CDC 2A652N - Volume 3 - Prime Movers and Generation

Question 1 of 100

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To change electrical energy to mechanical energy is the purpose of a

Select one of the following:

  • Generator

  • Converter

  • Inverter

  • Motor

Question 2 of 100

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Electrical contact between the stationary and rotating parts of a motor is the function of the

Select one of the following:

  • Field windings

  • Commutator

  • Bearings

  • Brushes

Question 3 of 100

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Torque is defined as

Select one of the following:

  • Wattage

  • Horsepower

  • Rotational force

  • Opposition to applied voltage

Question 4 of 100

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In a series-wound direct current (DC) motor, speed is dependent on the

Select one of the following:

  • Load

  • Torque

  • Armature

  • Field winding

Question 5 of 100

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The relationship between slip and torque can best be described as more

Select one of the following:

  • Torque causing more slip

  • Slip causing more torque

  • Torque causing less slip

  • Slip causing less torque

Question 6 of 100

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The three-phase induction motor does not require

Select one of the following:

  • Slip

  • A rotor

  • A stator

  • A starting device

Question 7 of 100

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To reverse the direction of rotation of a three-phase inductive motor, you must reverse

Select one of the following:

  • All three phases

  • Any two power leads

  • A and B phases only

  • B and C phases only

Question 8 of 100

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The stator windings of a synchronous motor are spaced

Select one of the following:

  • 20 degrees apart

  • 30 degrees apart

  • 90 degrees apart

  • 120 degrees apart

Question 9 of 100

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The rotation speed of a synchronous motor is controlled by the

Select one of the following:

  • Load

  • Torque

  • Input frequency

  • Armature current

Question 10 of 100

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During an inspection of a direct current (DC) motor, check the brushes for

Select one of the following:

  • Pitting

  • Seating

  • Coloration

  • Brittleness

Question 11 of 100

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When you check the concentricity of a commutator or slip rings, look for

Select one of the following:

  • Wear

  • Pitting

  • Roundness

  • Overheating

Question 12 of 100

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When using a troubleshooting chart, what are you not likely to find?

Select one of the following:

  • Analysis

  • Remedies

  • Symptoms

  • Probable causes

Question 13 of 100

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Most troubleshooting on a motor can be done using a

Select one of the following:

  • Megger

  • Growler

  • Multimeter

  • Clamp-on ammeter

Question 14 of 100

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Perform an operational check of the unit

Select one of the following:

  • At the last minute

  • With the defective part removed

  • Before final reassembly of the enclosure

  • As soon as you replace the defective part

Question 15 of 100

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The component most likely to be damaged by poorly filtered fuel is the

Select one of the following:

  • Combustion chamber

  • Transfer pump

  • Fuel lines

  • Injectors

Question 16 of 100

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The type of injector that is operated by a rocker arm is

Select one of the following:

  • Spray

  • Pintle

  • Pressure

  • Mechanical

Question 17 of 100

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Aside from idle speed, the limiting speed governor through the use of flyweights and spring tension controls

Select one of the following:

  • Load speed

  • Minimum speed

  • Maximum speed

  • Intermediate speed

Question 18 of 100

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A lubricant performs which function when it deposits particles of dirt in the oil sump?

Select one of the following:

  • Cooling

  • Sealing

  • Cleaning

  • Reducing friction

Question 19 of 100

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What component holds a large amount of coolant in close contact with a large volume of air?

Select one of the following:

  • Radiator cap

  • Thermostat

  • Water pump

  • Radiator

Question 20 of 100

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Which liquid cooling system component circulates the coolant?

Select one of the following:

  • Vacuum valve

  • Water pump

  • Cooling fan

  • Radiator

Question 21 of 100

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One of the impellers within a blower on a diesel engine is normally driven

Select one of the following:

  • By the engine electrical system through a DC motor

  • By the engine exhaust gases flowing across the turbine wheel

  • From the engine crankshaft through a system of gears or a silent chain

  • Through a solid shaft connected between the blower and the transmission

Question 22 of 100

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What must be accomplished to supercharge a diesel engine?

