows surveillance video, airport maps, charts, and the electronic
logbook which decreases the need for paper documents.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Electronic Flight Bag (EFB)

  • b. Electronic Flight Back (EFB)

  • c. Electrical Flight Browser (EFB)

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

The system used by maintenance personnel which collects and stores maintenance data
for airplane systems. Also processes faults and does system tests:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Common Core System (CCS)

  • b. Crew Information System (CIS)

  • c. Central Maintenance Computing Function (CMCF)

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

Which of the following is true:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The access to Central Maintenance Computing Function (CMCF) only is possible using
    the Maintenance Laptop

  • b. The access to Central Maintenance Computing Function (CMCF) is possible using the
    Maintenance Laptop and the EFB

  • c. The access to Central Maintenance Computing Function (CMCF) is possible using the
    Maintenance Laptop, the EFB and limited access using the Primary Display System

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

How many Ethernet WIRED ports have the 787 to connect the Maintenance Laptop?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. One

  • b. Two

  • c. Three

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

Can you access to the maintenance manuals (ToolBox application) using the Maintenance
Laptop?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Yes, you can access Toolbox using the Support Functions of Maintenance Control and
    Display Function (MCDF)

  • b. Yes, you can access ToolBox connecting ONLY the Maintenance Laptop to Internet

  • c. No, is not possible use the ToolBox with the Maintenance Laptop

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

How many Flight Recorders have the B787?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. One

  • b. Two

  • c. Three

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

The B787 Electrical System:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Uses 2 Variable Frecuency Starter Generators (VFSG) - 235VAC on each engine and
    2 APU Starter Generators (ASG)- 235 VAC

  • b. Uses 1 Variable Frecuency Starter Generators (VFSG) - 235VAC on each engine and
    1 APU Starter Generators (ASG)- 235 VAC

  • c. Uses 2 Variable Frequency Starter Generators (VFSG) - 115VAC driven by each
    engine and 2 APU Starter Generators (ASG)- 115 VAC

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

The B787 electrical system:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Uses 200 VAC, 270 VDC, 115 VAC and 28VDC

  • b. Uses 235 VAC, 270 VAC, 115 VAC and 28VDC

  • c. Uses 235 VAC, 270 VDC, 115 VAC and 28VDC

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

How many External Powers can be connected on the B787?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. One

  • b. Two

  • c. Three

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

You can access to Circuit Breaker Indication and Control (CBIC) to operate the Electronic
Circuit Breakers (ECB) and check the status of Thermal Circuit Breakers (TCB) using:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Multi-Function Displays (MFD) and Maintenance Laptop

  • b. Only Maintenance Laptop

  • c. Only MFD in the cockpit

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

___ Electrically-driven cabin air compressors (CAC) supply compressed external air to the
air conditioned packs for airflow and for cabin pressurization. This design eliminates the
engine bleed requirement, increasing the engine efficiency.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 2

  • b. 4

  • c. 6

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

Which of the following is not a component of the air conditioning pack:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Air Cycle Machine

  • b. Primary Heat Exchanger

  • c. Smoke Detector

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

What is the source of hot air for the air conditioning system?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Cabin Air Compressors (CAC)

  • b. Engine Bleed Pneumatic System Air

  • c. Heat Exchanger Air

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

How many air recirculation fans have the B787 air conditioning system?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Two Recirculation fans in the upper crown area

  • b. Two Recirculation fans in the aircraft lower part

  • c. Two Recirculation fans, one in the upper crown area and two in the aircraft lower part

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

How many Outflow valves are installed in the B787?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. One

  • b. Two

  • c. Three

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

The __________________________ (PECS) is a liquid cooling system that decreases the
temperatures of the High-Voltage Direct Current (HVDC) equipment and the supplemental
cooling units.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Power Electronics Cooling System

  • b. Power Elemental Calibrated System

  • c. Pure Elemental Cooling System

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

The forward and aft equipment cooling is performed using:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Liquid cooling

  • b. Air

  • c. Do not require cooling

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

The B787 have installed ___ hydraulic systems with pressure of ______ psi.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 3; 3000

  • b. 2; 5000

  • c. 3; 5000

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

The B787 hydraulic system uses ___ engine driven pumps and ___ motor pumps.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 2; 4

