Summit College
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Security Guard Training

Security Guard Training

Question 1 of 60

1

Which of the following are basic duties a security guard may be expected to perform?

Select one of the following:

  • Enforcing traffic rules on public streets.

  • Patrolling public parks and enforcing laws in other public places.

  • Enforcing rules and policies at a location where they are acting as an agent.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 2 of 60

1

The Criminal Code of Canada:

Select one of the following:

  • Allows special rights and authorities for police officers and security guards.

  • Allows a security guard the same legal authorities as any other private person.

  • Allows a security guard legal authority to use reasonable force to arrests a person wanted on a warrant.

  • Prevents security guards from using force to remove trespassers from properties they are protecting.

Explanation

Question 3 of 60

1

What is the best description of a Static Site Patrol Duty?

Select one of the following:

  • Assigned to a specific site for protection, but will be able to patrol around the property.

  • Assigned to a specific post at a site for protection and must remain at the post.

  • Assigned to multiple sites and required to patrol between sites to ensure the areas are secure.

  • Required to patrol a specific area specifically for the purpose of raising any necessary fire alarms.

Explanation

Question 4 of 60

1

Which of the following regulates the security industry in Ontario?

Select one of the following:

  • The Criminal Code of Canada and the Charter of Rights and Freedoms.

  • The Private Security and Investigative Services Act, 2005 (PSISA)

  • The Police Services Act.

  • The Public and Private Security and Policing Act. (PPSPA)

Explanation

Question 5 of 60

1

Which of the following are penalties that may be issued under the Code of Conduct under the Private Security and Investigative Services Act for a violation of any provision in the Act?

Select one of the following:

  • A $1000 fine.

  • A 3 month prison sentence.

  • A suspended license for three months.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 6 of 60

1

Which of the following actions are licensee holders under the Private Security and Investigative Services Act prohibited from doing?

Select one of the following:

  • Preventing squatters from entering vacant land owned by their employees.

  • Following someone without their consent to report on their activities to a third party.

  • Knowingly locate or gather information for the purpose of locating any person known or suspected by the licensee to be a member of a witness protection program.

  • Forcibly removing an unwelcome patron from a night club even if they are not drunk.

Explanation

Question 7 of 60

1

Which of the following are surveillance techniques?

Select one of the following:

  • Observing the physical environment.

  • Situational awareness.

  • Attending to environmental details.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 8 of 60

1

Which of the following is a benefit of mobile patrol over foot patrol?

Select one of the following:

  • Greater access to equipment and gear.

  • Ability to cover a much larger distance for individual officers.

  • Ability to respond faster to remote areas.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 9 of 60

1

Access control is important to consider for which types of people in an organization for security purposes?

Select one of the following:

  • Employees.

  • Customers.

  • Potential offenders.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 10 of 60

1

Which of the following is often true about security guard alarm calls?

Select one of the following:

  • Security guards always have back up readily available and on-duty.

  • Security officers always work with partners and will never encounter situations on their own.

  • They often respond alone and do not have immediate back up available.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 11 of 60

1

Which of the following are possible indicators of drug use by an individual?

Select one of the following:

  • Overly anxious, friendly or helpful.

  • Failing to respond to commands or questions.

  • Signs of nervousness - hand gestures, sweating etc.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 12 of 60

1

Which of the following is a good example of patterns security guards should be aware of while performing their duties?

Select one of the following:

  • Remembering the physical layout of a building.

  • The hours that you are required to work in a weekly schedule.

  • The people, the things they do and the times they do them.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 13 of 60

1

Which of the following are typical / routine reports that security guards may be required to fill out?

Select one of the following:

  • Complaint reports, incident reports, briefing reports for municipal politicians.

  • Incident reports, use of force reports, witness statements.

  • Crown brief reports, witness statements, and complaint reports.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 14 of 60

1

Which is the best form of statement to take from a witness to an event when you are certain there will be court proceedings on the matter?

Select one of the following:

  • Verbatim.

  • Paraphrased.

  • Abbreviated.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 15 of 60

1

Which of the following are examples of questions that WOULD NOT need to be answered in a notebook?

Select one of the following:

  • What is the appropriate punishment for a habitual trespasser?

  • What damages were done?

  • When was the victim taken to the hospital?

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 16 of 60

1

Which of the following are duties required by employers according to the Occupational Health and Safety Act?

Select one of the following:

  • That equipment, materials and protective devices as prescribed are provided.

  • That the measures and procedures prescribed are carried out in the workplace.