Select one of the following:

  • Change the overlap and timing so that the intake and exhaust valves are not open at the same time.

  • Change the overlap and timing so that the intake and exhaust valves are open at the same time.

  • Advance exhaust valve opening time

  • Retard intake valve opening time

Question 23 of 100

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The filtration step protects the diesel engine fuel system from

Select one of the following:

  • Blockage of airflow

  • Lube system malfunctions

  • Slipping belts on the blower

  • Abrasion by foreign particles

Question 24 of 100

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The best step in preventing abnormal amounts of carbon, moisture, and sludge buildup in a diesel engine, is to

Select one of the following:

  • Avoid operating the engine for extended periods at no-load

  • Operate the unit at idle speed for long periods of time

  • Drain moisture from fuel system periodically

  • Perform a preoperational check

Question 25 of 100

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When performing a compression test, measuring pounds per square inch (psi), the maximum allowable deviation between cylinders is

Select one of the following:

  • 25 psi

  • 50 psi

  • 75 psi

  • 100 psi

Question 26 of 100

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If the drive shaft for the oil pump assembly in a gas turbine engine becomes sheared, what other component is rendered inoperative?

Select one of the following:

  • Alternating current (AC) generator

  • Tachometer generator

  • Starter motor

  • Cooling fan

Question 27 of 100

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In the gas turbine engine, cooling air for the transformer rectifier is provided by the

Select one of the following:

  • Cooling fan

  • Starter motor

  • Fuel pump and control unit

  • Multiple centrifugal switch assembly

Question 28 of 100

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During gas turbine engine operation, the air is accelerated by the

Select one of the following:

  • Diffusers

  • Exducers

  • Impellers

  • Deswirl ring

Question 29 of 100

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During operation of a turbine engine, fuel and air are mixed and ignited in the

Select one of the following:

  • Fuel atomizer

  • Combustor can

  • Mixer assembly

  • Plenum chamber

Question 30 of 100

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In the operation of a turbine engine, energy is extracted from the burning gases by the

Select one of the following:

  • Diffuser

  • Exhaust flange

  • Turbine wheel and exducer

  • Exhaust gas thermocouple

Question 31 of 100

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The boost pump on the gas turbine engine provides fuel to the

Select one of the following:

  • Fuel atomizer

  • Main fuel pump

  • Combustion chamber

  • Fuel air mixture valve

Question 32 of 100

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Lubrication system pressure in the turbine engine is regulated through a

Select one of the following:

  • Flow check valve

  • Filter bypass valve

  • Pressure relief valve

  • Temperature regulator

Question 33 of 100

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Gas turbine compressor (GTC) operation with insufficient oil pressure is prevented by the

Select one of the following:

  • Oil pressure solenoid

  • Oil pressure switch

  • Oil drain switch

  • Ignition coil

Question 34 of 100

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During turbine engine operation, oil loss into the airflow system is prevented by the

Select one of the following:

  • Air-oil seals

  • Oil tank baffles

  • Exhaust vent line

  • Pressure relief valve

Question 35 of 100

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If the gas turbine compressor (GTC) load control butterfly valve opens too slowly or too quickly, what is the most probable cause of the malfunction?

Select one of the following:

  • Excessive exhaust gas temperature

  • Maladjusted rate adjustment screw

  • Ruptured actuator diaphragm

  • Defective relief valve

Question 36 of 100

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In the turbine engine, rupture of the rate diaphragm is prevented by the

Select one of the following:

  • Adjustment screw

  • Actuator regulator

  • Rate metering valve

  • Rate diaphragm return spring

Question 37 of 100

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Prior to operating any aerospace ground equipment (AGE), you should perform

Select one of the following:

  • A preoperational inspection

  • A serviceability check

  • A periodic inspection

  • An operational test

Question 38 of 100

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During a preoperational inspection of a gas turbine engine, you check the intake and exhaust for