  • b. 4; 4

  • c. 4; 2

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

The hydraulic ground servicing system lets you fill the 3 hydraulic reservoirs from 1 location,
exactly in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Right wheel well

  • b. Left wheel well

  • c. Forward wheel well

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

The Main and Nose Landing Gear use hydraulic pressure from the:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Right Hyd. System

  • b. Center Hyd. System

  • c. Left Hyd. System

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

The B787 braking system uses ______ actuators on each wheel.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Hydraulic

  • b. Pneumatic

  • c. Electrical

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

The 4 __________ (FCE) cabinets provide manual and automatic control of the airplane
pitch, roll and yaw axes. The FCE cabinets also provide manual and automatic control of
the speedbrakes and leading and trailing edge high lift surfaces.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Flight Computer Equipment

  • b. Flight Control Electronics

  • c. Flight Control Equipment

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

Which of the following groups compose the B787 communication systems:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Flight Interphone System, VHF Comm., DME, HF, SELCAL, SATCOM, Data
    Communication Management, ELT, Service Interphone, Flight Deck Entry Video

  • b. Flight Interphone System, VHF Comm., HF, SELCAL, SATCOM, Data Communication
    Management, ELT, Service Interphone, ADF, Flight Deck Entry Video

  • c. Flight Interphone System, VHF Comm., HF, SELCAL, SATCOM, Data Communication
    Management, ELT, Service Interphone, Flight Deck Entry Video

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

Which computer processes and manage the B787 Pitot-Static Systems:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Fight Computer Equipment - FCE

  • b. Flight Control Electronics - FCE

  • c. Air Data Computers – ADC

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

The B787 __________ ERS calculates aircraft parameters such us heading, velocity and
position.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Earth Reference System

  • b. Elevation Reference System

  • c. Estimated Reference System

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

The GPS, ILS, VOR and Marker Beacon system information is received and processed by
the following component:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Aircraft Receiver Radio – ARR

  • b. Integrated Navigation Radio – INR

  • c. Common Core System – CCS

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

The ATC, TCAS, Weather Radar WXR, Terrain Awareness System –TAWS system
information is received and processed by the following system:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Integrated Surveillance System - ISS

  • b. Aircraft Surveillance System - ASS

  • c. Common Core System – CCS

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

The AFDS operates in two modes, autopilot and Flight Director; the______ FCE has the
Auto flight function software.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Flight Computer Equipment

  • b. Flight Control Electronics

  • c. Flight Control Equipment

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

The ________ TMS can automatically control the engine thrust in all phases of flight from
takeoff to approach, landing and go around.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Thrust Management System – TMS

  • b. Takeoff Management System – TMS

  • c. Thrust Manipulating System – TMS

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

There are ___ fuel tanks for fuel storage.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 1

  • b. 2

  • c. 3

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

The B787 incorporates the ATA 47 Nitrogen Generation System?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Yes

  • b. No

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

The B787 APU provides:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Pneumatic and Electrical power

  • b. ONLY Pneumatic power

  • c. ONLY Electrical power

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

The B787 is powered by the following type of engines:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. RR Trent 700

  • b. RR Trent 1000

  • c. RR Trent Next Generation

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

The ________ (CSS) lets the flight attendant monitor and control these systems:
Passenger Address System – PAS, Passenger Services System (PSS), Cabin Interphone
System (CIS):

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Cabin Services System

  • b. Crew Services System

  • c. Cabin Social System

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

The B787 uses a 60% of Composite Structures, the major part of this composites
(53%) are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Fiberglass

  • b. Nomex

  • c. Carbon Fiber

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

In NGS what is the function of Ground Cooling Valve:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Control the flow of nitrogen enriched air to the fuel tanks.

  • b. Let ambient air to enter the ram air ducting.

  • c. Uses NEA pressure/flow to circulate center tank ullage.

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

In NGS what is the function of Center Tank Pump Ejector:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Controls the flow of nitrogen enriched air to the fuel tanks.

  • b. Uses NEA pressure/flow to circulate center tank ullage.

  • c. Distribute NEA to wing fuel tanks.

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

What are the major components groups of the NGS

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Engine Drive Compressor (EDC), Motor Drive Compressor (MDC), Air Separator
    Module (ASM).

  • b. Motor Drive Compressor (MDC), Air Separation Module (ASM), High Pressure
    Nitrogen Filter.