  • That the equipment, materials and protective devices provided by the employer are maintained in good condition.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 17 of 60

1

When responding to an alarm call at an industrial building at midnight, a security guard sees a large amount of smoke and some sort of unknown gas escaping from a doorway. Which of the following is the most appropriate response for a security guard to take?

Select one of the following:

  • Immediately contact the fire department and then quickly enter the building to check for people who may need help if it appears safe.

  • Immediately contact the fire department, remain a safe distance away to prevent others from approaching and assist the fire department when they arrive.

  • Immediately approach the door and call to see if anyone needs help, then contact the fire department.

  • Immediately call your supervisor and if they are unavailable wait for them to respond before taking any further action.

Explanation

Question 18 of 60

1

What is the first priority when responding to any emergency situation?

Select one of the following:

  • Preserve evidence and ensure the scene is not contaminated.

  • Assess hazards and make the area safe to operate in.

  • Treat life threatening injuries immediately and triage victims as required.

  • Set up a command post and begin organizing people as they arrive.

Explanation

Question 19 of 60

1

Which of the following would be an example of a security failing to provide appropriate duty of care?

Select one of the following:

  • Failing to notice that a garbage can has been moved which is later found to have a bomb located in it.

  • Failing to address a broken window that you found on a building you are charged with protecting while on patrol. The window is later an entry point for an intruder resulting in a sexual assault.

  • Failing to put away a wrench on a worksite you are patrolling, which is later picked up and used as a weapon in an assault.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 20 of 60

1

Which tasks should the officer in charge of a crime scene assign?

Select one of the following:

  • Obtaining names, addresses and phone numbers of all people present including security guards, fire fighters and police officers.

  • Ensure that the route to the crime scene by the first responder is not contaminated. Other routes should be used.

  • Making as small a perimeter as possible, and expanding it out afterward as required.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 21 of 60

1

Which of the following pieces of information is often important for security guards to be aware of?

Select one of the following:

  • Search warrant powers under the Ontario Fire Code.

  • Building and room occupant capacity limits set by the Ontario Fire Code.

  • Arrest powers under the Ontario Fire Code.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 22 of 60

1

Which of the following would be an appropriate step to take in the event of a bomb threat?

Select one of the following:

  • Remove any suspicious packages to a secure location.

  • Perform a search of the area for any unusual packages, vehicles or objects.

  • Prevent any evacuation to ensure that there is no panic.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 23 of 60

1

Which tasks should the officer in charge of a crime scene assign?

Select one of the following:

  • Obtaining names, addresses and phone numbers of all people present including security guards, fire fighters and police officers.

  • Securing a large perimeter and if it proves too large, shrinking the perimeter as required.

  • Assisting victims requiring any medical or first aid treatment.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 24 of 60

1

Which of the following assumptions are made in criminal law?

Select one of the following:

  • The burden of proof is on the crown.

  • There is a presumption of innocence with accused people.

  • Defendants only have to provide reasonable doubt in order to be acquitted.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 25 of 60

1

Which of the following statements are true?

Select one of the following:

  • Decisions made by the Ontario Court of Appeal supersede decisions made by the Supreme Court of Canada.

  • Once the Supreme Court of Canada has made a decision, all lower courts must respect the ruling and enforce it.

  • Provincial courts have the discretion to create and enforce laws that contradict the decisions of the Supreme Court.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 26 of 60

1

Which of the following are reasons behind classifying offences?

Select one of the following:

  • The powers of arrest are determined by the class of the crime.

  • The method of trial is determined by the class of crime.

  • Release procedures depend on the type of charge.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 27 of 60

1

Which is true about Case Law?

Select one of the following:

  • It is static and doesn't change.

  • It is made by elected politicians

  • It does not apply to security guards.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 28 of 60

1

Which of the following are examples of the significance of the classification of offences?

Select one of the following:

  • Powers of arrest and sentencing.

  • Appeals and limitations periods.

  • How the charges proceed through courts and release procedures.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 29 of 60

1

Which is true about notes for testifying in court?

Select one of the following:

  • Any witness may use notes to refresh their memory before or during testimony.

  • Only Police Officers may use notes to refresh their memory before or during testimony.

  • Only legal professionals may use notes to refresh their memory before or during testimony.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 30 of 60

1

Which of the following is a definition of continuity of evidence?

Select one of the following:

  • Chain of custody controlled by a police service.

  • Unbroken chain of custody and control which protects integrity of an object.

  • Chain of custody unbroken and controlled by only one individual.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 31 of 60

1

Which is the best legal definition of a "person in authority"?

