Pod Med 1 quiz

Question 1 of 70

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Which of the following ligaments does NOT assist in securing the STJ?

Select one of the following:

  • Interosseous ligament

  • Bifurcate ligament

  • Lateral talocalcaneal ligament

  • Posterior talocalcaneal ligament

Question 2 of 70

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What is the average STJ joint ROM?

Select one of the following:

  • 30 degrees

  • 35 degrees

  • 40 degrees

  • 45 degrees

Question 3 of 70

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Which of the following is not a ligament of the MTJ?

Select one of the following:

  • Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament

  • Bifurcate ligaments

  • Long and short plantar ligaments

  • Calcaneofibular ligament

Question 4 of 70

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What is the orientation of the Oblique axis of the MTJ?

Select one of the following:

  • 57 degrees to the Sagittal plane, 52 degrees to the transverse plane

  • 15 degrees to the Transverse plane, 9 degrees from the Sagittal plane

  • 52 degrees to the Sagittal plane, 57 degrees to the transverse plane

  • 9 degrees to the transverse plane, 15 degrees from the sagittal plane

Question 5 of 70

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How does MTJ ROM change with changes in rearfoot position?

Select one of the following:

  • It decreases with STJ pronation & Increases with STJ supination

  • It increases with STJ pronation & decreases with STJ supination

  • MTJ ROM doesn't change with respect to changes in rearfoot position

Question 6 of 70

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What is the orientation of the Longitudinal axis of the MTJ

Select one of the following:

  • 9 degrees to the transverse plane, 15 degrees from the sagittal plane

  • 57 degrees to the sagittal plane, 52 degrees to the transverse plane

  • 15 Degrees to the Transverse plane, 9 degrees from the sagittal plane

  • 52 degrees to the sagittal plane, 57 degrees to the transverse plane

Question 7 of 70

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Forefoot Varus (FFVR) is defined as; The Forefoot inverts with regards to the Rearfoot when the Subtalar joint is in neutral & the Mid tarsal joint is maximally pronated around both axes?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 8 of 70

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Forefoot Valgus (FFVL) is defined as: The forefoot everts with regards to the rearfoot when Subtalar joint is in neutral and the Mid tarsal joint is maximally pronated around both axes

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 9 of 70

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Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of an acquired Plantarflexed first ray?

Select one of the following:

  • Muscle Imbalance

  • Neuromuscular disorders

  • May result from uncompensated FFVR

  • Incorrect footwear worn for long periods of time.

Question 10 of 70

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The following are abnormal variations of the 1st ray: Metatarsus primus elevatus, Flexible plantarflexed 1st metatarsal, Rigid plantarflexed 1st ray.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 11 of 70

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The incidence of the most common variant of the 1st ray is Acquired by 20% of the population.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 12 of 70

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An Acquired Plantar flexed First ray usually has equal amounts of DF/PF (From resting position) and normal ROM

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 13 of 70

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The following describes a clinical signs of a flexible Plantar flexed first ray:
- Medium to high MLA (Lowers on WB)
- Callus PMA 1-2
- Intermetatarsal bursitis/neuritis
- Dorsomedial 'bunion'
- Exostosis 1st met-cuneiform
- Sesamoid injury
- Plantar Fasciitis

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 14 of 70

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The following describes the position of each joint when the foot is in the neutral position:
Ankle: 90 o to leg (Distal 1/3 of leg is vertical)
STJ: the calcaneus is perpendicular to the ground, and parallel to the distal 1/3 of the leg.
MTJ: The midtarsal joint is locked in its’ maximum position of pronation, and therefore the forefoot is locked against the rearfoot. The plantar forefoot plane parallels the rearfoot plane.
1st ray: The 1st metatarsal head moves above and below the level of the 2nd metatarsal head and the same distance when the subtalar joint is in neutral and the MTJ is fully pronated.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 15 of 70