  • c. Cabin Shutoff Valve, Motor Drive Compressor (MDC), Ram Air Control Valve.

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

The Engine Fire Detection Signal goes To CDN Through

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Smoke Detectors.

  • b. Main Engine Data Concetrator (MEDC).

  • c. Engine Fuel Control Module.

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

The Engine Fire Detection System Detects:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Smoke.

  • b. Overheat conditions.

  • c. Fire Conditions.

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

The Cargo Fire Protection detect:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Smoke and Overheat conditions.

  • b. Fire detection and overheat conditions.

  • c. Smoke and fire detections.

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

When does the Engine Fire Protection System discharge the Fire Extinguishing
agent?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Automatically through to MEDC.

  • b. Manual when rotate to Fire switch.

  • c. Manual when rotate to Fire Switch and Automatic through the squib Monitor Control
    Unit (SMCU).

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

The Engine Cowl Power Door Opening System (PDOS) usually operates:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. With 28v dc linear actuators.

  • b. With an electrical motor and hydraulic actuators.

  • c. Manually and 28v dc linear actuators.

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

If the PDOS fails, what other method can you use to open the cowls?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Use of External Hydraulic Pump.

  • b. Use of Left Hydraulic System.

  • c. Use of Center Hydraulic System.

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

What Sensor is in the inlet area forward of the Fan?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. P0 / T0.

  • b. P20 / T20

  • c. P0 / P20 Only.

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

This unit supplies inputs to operate the engine:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Fuel and control system.

  • b. Ignition system.

  • c. Engine control system.

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

What system supplies engine data to CCS:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Indication system.

  • b. Fuel and control system.

  • c. Oil system.

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

What unit supplies fuel at correct pressure and rate:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Indication system.

  • b. Engine Control System.

  • c. Fuel and control system.

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

Airplane on ground, If the engine electronic controller (EEC) senses a start problem
during the first start attempt, the EEC:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Stops fuel and ignitions and abort the start.

  • b. Stops fuel and ignitions and motors the engine for 30 seconds, tries a second start
    with 2 igniters.

  • c. Stops fuel and ignitions and motors the engine for 1 seconds, tries a second start
    with 2 igniters

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

In the Engine Air system, The solenoid Banks on both sides of the engine supply
servo control of the engine valves using:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Fuel.
    .

  • b. Oil.

  • c. Air

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

What is the source of cooling for the LPTACC?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Oil.

  • b. Fan Air.

  • c. Fuel.

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

Which are the functions of the thrust control module?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Send TRA data to EEC, Autothrottle disconnect, Prevent reverse thrust lever
    movement.

  • b. Send TRA data to the EEC, MIC/FLT PTT signal, TO/GA commands,

  • c. TO/GA commands, Prevent reverse thrust lever movement, Autothrust disconnect.

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

Which elements are part of the thrust system?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Translating sleeves, Cascade segments, Sync locks, Hydraulic control unit (HCU).

  • b. Blocker doors, Track lock mechanism, Hydraulic control unit (HCU), Sync locks.

  • c. Hydraulic control unit (HCU), Track lock mechanism, Translating sleeves, Cascade
    segments.

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

In Air Conditioning system the function of the Surge / add heat valve is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Controls CAC output air temperature.

  • b. Protects CAC inlets from water spray and FOD.

  • c. Makes hot, high pressure air.

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

In Air Conditioning system the function of the Inlet Deflector Door is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Controls CAC operation efficiency.

  • b. Controls CAC output air temperature.

  • c. Protects CAC inlets from water spray and FOD.

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

The Function of Condenser is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Decreases the temperature of supply air to the air cycle machine.

  • b. Decreases the temperature of the air from the air cycle machine.

  • c. Decreases the temperature of air from the secondary heat exchanger.

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

The Zonal Dryer:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Sends air into the crown area, filters air in the crown área, and sends air to the mix
    bay.

  • b. Sends air into the cabin air distribution system, filters air in the crown area, and
    sends air into the crown area.

  • c. Sends air into the crown area, filters air in the crown área, and Sends air into the
    cabin air distribution system.

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

If the built-in-test (BIT) of the valve control unit (VCU) senses a motor control
malfunction, control of the related outflow valve is by:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The motor direct.

  • b. The backup channel of the related VCU.

  • c. The motor Primary.

