You are presented a Holstein dairy cow with chronic watery diarrhea. No other cows in the herd are affected. What would be the most likely Dx?
Which European beef breed is shown in this picture?
What condition would you suspect if you palpated a cow rectally and found the rumen enlarged as shown in the picture?
Left abomasal displacement
The most common infectious cause of neonatal calf diarrhea is
Which one of the following statements is true concerning Johne's disease eradication from a cattle herd?
Current diagnostic methods allow identification of infected animals early in life.
A test and removal program for infected cows is the most profitable method.
Fecal-oral transmission is less important then transmission through milk.
Isolating calves from cows at birth is an effective control method
Culling clinical cases reduces herd prevalence of infection.
Which element is often deficient in the soil, thus predisposing to the development of grass tetany in grazing cattle
Magnets given as a preventive for traumatic reticulitis in cattle should be given
To yearling cattle
At time of first breeding
at time of first parturition
When total mixed rations are fed
When chopped feeds are included in the deit
Which one of the following statements is true regarding the "scootch test"?
This is a test used to determine the amount of rumen fill in a cow
Tricep muscle fasiculation is usually elicited by this test
Odontoprisis is a consistent sign of a positive reaction
The test is also know as a "withers depression"
A positive test is a positive response; the cow flinches
The normal pH range for rumen fluid in cattle is:
Which one of the following drugs would be the therapy pf choice for a bloated cow that was just brought in after overeating on legume pasture?
Sodium acid phosphate
Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection introduced on the farm?
Purchased calves from a sale barn
Purchased feed from a neighbor
Contaminated water due to a broken sewer pipe
Purchased cows from an auction
A stray dog
Which one of the following vaccines is more likely to cause an adverse reaction when given as directed to a small ruminant?
Clostridium perfringens C and D
With respect to bovine lymphosarcoma, which one of the following statements is correct?
Hypercalcemia is a common feature of naturally occurring cases
Cutaneous lymphocytosis is a common cause of depression anemia in cattle
Lymphosarcoma is a common cause of depression anemia in cattle
Presistent lymphocytosis is a common sign in herds with the enzootic form
Horn flies commonly spread the disease
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Foot rot vaccination is commercially available for use in sheep and goats in the USA
Rabies vaccine is labeled for use in goats in the United States
The most common organism associated with subclinical mastitis in goats is streptococcus
The somatic cell count limit for goat milk is 750,000 cells/cmm
Goats have a more reactive immune response then sheep
What is the most likely diagnosis of a recently calved dairy cow with extreme depression and head pressing?
Maningitis in neonatal food animals may often resemble:
Which one of the following is TRUE regarding Clostridial myositis?
A stained impression smear will demonstrate Gram-positive cocci
Because treatment is largely ineffective, affected cattle should be taken to the sale barn
Once a case is seen, one of the most important things to do is make sure the herd gets vaccinated
Primarily affects young poor-doing cattle
Horizontal grooves observed on the digits of a cow would be indicative of:
Previous change in the management, nutrition, or disease
Age, similar to ring growth on trees
Mineral deficiency disease
Obstructive urolithiasis due to silica urinary calculi occurs commonly in steers and wethers raised on rangelands of the great plains of North America. Which one of the following statement is true?
Calculi do not develop in the mature cows bulls
Calculi develop in a castrated males because the diameter of the urethra is smaller then normal
Calculi develop in cattle raised on rangelands because of the relatively high concentration of selenium in the diet
Calculi formation cannot be prevented by the consumption of sodium chloride at a level of 4% by weight of the total ration
When the urinary bladder ruptures in a steer with obstructive urolithiasis, uremia may not develop quickly because the ruminant can metabolize the urea in the rumen
Failure to control mild endemic respiratory disease in swine caused by Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae predisposes pigs to complications. Exudative bronchopneumonia and polarthritis are most commonly seen in herbs infected with both Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae and which other organism?
Which of these drugs are both contraindicated as injectable antibiotics in pigs and goats?
Lincomycin, Procaine Penicillin G.
Which one of the following is true concerning PRRS infections in swine?
Respiratory disease reduces growth rate up to 20%
More than $4.00 per pig is the estimated loss associated with respiratory disease from reduced growth and feed efficiency alone
Veterinarians prefer to treat respiratory disease in swine with tilmicosin
PRRS virus attacks and kills immune system cells in the lungs
all of the above are correct
When does sheep foot rot spread more favorably?
During cold winter months inside a barn
During summer when conditions are moist
During dry autumn months
During cool spring months
During cold winter months on pasture
Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves is associated with:
Bovine virus diarrhea mucosal disease complex
Infections bovine rhinotracheitis
Consumption of lupines during the first 30 days of pregnancy
Malignant catarrhal fever
Foot and mouth disease
A feeder pig operation has a problem with sudden onset of diarrhea followed by collapse and death in piglets 1-3 days old. Necropsy examination shows necro-hemorrhagic enteritis. Which one of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
Clostridium perfringens Type C
Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome.