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Which author describes the different modes of compensation for Forefoot varus and the affects of this on the Rearfoot as:
• Comp. FFVR- if FFVR<=3deg, STJ pronates same amount.
- If FFVR>3 deg STJ pronates to end ROM as body weight now falls medial to the STJ axis

• Partial comp: FFVR- deg of FFVR is greater than available STJ eversion, STJ pronates end ROM, 1st ray may PF or OA MTJ may pronate or LA MTJ may pronate to give 2-5 degrees compensation

• Uncomp- RF has no eversion beyond vertical remaining, - as above

Select one of the following:

  • Bowden

  • Valmassy

  • Pickard

  • Root

Question 16 of 70

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Compensation for Forefoot varus occurs primarily at which joint?

Select one of the following:

  • Mid tarsal joint

  • Calcaneonavicular joint

  • Sub talar joint

  • Ankle joint

Question 17 of 70

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A fully compensated Forefoot varus requires the _______________ to pronate during midstance?

Select one of the following:

  • MTJ

  • STJ

  • Calcaneus

  • Talus

Question 18 of 70

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Which of the following is NOT a sign of compensated forefoot varus?

Select one of the following:

  • Low arch

  • Talar bulge

  • Covexity of lateral malleolus

  • Abducted forefoot

  • Everted heel

Question 19 of 70

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The definition and aetiology of forefoot valgus is: The forefoot everts with respect to the rearfoot with Subtalar joint neutral & Mid tarsal joint axes maximally pronated.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 20 of 70

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Which two Sub-phases of the stance phase are termed 'Propulsive'?

Select one of the following:

  • Loading response and mid stance

  • Midstance and terminal stance

  • Terminal stance and pre-swing

  • Pre-swing and loading response

Question 21 of 70

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Which of the following is NOT a termporospatial parameter?

Select one of the following:

  • Cadence

  • Stride length

  • Heel lift

  • Step length

  • Angle of Gait

  • Base of gait

Question 22 of 70

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Loading response is defined as: Heel strike to opposite toe off, 10% of the gait cycle or 80% stance phase

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 23 of 70

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Which muscle is considered by far the strongest supinator of the Sub talar Joint?

Select one of the following:

  • Gastrocnemius

  • Soleus

  • Tibialis posterior

  • Tibialis Anterior

  • Extensor Digitorum longus

Question 24 of 70

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Midstance is defined as: From opposite toe off to heel lift of the supporting foot. 20% of gait cycle or 30% of stance.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 25 of 70

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Rearfoot Valgus is defined as an everted position of the calcaneus relative to the ground in NCSP

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 26 of 70

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What is the prevalence of Pes Cavus according to Burns 2005?

Select one of the following:

  • 5-10%

  • 8-20%

  • 8-15%

  • 20%

Question 27 of 70

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Which of the following biomechanical features does NOT describe Pes Cavus?

Select one of the following:

  • Plantar flexed and Adducted Forefoot

  • Varus Hindfoot

  • High calcaneal pitch

  • Low Midfoot (Defined by navicular height)

Question 28 of 70

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Which of the following muscle combinations leads to diminished ground contact of the lateral forefoot, placing the peroneals at a disadvantage, less able to pronate the Mid tarsal joint at the Oblique axis and allow the supinators to function unopposed?

Select one of the following:

  • Weak Extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus

  • Gastrocnemius and soleus tightness

  • Gastrocnemius and soleus weakness

  • Weak Extensor Hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus and tibialis anterior

Question 29 of 70

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Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

A STJ axis is classed as more than 42 degrees from the transverse plane. It allows less and more .

Question 30 of 70

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Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

SIgns on a a lateral radiograph of a Pes Cavus foot type should include: calcaneal inclination angle (>30 degrees) and metatarsal declination angle ( degrees)

Question 31 of 70

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A rigid Pes Planus foot type is described as having a lower arch during weight baring and non weight baring, decreased or absence of STJ and mid foot ROM, symptomatic or asymptomatic, and usually has an underlying primary pathology.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 32 of 70

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What is the most common tarsal coalition?