Select one of the following:

  • Leakage

  • Excess heat

  • Hairline cracks

  • Foreign objects

Question 39 of 100

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Normal acceleration characteristics of the gas turbine compressor (GTC) include

Select one of the following:

  • Sudden rumbling noises after 35 percent

  • A decrease in vibration after 35 percent

  • Smooth and quiet acceleration

  • Burping

Question 40 of 100

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Before you load and after you unload the gas turbine compressor (GTC), allow the engine to operate unloaded to

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease noise

  • Allow for flameouts

  • Reduce thermal stress

  • Allow for positioning of the service hose

Question 41 of 100

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When you operate a unit to determine the validity of an entry on the maintenance record form, what step in effective troubleshooting are you performing?

Select one of the following:

  • Analysis

  • Isolation

  • Recognition

  • Verification

Question 42 of 100

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While troubleshooting the gas turbine compressor (GTC), if you discover there is no oil pressure and the oil filter is dirty, changing the oil filter will not correct the problem because the

Select one of the following:

  • Filter bypass valve is stuck open

  • Oil pressure relief valve is stuck open

  • Externally mounted solenoid is stuck closed

  • Scavenge pump is not providing sufficient suction

Question 43 of 100

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If no oil pressure is available from the main oil pump assembly on the gas turbine compressor (GTC), you should replace the

Select one of the following:

  • Oil pump

  • Entire assembly

  • Flow check valve

  • Filter bypass relief valve

Question 44 of 100

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Which causes gray or white smoke to pour from the exhaust stack on the gas turbine compressor (GTC)?

Select one of the following:

  • Excessive engine revolutions per minute (rpm)

  • Excessive engine exhaust temperature

  • Oil that enters the airflow system

  • Fuel mixing with the airflow

Question 45 of 100

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In the gas turbine compressor (GTC), if large amounts of oil are forced through the air-oil seals, the most probable cause is a defective

Select one of the following:

  • Main oil pump

  • Scavenge pump

  • Oil tank vent line

  • Oil drain solenoid

Question 46 of 100

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Which could cause the butterfly valve to oscillate (continually open and close)?

Select one of the following:

  • Load valve

  • Hose relief valve

  • Rate adjustment screw

  • Pneumatic load thermostat

Question 47 of 100

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Which three things are necessary to produce an electromotive force (EMF) mechanically?

Select one of the following:

  • EMF, relative motion, and magnetic field

  • Magnet, lines of force, and relative motion

  • Magnetic field, a conductor, and relative motion

  • Counter-electromotive force (CEMF), a conductor, and magnetic field

Question 48 of 100

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To increase the output of a generator, you must increase the

Select one of the following:

  • Load

  • Resistance of the conductor

  • Strength of the magnetic field

  • Counter-electromotive force (CEMF)

Question 49 of 100

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What result is achieved by replacing the single rotating conductor of a simple direct current (DC) generator with many coils of wire wound on the same shaft?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased output and almost constant alternating current (AC)

  • Increased output and almost constant DC

  • Decreased current and constant AC

  • Decreased current and constant DC

Question 50 of 100

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The rotor of an alternating current (AC) generator consists of the slip rings and

Select one of the following:

  • Armature

  • Starter coil

  • Stator windings

  • Voltage regulator

Question 51 of 100

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Control of the output voltage of an alternating current (AC) generator is accomplished by varying the

Select one of the following:

  • Speed of rotation

  • Size of the armature

  • Amount of field current

  • Size of the field windings

Question 52 of 100

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In an alternating current (AC) generator, the output frequency is often more critical than the output

Select one of the following:

  • Load

  • Phase

  • Current

  • Voltage

Question 53 of 100

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In a three-phase alternating current (AC) generator, direct current (DC) is applied to the field windings through the brushes and

Select one of the following:

  • Diodes

  • Rectifier

  • Slip rings

  • Commutator

Question 54 of 100

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Three different loads can be supported at the same time by a