Select one of the following:

  • Only persons that can actually influence an accused's case.

  • Any person an accused person feels can influence his or her case.

  • Only the judge or jury who ultimately determine the outcome of an accused's case.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 32 of 60

1

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

  • An agent of the property can arrest a person they find committing any criminal offence on or in relation to the property they are responsible for.

  • An agent of the property can only arrest a person they find committing an indictable offence on or in relation to property they are protecting.

  • An agent of the property can only arrest a person they find committing a summary offence on or in relation to property they are protecting.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 33 of 60

1

Which of the following would be considered a continuous pursuit to satisfy the grounds of arrest for an individual who attempted to flee a scene?

Select one of the following:

  • A thirty minute chase through numerous back yards and alleyways where the chaser never lost site of the person they wanted to arrest.

  • A twenty minute chase, where a suspect attempted to hide in a room. The chaser lost site of the suspect, but continued to search until the suspect was found.

  • An hour long chase where a suspect climbed onto a dangerous walkway. The chasers surrounded the walkway until the suspect agreed to climb down a ladder just before completing the arrest.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 34 of 60

1

What are the arrest powers under the Liquor Licence Act for a private citizen or security guard?

Select one of the following:

  • When a person is so intoxicate that they would pose a danger to themselves if they left an establishment.

  • When a person attempts to remove alcohol from a licensed premise into an area where alcohol is not permitted.

  • When a person refuses to show id confirming they are of age to be in a licensed premise that serves alcohol.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 35 of 60

1

In what circumstances may an entry be made into a residential premise by a landlord under the Residential Tenancies Act without notice?

Select one of the following:

  • In the case of an emergency situation where a landlord requires access to prevent major damage, or injury.

  • In the case where a landlord suspects the tenant is committing illegal acts on the premise.

  • In the case where a tenant is behind in their rent and the landlord wants the tenant removed.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 36 of 60

1

If there is a collective agreement in place which of the following is prohibited under the Labour Relations Act?

Select one of the following:

  • No employee bound by the agreement shall strike.

  • No employer bound by the agreement shall lock out such an employee.

  • No union shall call for employees to strike.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 37 of 60

1

What is the legal drinking age in Ontario according to the Liquor Licence Act of Ontario?

Select one of the following:

  • 18

  • 19

  • 20

  • 21

Explanation

Question 38 of 60

1

Which of the following is true regarding the elements of theft?

Select one of the following:

  • Theft can occur when lawfully possessed property is transferred to your own use.

  • Property has to be deprived of another person permanently.

  • It is possible to a lay a theft charge when payment for services or labour is not made.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 39 of 60

1

Which of the following statements are true regarding the offence of mischief?

Select one of the following:

  • The offence of mischief will not apply to property that you damage that you partially own.

  • The offence of mischief applies to employers going on strike or a stoppage of work by an employer.

  • The offence of mischief can apply when a person wilfully omits to do an act that is his duty to do.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 40 of 60

1

Which of the following statements are true regarding the offence possess property obtained by an indictable offence?

Select one of the following:

  • The property has to have been stolen or obtained by the commission of an indictable offence in Canada.

  • Possession is considered complete when a person has the property (alone or jointly) and or aids in concealing it.

  • A person has to have direct control of the property to be considered in possession of it.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 41 of 60

1

Consenting to an assault cannot occur in which situations?

Select one of the following:

  • Under threat.

  • An exercise of authority.

  • A fraud.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 42 of 60

1

Which of the following would be considered summary offences that a security guard could not make an arrest if they found committing outside in no way related to the property they are an agent of?

Select one of the following:

  • Theft under $5000 or simple assault.

  • Causing a disturbance or committing an indecent act.

  • Robbery or assault with a weapon.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 43 of 60

1

Which of the following statements is true regarding the following scenario? While working as a security guard in a mall, you witness from a distance a man expose his penis to a woman and her small child as they walk toward the mall bathroom.

Select one of the following:

  • You have no authority to arrest, as an indecent act is a summary offence.

  • You have authority to arrest as it was a criminal act you found committing on property you are acting as an agent of.

  • You have no authority to arrest as by the time you reach the man, you will no longer have found him committing the act.

  • You have authority to act as you have found the man committing an indictable offence of sexual assault.

Explanation

Question 44 of 60

1

What is the best definition of a "verbatim" statement?

Select one of the following:

  • A statement taken from a suspect under duress.

  • A statement taken word-for-word during an interview.

  • A statement willingly given by a victim which is signed.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 45 of 60

1

Which of the following are NOT important components of effective communication?