Select one of the following:

  • Calcaneo- talar

  • Calcaneo-cuboid

  • Calcaneo-navicular

  • Calcaneo-cuneiform

Question 33 of 70

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Incidence of Flexible pes planus include: 15% simple flatfoot, 6% equinus, 2% tarsal coalition

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 34 of 70

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Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Clinical features of Flexible Pes planus include:
- Calcaneal
- Bowing of Achilles tendon
- curvature observed under the lateral malleoli
- Forefoot abduction (Too many toes sign)
- Medial column/MLA collapse
- Medial talo-navicular bulge

Question 35 of 70

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Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Wheeless' textbook of orthopaedics states that adult flatfoot may occur in % of adults, most of which are flexible.

Question 36 of 70

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Fill the blank space to complete the text.

What are the three main types of ulcers in the lower limb?
1. Venous
2. Arterial
3.

Question 37 of 70

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The following factors contribute/influence impaired healing of ulceration: Tissue trauma, autoimmune diseases, Vascular disease, Sensory loss, malignancy, Haematological disease, Infection and drug therapies.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 38 of 70

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Which of the following is not one of the phases in the process of wound healing?

Select one of the following:

  • Immediate: Haemostasis

  • Inflammation: Increased blood flow, debridement (Phagocytosis)

  • Proliferation: Granulation

  • Mast cell production

  • Epithelialisation

  • Maturation

Question 39 of 70

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During the epithelialisation phase of wound healing, the migration proceeds much slower in a moist environment than in a dry wound.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 40 of 70

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Based on the university of texas wound classification system, '3A' describes which of the following:

Select one of the following:

  • Superficial - No bone, tendon capsule & non-infected-non-ischaemic

  • Involves tendon or capsule & Ischaemic

  • Involves bone or joint & Non-infected, non Ischaemic

  • Pre-post ulcer with epithelialisation and infection

Question 41 of 70

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The Wagners grading system classifies ulcers by depth.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 42 of 70

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Tollafield & Merriman describe one of their ideal wound dressing characteristics as ' Draws exudate away from the wound surface, but does not allow drying of the wound surface'.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 43 of 70

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The following clinical presentations would best relate to which condition?
• Collagen disorders
• Easy bruising/ scars
• Over-use syndromes present with greater intensity
• Joint and soft tissue pain
• Dislocation of joints
• Link with fibromyalgia in chronic cases

Select one of the following:

  • Hypo mobility

  • Hyper mobility

  • Pes planus

  • Osteoarthritis

Question 44 of 70

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Without insulin the body produces a toxic by product from the burning of fats; this state is called

Select one of the following:

  • Hypertension

  • Hypoglycaemia

  • Ketoacidosis

  • Late-onset autoimmune diabetes

Question 45 of 70

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Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

In the pathophysiology and clinical manifestations of chronic venous disease of the lower limbs, the 'CEAP' classification stands for.
C =
E = Etiology
A =
P = Pathophysiology

Question 46 of 70

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A classic site for venous ulceration to occur is above the lateral malleolus around the area of perforators.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 47 of 70

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In regards to compression therapy, if you were treating lymphatic oedema, you would use a class 4 of 40-50mmHg compression.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 48 of 70

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Tinea pedis between the toes may produce a portal of entry for bacteria causing cellulitis

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 49 of 70

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Stemmer's sign describes Lipoedema as a positive result, whereby pinching the skin on the upper surface of the toes results in only grasping a lump of tissue.Whereas, Lymphedema generally produces a negative result, which describes being able to grasp a thin fold of tissue.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 50 of 70

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The five developmental stages of diabetic neuropathic ulceration include:
1. Build up of hardened keratin over bony prominence
2. Sub-dermal tissue break down
3. Sub-dermal blister breaks surface of skin
4. Dermal ulceration
5. Infection of tendon and bone

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 51 of 70

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Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Based on the traffic light system of risk stratification:
: People with no risk factors and no previous history of foot ulceration/amputation

: People with one risk factor (Neuropathy,PAD, or foot deformity) and no previous history of ulcer/amputation

: People with 2 or more risk factors (neuropathy, PAD, or foot deformity) and/or previous history of foot ulceration/amputation.