Select one of the following:

  • Direct current (DC) generator

  • Single-phase generator

  • Two-phase generator

  • Three-phase generator

Question 55 of 100

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The self-excited alternating current (AC) generator provides its own field current from a built-in

Select one of the following:

  • Direct current (DC) generator

  • Selenium rectifier

  • Battery source

  • Regulator

Question 56 of 100

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When a load is applied to a self-excited alternating current (AC) generator, exciter field resistance will

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease current flow

  • Remain the same

  • Increase

  • Decrease

Question 57 of 100

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The weak points of the self-excited alternating current (AC) generator are the

Select one of the following:

  • Commutator, brushes, and slip rings

  • Commutator, rotor, and slip rings

  • Brushes, commutator, and rotor

  • Brushes, slip rings, and rotor

Question 58 of 100

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In the brushless alternating current (AC) generator, what provides necessary excitation current?

Select one of the following:

  • Main generator

  • Exciter generator

  • Armature windings

  • Permanent magnet generator

Question 59 of 100

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What type of loads can be applied to a generator under test by the A/M24T–8 electrical test set?

Select one of the following:

  • Inductive and resistive

  • Reactive and resistive

  • Inductive only

  • Resistive only

Question 60 of 100

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The A/M24T–8 electrical test set is capable of testing

Select one of the following:

  • Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) generator sets only

  • Alternating current (AC) power supplies only

  • Direct current (DC) power supplies only

  • AC and DC power supplies

Question 61 of 100

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What circuit on the A/M24T–8 load bank is used to check the performance of three-phase alternators?

Select one of the following:

  • Special checks

  • Impedance load

  • Aircraft servicing

  • Jet engine servicing

Question 62 of 100

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What occurs when the load selection switches on the A/M24T–8 load bank are closed?

Select one of the following:

  • Load elements are connected to neutral

  • Blower motors begin operation

  • Panel lights illuminate

  • Link boards rearrange

Question 63 of 100

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Before connecting a generator set to the load bank, you should

Select one of the following:

  • Make sure input power cables are energized

  • Make sure all on-off switches are in the OFF position

  • Close the direct current (DC) section cooling fan doors

  • Place circuit breaker three-phase shock load to ON position

Question 64 of 100

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When using a load bank to test a generator, follow the procedures outlined in the

Select one of the following:

  • Generator technical order (TO) and career development course (CDC)

  • Load bank TO, generator TO, and CDC

  • Generator TO and load bank TO

  • Load bank TO and CDC

Question 65 of 100

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When using an A/M24T–8 electrical test set, when should the frequency and voltage selector switch be positioned to match input power?

Select one of the following:

  • While applying power to the test set

  • Before applying power to the test set

  • After the ABC indicator is illuminated

  • After the 28 volts direct current (VDC) control signal indicator illuminates

Question 66 of 100

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What maximum alternating current (AC) resistive load can the portable load bank apply to a generator?

Select one of the following:

  • 65 kilowatts

  • 70 kilowatts

  • 75 kilowatts

  • 80 kilowatts

Question 67 of 100

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When performing a phase-one periodic inspection (PE), you are going to do a

Select one of the following:

  • Detailed annual inspection

  • Relatively quick equipment condition check

  • Special inspection accomplishing the lubrication requirements only

  • Streamline inspection to ensure a unit is operational and serviceable

Question 68 of 100

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The resistive elements on the A/M24T–8 test set are best cleaned by

Select one of the following:

  • Blowing off with 5 pounds per square inch (psi) uncontaminated air

  • Blowing off with 15 psi uncontaminated air

  • Scrubbing with soap and water

  • Steam cleaning

Question 69 of 100

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On an A/M24T–8 electrical test set, what would prevent the fan motors from operating?