Brachyspira (Serpulina) hyodysenteriae
Which of the following is true regarding White Muscle disease in young calves?
Providing selenium supplementation in a salt/mineral mix year round to all stocks is a good method to control/prevent white muscle problems in calves
A selenium injection at birth will effectively prevent white muscle disease and will provide adequate selenium levels until the calf is around 1-year-old
The cardiac form tends to be more amendable to treatment than the skeletal form
Which one of the following is a risk factor for urolithiasis on feedlot steers?
Inadequate water consumption
High salt intake
High calcium intake
Excessive vitamin A intake
Which one of the following statements is true?
Around 50% of all bovine lameness is in the foot
It is difficult to justify antibiotic treatment of foot rot because most cases self-cure within 1-2 days
To stop a horizontal hoof crack, you should create a vertical groove at the ends of the crack
A cow with a septic coffin joint will usually be 3-legged lame
Which one of the following downer cow position would probably have the most favorable prognosis for return to normal function?
Resting in right lateral recumbency and returning to that position after being turned to the other side
Hind legs partially flexed and displaced posteriorly
Hind legs extended behind with no attempt to change position
Sternal recumbency with the hind legs extended along side the body
Frequent attempts to rise, lifting the hindlegs off the ground a few inches
Regarding swine respiratory disease, which one of the following statements is correct?
Cold temperature reduces the pig's ability to clear bacteria from the respiratory tract
Pneumonia reduces average daily gain in swine
Crowding, mixing, and castration all may increase risk of respiratory disease in swine
All of the above are correct
Only B. and C. are correct
Which one of the following disease is associated with gastrointestinal hemorrhage and blood clots in cattle?
What is a "presistently infected animal" with respect to bovine virus diarrhea virus?
An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero before establishing immunocompetence
An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero after establishing immunocompetence
An animal that was infected within the first 120 days of life and has remained infected
An animal that was infected with BVDV and recovered but remains a carrier
Always an animal affected with mucosal disease
If a cow began showing symptoms of hives immediately after being treated with procaine penicillin, what would be the drug of choice for treating the cow?
Your client's Holstein milking cows have been experiencing an increased number of LDA's, variable dry matter intakes, low butterfat (3.3%), and increased lameness. Your analysis of the TMR shows (on a dry matter basis): CP 16.5%, ADF 20.2%, NDF 29.9%, NFC 43.6%, dietary fat 3.5%.
Which ration formulation fault is most likely?
Too much protein
Too much grain
Too much fat
Too much protein and too much fat
The two most important factors in passive Ig transfer are the total immunoglobulin mass that is ingested and the time after birth when the colostrum is received
The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between 80 and 130 mg\ dl
The calves at highest risk of contracting neonatal disease are those from first calf heifers
When cows are housed on concrete natural wear maintains the correct shape of the bovine hoof
The lower critical temperature is defined as the temperature at which the pig starts not paining well because energy is the used to maintain adequate body temperature
Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infection in cattle
Winter dysentery in cattle is associated with corona virus infection
The most common cause for inactivity of rumen microflora is anorexia secondary to some other problem
Bovine pyelonephritis is most commonly diangnosed in steers on a heavy grain feeding program
Botulism is a disease that is characterized by progressive, spastic paralysis in all species of animals
The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between 80 and 120 mg/ dl
An "iceberg" disease is one in which the clinically affected animal represents a larger number of subclinical case in the herd
In most cases, it is justified to treat streptococcal mastitis with antibiotics
The streptococcus species that has characteristics of both contagions and environmental pathogens is S. dysgalactiae
When presented with a young calf with obvious Blackleg, the most important thing that you can do for the producer is to make sure the rest of the herd is immunologically protected
Selenium deficiency can result in sudden death in young (< 1 year of age) rapidly growing calves
Over the counter drugs (OTC drugs) fall under AMDUCA regulations
Two months after culling four of your six goats for Jone's disease you have bought new does each with a nursing kid. Choose the best management strategy for these new herd additions
Place them in the pen with your original goats right away to get them used to each other while the kids are young
Build a separate pen to the house the new goats for as long as possible (months) to allow the organism in the original pen to die off
Introduce the new goats after shoveling out all visible pellets, fencing off any standing water, and installing feeders that pervent fecal contamination
Build a separate pen to house the new goats for as long as possible (months) to allow the organism in the original pen to die off, continue to test and monitor the body condition of the remaining two goats to make sure they are not infected.
Which element is often deficient in the soil, thus predisposing to the development of grass tetany in grazing cattle
What are the two most common organisms isolated from a septic calf with failure of passive transfer?
E. coli and Actinomyces
salmonella and Mycoplasma
Staphylococcus and E. coli
Staphylococcus and Streptococcus
Proteus and Enterococcus
The normal pH range for rumen fluid in cattle is
Which one of the following drugs would be the therapy of choice for a bloated cow that was just brought in after overeating on a legume pasture?
A stray gog
Acute enterotoxigenic colibacillosis usually occurs in calves of what age?