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

¿ there are 3 static ports on each side of the fuselage. each pair of static ports
connects to a related static air data module (ADM) through:

Select one or more of the following:

  • A. pneumatic tubing

  • B. electrical connection

  • C. ARINC 787

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

¿ there is no ice protection for the static ports. They are not heated.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. false

  • b. true

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

¿ This ADRF data shows on the primary flight display (PFD) and head-up display
(HUD).

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. airspeed, attitude ,altitude ,heading

  • b. baro altitude minimums, altitude, airspeed.

  • c. airspeed, altitude ,mach, baro altitude minimums

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

¿the earth reference system (ERS) calculates these primary inertial parameters for
use by airplane systems:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. attitude, heading, velocity, position.

  • b. altitude ,heading, ground speed

  • c. attitude ,heading, airsped, position

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

¿ Each IRU and AHRU has an APM.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. the APM gives correction for course deviation

  • b. The APM don’t give correction for mounting tray misalignments.

  • c. The APM gives correction for mounting tray misalignments.

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

¿ The backdrive actuators move the columns, wheels, and pedals.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. true

  • b. false

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

¿ after the airplane is off the ground, the pilots can stay in the f/d takeoff mode or
when the airplane is above 200 feet radio altitude, they can engage the autopilot to the
takeoff mode.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. true

  • b. false

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

¿ the rudder pedal back drive actuator (BDA) moves the rudder pedals during:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Autopilot sends a rudder command.

  • b. airplane is on approach and below 1500 feet radio altitude

  • c. During cruise.

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

¿what are the different types of flight guidance?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Slaved and management.

  • b. Automatic and manual.

  • c. Management and selected.

  • d. Management and manual.

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

¿ managed guidance is engaged by:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Pulling on the desired MCP selector knob.

  • b. Pushing on the desired MCP selector knob.

  • c. Rotating 90° the desired MCP selector knob.

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

the FCMS have these internal functions:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. primary flight control,- high lift control,- auto flight function

  • b. primary flight control,- high lift control, auto thrust

  • c. primary flight control,- high lift control,- hydraulics leaks detector

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

for the 787 flight controls, there are 2 types of rigging:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Mechanical rigging, electronic rigging.

  • b. Minor rig, major rig

  • c. Mechanical rig and hydraulic rig.

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

Roll is controlled by:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. ailerons, yaw, stab

  • b. flaperons, alerons, speedbreake

  • c. aileron, spoilers, flaperons

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

The spoilers also do these functions:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. speed brakes

  • b. spoiler droop

  • c. Both are correct.

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

there is more than one actuator on each PFCF surface except in the:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. flaps

  • b. spoilers

  • c. ailerons

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

¿there are 3 hydraulic systems, each system supplies: ________________psi
hydraulic power?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 3000psi

  • b. 4000psi

  • c. 5000 psi

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

¿ each hydraulic pump has its own power source :

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. (Engine drives pump accessory gear box or electric motor).

  • b. (Batteries box or electric motor).

  • c. (Engine drives pump or hydraulic motor generator).

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

¿ have an EDP as the primary pump and an EMP as the demand pump. an engine
supply shutoff valve closes to stop fluid flow to the:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. EDP and EDP when you pull the related fire handle

  • b. EMP when you pull the related fire handle

  • c. EDP when you pull the related fire handle

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

¿the hydraulic system transducers and LVDT supply hydraulic data to the HYDIF of
the:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. pressure, temperature, and quantity of the hydraulic fluid

  • b. pressure, temperature of the hydraulic fluid

  • c. pressure ,quantity of the hydraulic fluid

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

¿ the nose landing gear (NLG) door open proximity sensors sense the open
position of the left NLG forward door for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. This makes sure that the NLG does not extend with the doors closed.

  • b. This makes sure that the NLG does not retract with the doors closed.

  • c. This makes sure that the NLG does not extend or retract with the doors closed.

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

the towing power switch (on the p5 window heat panel) enables the bscus and
ebpsus to operate from the:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Main TRU´s

  • b. Main battery.

  • c. Power supply.

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

When the MLG control valve module moves to the up position, the actuators get
pressure. This pulls the MLG to the retract position. When the MLG control valve module is
in the down position, the actuators do not get pressure (the MLG falls by gravity).

Select one or more of the following:

  • A. true

  • B. false

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

How can you be assured when the CCS applications are available, during a battery
only APU start?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. EICAS message ccs normal.