Select one of the following:

  • Shorted fuses

  • Defective wind switch

  • CB1 stuck in the ON position

  • Defective power supply rectifier

Question 70 of 100

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The governor of the A/M32A–60A generator set is controlled directly by the

Select one of the following:

  • Engine speed

  • Trim control motor

  • Static frequency sensor

  • Manual trim adjustment

Question 71 of 100

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What is used as a reference for controlling A/M32A–60A engine speed?

Select one of the following:

  • Fuel pressure

  • Control air pressure

  • Governor flyweight pressure

  • Alternating current (AC) generator output frequency

Question 72 of 100

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If the oil pressure switch opens during operation of A/M32A–60A, during which period does it stop operation?

Select one of the following:

  • From 0 to 35 percent

  • From 35 to 95 percent

  • From 95 to 100 percent

  • Anytime during operation

Question 73 of 100

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On the A/M32A–60A, which chambers of the load control valve work together to ensure the butterfly valve opens smoothly?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 and 2

  • 2 and 3

  • 1 and 3

  • 2 and 4

Question 74 of 100

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Power for starting the A/M32A–60A is provided by

Select one of the following:

  • Batteries

  • Generator

  • Start Switch

  • Master Switch

Question 75 of 100

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In the event of an overspeed condition, what component of the A/M32A–60A generator electrical system stops the engine?

Select one of the following:

  • Overspeed actuator

  • Fuel shutoff switch

  • 35 percent centrifugal switch

  • 110 percent centrifugal switch

Question 76 of 100

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The A/M32A–60A generator set cannot be loaded either electrically or pneumatically until after the

Select one of the following:

  • 35 percent switch has closed

  • 95 percent switch has closed

  • 110 percent switch has opened

  • BLEED AIR ON switch is closed

Question 77 of 100

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The component of the A/M32A–60A that opens and closes the fuel transfer line is the fuel

Select one of the following:

  • Level switch, S20

  • Solenoid valve, L1

  • Level control relay, K26

  • Level solenoid valve, L4

Question 78 of 100

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After the A/M32A–60A generator set has shut itself down due to low fuel, the fuel level relay, K4, must be reset by

Select one of the following:

  • Turning the start switch OFF, then ON

  • Turning the master switch OFF, then ON

  • De-energizing the low-level lockout relay

  • De-energizing the low-level warning switch

Question 79 of 100

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What does the alternating current (AC) voltage regulator of the A/M32A–60A use to determine the amount of adjustment the generator output needs?

Select one of the following:

  • AC ammeter

  • AC voltmeter

  • Generator output current

  • Generator output voltage

Question 80 of 100

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When is 28 volts direct current (VDC) applied to E pin of the alternating current (AC) cable?

Select one of the following:

  • Never

  • At all times

  • When the AC cable switch is in the GEN position

  • When the AC cable switch is in the ACFT position

Question 81 of 100

Medal-premium 1

On the A/M32A–60A generator, what stops battery charging when the batteries are fully charged and prevents discharge when the unit is shut down?

Select one of the following:

  • Battery charging resistor

  • Battery charging diode

  • Voltage regulator

  • Charging shunt

Question 82 of 100

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On the A/M32A–60A, when the direct current (DC) contactor is in the closed position, the DC ammeter indicates

Select one of the following:

  • Power through the DC power receptacle

  • Alternating current (AC) load

  • Battery charging current

  • Nothing

Question 83 of 100

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How often are service inspections required?

Select one of the following:

  • After equipment is placed on the ready line

  • After maintenance

  • Once a week

  • Once a day

Question 84 of 100

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After the A/M32A–60A generator set has reached 95 percent of governed speed, the operator should

Select one of the following:

  • Reset the alternating current (AC) system

  • Connect the power cables

  • Adjust the governed speed

  • Connect the bleed air duct

Question 85 of 100

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When troubleshooting, the actual location of a terminal connection on the unit can best be found by using

Select one of the following:

  • The wiring diagram

  • Your past experience

  • The schematic diagram

  • The reference designation

Question 86 of 100

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To find out where a wire is connected, you should consult the

Select one of the following:

  • Flow chart

  • Wiring diagram

  • Schematic diagram

  • Reference designation list

Question 87 of 100

Medal-premium 1

What component of the A/M32A–86D energizes to send power to the fuel gauge during operation?