Select one of the following:

  • The language that is used (spoken word).

  • Paralanguage (tone, volume, cadence/rhythm/speed).

  • Accent and personal background.

  • Kinesics (body language, facial expressions, posture, etc.)

Explanation

Question 46 of 60

1

Which of the following is an example of a leading question?

Select one of the following:

  • Who was the person who assaulted you?

  • Is it true that Mike Duffy was the person who caused damage to your automobile?

  • How did the situation involving the break and enter begin?

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 47 of 60

1

Why would it be important to be assertive at times when interacting with the public as a security guard?

Select one of the following:

  • People do not respect security guards and you need to always be assertive to instil your authority.

  • It is never appropriate to be assertive as a security guard. You should always be passive and respectful.

  • At times you will encounter people who you have legal authority to control (detain or arrest) who do not respect your position. At these times being assertive will help control a situation.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 48 of 60

1

Which of the following should NOT be performed by a security guard in a case where they are required to be assertive to a person who is refusing to leave a building when requested and is becoming very loud and intimidating people nearby?

Select one of the following:

  • Raising your voice and speaking in a very authoritative tone

  • Aggressively grabbing the male to place him under arrest.

  • Swearing at the man in response to his foul language.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 49 of 60

1

Which of the following would be an example of a "stereotype"?

Select one of the following:

  • Men on average tend to be larger than women.

  • People of Asian ethnicity tend to have brown eyes.

  • Older people tend to be very poor drivers.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 50 of 60

1

While working as a security guard you see a person with a disability having difficulty with their wheelchair. You should:

Select one of the following:

  • Approach the person and ask if they need assistance.

  • Walk up and push the chair to correct the problem.

  • Ignore the situation, someone else can deal with it.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 51 of 60

1

Which of the following would be an example of a cultural difference that a security guard may have to take into consideration while performing their duties?

Select one of the following:

  • Asian people tend to be poor drivers.

  • Women tend to be more emotional than men.

  • People from Jamaica tend to carry weapons.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 52 of 60

1

Which of the following is an example of a bias that a security guard may have?

Select one of the following:

  • Fellow security guards are more trustworthy than police officers.

  • Homeless people are often lazy and in their position due to their own choices.

  • People from their own culture are more likely to be truthful with them than someone outside their culture.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 53 of 60

1

Which of the following are actions security guards can take to maintain a healthy life style and reduce the impacts of stress on your health?

Select one of the following:

  • Getting adequate exercise.

  • Maintaining a healthy diet.

  • Ensuring you get adequate sleep.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 54 of 60

1

What is defined by non-compliance to a lawful request or direction through verbal defiance, but little or no physical response?

Select one of the following:

  • Compliance.

  • Passive Resistance.

  • Active Resistance.

  • Assaultive.

Explanation

Question 55 of 60

1

Which of the following are critical symptoms of excited delirium?

Select one of the following:

  • Impaired thinking, unexpected physical strength, and significantly diminished sense of pain.

  • Disorientation, chest pains, and nausea.

  • Hallucinations, paranoia and constant talking.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 56 of 60

1

Which of the following would be the first priority when you encounter an emergency scene?

Select one of the following:

  • Ensuring the scene is safe to operate.

  • Ensuring the most critical people are treated first.

  • Ensuring the children are tended to first.

  • Ensuring evidence is not contaminated or destroyed.

Explanation

Question 57 of 60

1

What is the best definition of shock in terms of First Aid treatment?

Select one of the following:

  • Shock is essentially a decrease in blood flow to the brain and other important organs.

  • Shock is essentially a condition where the body drops its core temperature for no known reason.

  • Shock is essentially a severe loss of blood.

  • Shock is essentially a condition where the body increases its core temperature for no known reason.

Explanation

Question 58 of 60

1

What is the first step that you need to take when dealing with a person choking?

Select one of the following:

  • Clear the airway.

  • Attempt two breaths to supply oxygen to the brain.

  • Begin compressions to circulate existing oxygen in the blood.

  • Stop any major bleeding before taking any other steps.

Explanation

Question 59 of 60

1

Which of the following statements are false?

Select one of the following:

  • Severe bleeding involves loss of large amounts of blood.

  • Blood may escape from natural openings such as a nose or mouth.

  • A cut to the skin may lead to bleeding.

  • Bleeding is always visible and easy to see.

Explanation

Question 60 of 60

1

When is it permitted to cease performing CPR once you have begun?

Select one of the following:

  • When you are too tired to continue.

  • If someone qualified replaces you.

  • If the person recovers and begins breathing on their own.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

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