  • b. APU run EICAS message.

  • c. The CDU page format is visible on the lower display unit.

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

When the APU is automatically commanded on in flight?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. loss of one engine

  • b. loss of two generators

  • c. loss of three or more generators

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

APU fuel is supplied from the left fuel manifold by any operating ac fuel pump, or
by the dc fuel pump in the left main tank. With ac power available, and the APU selector in
the on position, the___________ fuel pump is commanded on regardless of flight deck
position.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. left aft

  • b. left forward

  • c. right aft

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

How many fuel cross feed valves are there on the 787?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. two

  • b. one

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

The fuel shutoff module gives emergency power to close the fuel shutoff valves for
the engines and the APU.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. true

  • b. false

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

The fuel balance system corrects imbalances in the main tanks faster than
traditional crossfeed operations.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. it is an automatic operation, when selected

  • b. The system may be used on the ground.

  • c. both are correct

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

The defuel system can also be used to transfer fuel from any tank to any other tank.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The suction method uses suction from the fuel truck to transfer the fuel.

  • b. The pressure method uses airplane fuel pumps to move the fuel from the tanks to
    a fuel truck.

  • c. both are correct

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

APU fuel feed is an automatic task that is controlled by

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. the APU Controller (APUC)

  • b. The fuel quantity management system (FQMS) function.

  • c. the apu dc fuel pump.

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

Which of these are composite materials?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Bricks made from mud and Straw, Concrete with steel bars inside, Tin and copper
    melted together to make bronze.

  • b. Concrete with steel bars inside, Plywood, Bricks made from mud and Straw.

  • c. Concrete with steel bars inside, Bricks made from mud and Straw, Engineered
    fibers in a high performance resin.

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

What are the properties of an Allowable Damage Limit (ADL)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The maximum damage allowed to a specific aircraft structural member, Identified
    in the Toolbox structural repair data, Used to determine if a repair is necessary,
    Usually applies to hidden structural damage

  • b. Used to determine if a repair is necessary, Identified in the Toolbox structural
    repair data, The maximum damage allowed to a specific aircraft structural
    member, Usually applies to hidden structural damage

  • c. Identified in the Toolbox structural repair data, the maximum damage allowed to a
    specific aircraft structural member, used to determine if a repair is necessary.

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

Is it possible to pressurize the airplane with bleed air from the APU?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. YES at any altitude

  • b. NO

  • c. YES up to 27.000 ft. of altitude

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

Can you replace the APU lubrication and scavenge pumps?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. YES, they are part of the gearbox.

  • b. NO, they are not an LRU and are part of the gearbox.

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

What cools the APU oil?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Airflow and fuel-flow through the oil coolers

  • b. Airflow and fuel-flow through the oil bypass system

  • c. Hydflow and fuel-flow through the oil coolers

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

What are the 2 purposes of the deprime valve?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Closes during a cold start to allow gearbox air to go to the supply pump, Opens at
    shutdown to return oil to the gearbox area.

  • b. Opens during a cold start to allow gearbox air to go to the supply pump, Opens at
    shutdown to return oil to the gearbox area.

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

How does the APU controller (APUC) control the speed of the APU?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The APUC controls the speed of the dc motor-driven pump in the fuel module,
    which delivers more or less fuel to operate the APU. More fuel equals a faster APU
    speed.

  • b. The APUC controls the speed of the dc gear-driven pump in the fuel module, which
    delivers more or less fuel to operate the APU. More fuel equals a faster APU
    speed.

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

A fuel solenoid fails. To repair the fault you must:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Replace the fuel module.

  • b. Replace or adjust the fuel solenoid valve.

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

The APU autostart system is armed in flight. What conditions cause the APUC to
start the APU?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. If there are less than 1 variable frequency starter generators (VFSG) online while in
    flight.

  • b. If there are less than 2 variable frequency starter generators (VFSG) online while in
    flight.

  • c. If there are less than 3 variable frequency starter generators (VFSG) online while in
    flight.

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

You shut down the APU from the P40 panel. The APU shuts down:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Immediately.

  • b. After the cool down period.

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

The engine cowl power door opening system (PDOS) usually operates:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. With an electric motor and hydraulic actuators.

  • b. With 28v dc linear actuators.

  • c. Manually.