Select one of the following:

  • Hourmeter, M4

  • Oil pressure switch, S46

  • Oil pressure switch, S53

  • Fuel oil pressure switch, S48

Question 88 of 100

Medal-premium 1

What is the purpose of the protective circuits of the A/M32A–86D?

Select one of the following:

  • Protects the generator electrical system against damage resulting from an overload, overvoltage, under voltage, and over/under frequency

  • Protects the aircraft electrical system against damage resulting from an overload, overvoltage, under voltage, and over/under frequency

  • Senses fault conditions, stopping the generator

  • Senses fault conditions, stopping the engine

Question 89 of 100

Medal-premium 1

How long can you operate the starter on the A/M32A–86D before letting it cool?

Select one of the following:

  • 60 seconds

  • 30 seconds

  • 20 seconds

  • 10 seconds

Question 90 of 100

Medal-premium 1

When troubleshooting any electrical system, you can locate a starting point by first finding the

Select one of the following:

  • Common ground bus.

  • Main circuit breaker.

  • External power source

  • Last known source of power

Question 91 of 100

Medal-premium 1

What position must the alarm switch on the EPU–6/E frequency converter be placed prior to operation?

Select one of the following:

  • On

  • Off

  • Activate

  • Inactive

Question 92 of 100

Medal-premium 1

What indicator on the EPU–6/E frequency converter indicates an under voltage condition?

Select one of the following:

  • Overvoltage

  • Out-of-phase

  • Undervoltage

  • Fault

Question 93 of 100

Medal-premium 1

What component on the EPU–6/E frequency converter controls the timing and firing of the silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)?

Select one of the following:

  • Analog board

  • Control transformer

  • SCR voltage regulator

  • Phase sequence transformer

Question 94 of 100

Medal-premium 1

Before using the EPU–6/E frequency converter, you must inspect the

Select one of the following:

  • Air inlets for blockage

  • Wiring for secure mounting

  • Maintenance panels for corrosion

  • Interior air vents for secure mounting

Question 95 of 100

Medal-premium 1

What problem is indicated by a flashing red over/under voltage indicator light on the EPU– 6/E frequency converter?

Select one of the following:

  • Out-of-phase relationship

  • Output overvoltage

  • Loss-of-input phase

  • Input under voltage

Question 96 of 100

Medal-premium 1

What printed circuit (PC) card controls the cold-starting aid on the B809A generator set?

Select one of the following:

  • Direct current (DC)

  • Annunciator

  • Regulator

  • Engine

Question 97 of 100

Medal-premium 1

What signal powers the regulator card output pulse sent to the exciter field of the B809A generator?

Select one of the following:

  • 200 volts alternating current (VAC)

  • 110 volts direct current (VDC)

  • 28.5 VDC

  • 115 VAC

Question 98 of 100

Medal-premium 1

What condition is sensed by the direct current (DC) card on the B809A generator set?

Select one of the following:

  • Over temperature

  • Under frequency

  • Over frequency

  • Low fuel

Question 99 of 100

Medal-premium 1

During high-voltage operation of the B809A generator set, what action occurs to prevent the direct current (DC) contactors from closing?

Select one of the following:

  • High sense relay (HSR) energizes

  • Interlock (INT) relay energizes

  • INT relay de-energizes

  • HSR de-energizes

Question 100 of 100

Medal-premium 1

If you have a loss of residual magnetism in the exciter field poles, what should you do

Select one of the following:

  • Connect TB4–11 to 14 VDC power source

  • Check the Field Transformer

  • Field flash the generator

  • Check the fault display

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CDC 2A652N - Volume 3 - Prime Movers and Generation

nicilynn1981
Quiz by , created about 1 year ago

CDC 2A652N - Volume 3 - Prime Movers and Generation

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