Question 52 of 70

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Decreased Posterior Tibialis strength or weakness could be the cause of:

Select one of the following:

  • Excessive Pronation/eversion in RCSP

  • Excessive supination in RCSP

Question 53 of 70

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Fill the blank space to complete the text.

In standard 'off the shelf' shoes the last shapes are:
- Curved
-
- Straight

Question 54 of 70

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A haemostatic agent is one that:

Select one of the following:

  • Lessens and relieves pain by removing the cause or changing response/perception of pain

  • Arrests or diminishes the flow of blood

  • Lessen sensitivity to pain by acting directly on nerve endings

Question 55 of 70

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A rubefacient is a medicament which produces a mild local inflammation when applied to the skin.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 56 of 70

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Anhydrotics are preparations that increase the flow of sweat

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 57 of 70

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The compound benzoin tincture is made up of: 10% benzoin, 7.5% storax, 2.5% tolu balsam, 2% aloes, alcohol to 100%

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 58 of 70

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Amorolfine is the active ingredient found in which topical antifungal agent?

Select one of the following:

  • Lamisil

  • Loceryl

  • Daktarin

Question 59 of 70

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Hallux Limitus is described as painful limitation of 1st MPJ motion with no other deformity.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 60 of 70

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The Manchester scale is used to grade the severity of hallux valgus. It is based of standardised photographs and is reliable and valid compared to x-rays. What would a grade of 2 represent?

Select one of the following:

  • Severe

  • No deformity

  • Moderate

  • Mild HV

Question 61 of 70

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The grading severity can also be classified into four stages, depending on the progression of pathology. What stage best describes 'Abduction of hallux which presses against toe'?

Select one of the following:

  • Stage 1

  • Stage 2

  • Stage 3

  • Stage 4

Question 62 of 70

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If a patient presents with hallux valgus and describes their type of pain as 'Numbness, tingling, and sharp' what could be the cause of this?

Select one of the following:

  • Bursitis related

  • Nerve related

  • OA, sesamoid problems, transfer lesion related

Question 63 of 70

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The medial tubercle of the calcaneal tuberosity is an attachment site for the Flexor digitorum brevis, Abductor hallucis, Quadratus plantae and Plantar Fascia.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 64 of 70

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The baxter's nerve is also known as the:

Select one of the following:

  • Medial plantar nerve

  • Medial calcaneal nerve

  • Lateral plantar nerve

Question 65 of 70

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The windlass mechanism describes tension in the plantar fascia as increased with overpronation/pes planus.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 66 of 70

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Paratenonitis can be described as:

Select one of the following:

  • Inflammation of the tendon itself

  • Inflammation of the tendon sheath/paratenon

  • Tendon degeneration (No inflammation)

Question 67 of 70

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The following are areas commonly affected by Bursitis: Retrocalcaneal, 1st and 5th MPJ, Submetatarsal, Plantar Calcaneal area.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Question 68 of 70

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Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The reflex grading system is used in motor function assessment. Please fill in the blanks:

1 = Normal

3 = Clonus

Question 69 of 70

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The Insertion of the extensor hallucis longus is at the:

Select one of the following:

  • Dorsal surface of base of the 5th Metatarsal

  • Base of the distal phalanx of hallux

  • Plantar surface of distal phalanx of hallux

  • Calcaneal tendon

Question 70 of 70

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What is the origin of the Abductor Hallucis?

Select one of the following:

  • Plantar aponeurosis

  • Tuberosity of the calcaneus

  • Medial surface of the calcaneus

  • Plantar surface of cuboid and lateral cuneiform

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Pod Med 1 quiz

neda218
Quiz by , created about 1 year ago

Comprised of lectures and tute questions, and a whole bunch of other stuff :)!

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neda218
Created by neda218 about 1 year ago
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