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

What sensor is in the inlet area forward of the fan?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. P20/T10

  • b. P20/T20

  • c. P20/T30

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

How does wind affect the engine inlet hazard area?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The inlet hazard area should be increased by 20% if the wind is more than 25kts.

  • b. The inlet hazard area should be increased by 25% if the wind is more than 30kts.

  • c. The inlet hazard area should be increased by 30% if the wind is more than 35kts.

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

How many fan blades does the engine have? From what material are they made?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. There are 15 hollow titanium, low speed, wide-chord swept Fan Blades.

  • b. There are 20 hollow titanium, low speed, wide-chord swept Fan Blades.

  • c. There are 25 hollow titanium, low speed, wide-chord swept Fan Blades.

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

How do you manually turn the HP shaft?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. By attaching a motor tool to the worm drive at the Intermediate Gearbox also
    known as the Step Aside Gearbox.

  • b. By attaching a special drive tool to the worm drive at the Main Gearbox also known
    as the Step Aside Gearbox.

  • c. By attaching a special drive tool to the worm drive at the Intermediate Gearbox also
    known as the Step Aside Gearbox.

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

How do you manually turn the IP shaft?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. There is a drive behind a cover at the centrifugal breather to turn the LP spool.

  • b. There is a drive behind a cover at the centrifugal breather to turn the IP spool.

  • c. There is a drive behind a cover at the centrifugal breather to turn the HP spool.

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

What components in the HMU help control the pump output?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The pressure drive control valve (PDCV) and the control and spill valve (CSV).

  • b. The pressure drop combining valve (PDCV) and the combining and spill valve
    (CSV).

  • c. The pressure drop control valve (PDCV) and the combining and spill valve (CSV).

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

What controls the quantity of fuel that goes to the fuel nozzles?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The FMU.

  • b. The HMU.

  • c. The EEC.

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

When you move the fuel control switch to the CUTOFF position, what valves in the
engine fuel system close?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The PDCV in the EEC and the fuel spar valve (the FMV in the HMU is also driven
    to the closed position by the EEC).

  • b. The PRSOV in the HMU and the fuel spar valve (the FMV in the HMU is also driven
    to the closed position by the EEC).

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

What is the source of electrical power for the EEC?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 235 v ac from the airplane but once the engine is running the permanent magnet
    alternator.

  • b. 28 v dc from the airplane but once the engine is running the permanent magnet
    alternator.

  • c. 115 v ac from the airplane but once the engine is running the permanent magnet
    alternator.

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

During an engine start, does the EEC use 1 or 2 ignition systems?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The EEC will use only one ignition system and alternate after every subsequent
    start (ie: 1, 1, 2, 2, 1, 1, 2, 2).

  • b. The EEC will use only one ignition system and alternate after every subsequent
    start (ie: 1, 2, 2, 1, 1, 2, 2,1).

  • c. The EEC will use only one ignition system and alternate after every subsequent
    start (ie: 2, 1, 2, 1, 2, 1, 2, 1).

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

What component supplies power to the variable frequency starter generators
(VFSG) during an engine start?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. CMSC

  • b. VFSG

  • c. ASG

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

What are the electrical power sources necessary for an engine start?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. External power (1 forward minimum), ASG, VFSG from the other engine.

  • b. External power (2 forward minimum), ASG, VFSG from the other engine.

  • c. External power (3 forward and aft), ASG, VFSG from the other engine.

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

Starter cutout occurs when the N2 speed gets to ______ percent.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. 46.7% N2.

  • b. 50% N2.

  • c. 60% N2.

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

What is the source of cooling for the LPTACC?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Fan air.

  • b. HP air.

  • c. IP air.

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

What is the purpose of the secondary air system (SAS) valve?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. It opens to supplement IP8 cooling and sealing air with HP3 air during starting and
    low power conditions to prevent oil loss from the bearing chambers.

  • b. It opens to supplement HP8 cooling and sealing air with LP3 air during starting and
    low power conditions to prevent oil loss from the bearing chambers.

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

What is the purpose of the thrust reverser lockout solenoid?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Located in the engine, it prevents the movement of the reverse thrust levers if the
    thrust levers are not at idle.

  • b. Located in the thrust control module, it prevents the movement of the reverse thrust
    levers if the thrust levers are not at idle.

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

What function in the EEC senses an engine uncommanded thrust increase?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. secondary air system (SAS)

  • b. Low Press Turbine Active Clearance Control (LPTACC)

  • c. Thrust control malfunction accommodation (TCMA).

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

What data does the engine electronic controller (EEC) use to calculate TPR?
Select the incorrect response.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. P30 (high pressure compressor (HPC) exit pressure)

  • b. LP turbine exit temperature (T50)

  • c. Turbine gas temperature (TGT)

  • d. Inlet pressure and temperature - from the P20/T20 probe.

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

What component calculates the engine trim balance solutions?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. EEC

  • b. EMU

  • c. GPM in CCR

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

What is used to monitor the position of the thrust reverser translating sleeves?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The thrust reverser feedback unit. It connects the upper and lower actuator flexible
    drive shafts and monitors the position of the sleeve with an RVDT and reports to
    the CCS.

  • b. The thrust reverser feedback unit. It connects the upper and lower actuator flexible
    drive shafts and monitors the position of the sleeve with an LVDT and reports to the
    EEC.

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

Which engine oil parameter goes through the MEDC to EICAS?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Oil temperature is the only oil parameter that goes through the MEDC, all other go
    through the EEC.

  • b. Oil quantity is the only oil parameter that goes through the MEDC, all other go
    through the EEC.

  • c. Oil press is the only oil parameter that goes through the MEDC, all other go through
    the EEC.

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

What are the properties of an allowable damage limit (ADL)?
Select the incorrect response.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The maximum damage allowed to a specific aircraft structural member

  • b. Identified in the Toolbox structural repair data

  • c. Usually applies to hidden structural damage

  • d. Used to determine if a repair is necessary

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

The ramp damage checker:
Select the incorrect response.

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Uses a yellow light to show a stringer or a built-up area with more plies.

  • b. May be necessary by the structural repair data as part of the close visual
    inspection process.

  • c. Uses a green light to indicate no change in material thickness.

  • d. Uses a red light to indicate change in material thickness or delamination.

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

How does a passenger control the electronically dimmable windows (EDW)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. By individual selection of a 3 position selector switch below the window.

  • b. By individual selection of a 4 position selector switch below the window.

  • c. By individual selection of a 5 position selector switch below the window.

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

What type of flight crew emergency escape devices does the 787 have? Where are
they stored?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. There are 1 Inertia Reels in the Flight Deck ceiling forward of the Observers Seats.

  • b. There are 2 Inertia Reels in the Flight Deck ceiling forward of the Observers Seats.

  • c. There are 4 Inertia Reels in the Flight Deck ceiling forward of the Observers Seats.

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

The Lavatory fire suppression system is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. A portable hand held device.

  • b. Independent and self contained.

  • c. Part of the cargo fire protection system (CFPS).

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

The flight deck oxygen cylinders are made of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. stainless steel

  • b. wire-wound aluminum

  • c. graphite composite.

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

During your walk around you see a yellow indication at the oxygen system
overboard discharge point. What does this show?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The flight deck oxygen system has had an internal over pressure relief and the
    yellow disc has been blown out.

  • b. The flight deck oxygen system has had an internal over pressure relief and the
    green disc has been blown out.

  • c. The flight deck oxygen system has had an internal over pressure relief and the
    white disc has been blown out.

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

Why does the passenger oxygen mask not have a reservoir bag?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The Passenger Oxygen system only dispenses oxygen when there is demand.
    There is no continuous flow of oxygen using the Pulse type system.

  • b. The Passenger Oxygen system only dispenses oxygen when there is demand.
    There is no continuous flow of oxygen using the Oxygen Generators Pulse type
    system.

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

Where are the PDUs?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The self lift PDUs are in the ball panel area and the spring lift PDU’s are in the roller
    tray areas.

  • b. The self lift PDUs are in spring lift roller tray areas and the PDU’s are in the ball
    panel area

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

The emergency power assist system (EPAS) is used on:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Type A passenger entry doors only.

  • b. All passenger entry doors.

  • c. Type C passenger entry doors only.

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

What is the source of heat to prevent ice on the engine cowling leading edge?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Engine bleed air

  • b. Electrical mats

  • c. ECS packs air

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

What component kills bacteria and viruses during the potable water fill operation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. High efficiency water treatment filters

  • b. UV water treatment unit

  • c. Ultrasonic water treatment unit

Explanation

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