Under 5 days
14 to 21 days
21 to 28 days
5 to 10 days
10 to 15 days
What is your diagnosis for a dairy cow with the following clinical signs that calved normally yesterday? She was found down in lateral recumbency with opisthotonus, was groaning, and had slightly dilated responsive pupils and cool extremities.
Fatty liver syndrome
The CMT test is used to:
confirm clinical mastitis
confirm rupture of the gastrocnemius
determine the type of bacteria in an intramammary infection
identify cows with high somatic cell counts
Which one of the following problems would most likely be accompanied by a neutrophilic leukocytosis and left shift?
Preforated abomasal ulcer
Abdominal fat necrosis
The most important "other" of FANO when treating mastitis is:
A dairy herd has serveral cows with Corynebacterium bovis intramammary infection. this is most suggestive of what?
That post dipping with an effective germicide is not being done or is not being done correctly
That the milkers use multi-use cloth or paper towels and are spreading the bacteria from cow to cow
That the cows' environment is unsanitary
That waster is being used excessively during pre-milking udder preparation
Which of the following is the BEST means of controlling heel wart on the dairy farm?
Cull affected cattle
Heel wart vaccines
Properly maintained and scheduled footbaths
Which of the following is TRUE in regards to fescue foot?
Dry gangrene is more common in summer than winter
the cheapest control measure is to replace the current infected fescue pasture with endophyte free fescue
A presferred means of control is to vaccinate with an endophyte vaccine prior to grazing
The preferred treatment is to remove affected stock from fescue pasture
Which one of the following is true regarding calcium homeostasis in dairy cows?
Feeding high calcium in pre-partum diets will stimulate the parathyroid glands
Feeding anionic salts to dry cows will cause mild alkalosis, thus stimulating the parathyroid gland
The feed levels of phosphorus and potassium have little, if any, effect upon calcium metabolism is dry cows
Feeding anionic salts to dry cows will cause mild acidosis which will promote calcium absorption from the gut as well as mobilization from bone.
Feeding alfalfa hay free choice to close-up dry cows will stimulate calcium mobilization by the parathyroid glands
A dairy herd several cows with Prototheca intramammary infection. What is the primary reservoir for Prototheca?
contaminated teat dip
infected mammary gland
The success rate when treating footrot early in the couse of the disease is nearly ____________
Leptospirosis and salmonellosis in all types of livestock is often associated with:
Rodent contamination of feedstuffs
A twelve year old Brahma cow from Texas has been brought to you for diagnosis of brisket edema, diarrhea, weight loss, and proteinuria. Your differential diagnosis will include:
Paratuberculosis and mucosal disease
Renal amyloidosis and paratuberculosis
Abomasal parasitism and tick fever
Hypomagnesemia and hypokalemia
Caudal venal caval thrombosis
With respect to ruminant digestion, which one of the following statements is true?
Saliva neutralizes the acids produced during fermentation
Dietary calcium has little effects on rumen metabolism
The fiber mat is on the bottom of the rumen
Rumen microbial protein is an insignificant source of nutrients for cattle
Dairy cows can usually eat enough to meet their nutrient requirements, even when ration digestibility is low
Which one of the following bovine disease would be most characterized by this group of clinical signs-sudden death, ataxia, flaccid paresis, inability to control tongue movements?
Bovine spongiform encephalopthy
Which one of the following is a risk factor for urolithiasis in feedlot steers?
High phosphorus intake
Low salt intake
Low calcium intake
Inadequate water intake
All of the above may contribute as risk factors
A clinical finding in the cerbrospinal fluid that tends to confirm listeriosis is:
Increased numbers of eosinophils
Increased protein and mononuclear cells
Increased red blood cells
Increased alkaline phosphatase levels
Which one of the following practices has been associated with tetans outbreaks in cattle and sheep?
Elastration of tails
Which one of the following statements is true regarding salmonellosis?
The majority of salmonella infections are clinical
Salmonella organisms only survive a short time in the enviroment
Septicemic animal shed the organism in oral and nasal secretions and urine as well ass feces
Infection is unrelated to innate resistance of the host animal; dose and strain of the organism are much more important
The primary route of infection in most cases is by aerosol
Dairy cows are particularly susceptible to infections during the first two weeks of lactation because:
Of transient immunousuppression following calving
Dry matter intake cannot keep pace with nutrient requirements until after about 80 days after lactation commences
Of adjustment to the change in diet between the dry period and heavy lactational period
Of increased requirements for biological antioxidants during the first 60 days of lactation
Of increased physical activity associated with estrus
Serum chloride value of less than 60 mEq/I in cattle usually represents:
Rapid rumen outflow
The test is also known as "withers depressing"
A cow was persented for examination of a respiratory problem. On examination you have found a purulent discharge from the ear canal. Which one of the following goes to the top of your differential dianonsis list?
IBR (infectious bovine rhinotracheitis)
BRSV (bovine respiratory syncytial virus
Obstructive urolithiasis due to silica urinary calculi occurs commonly in steers and wethers raised on rangelands of the great plains of the North America. Which one of the following statements is true?
Calculi do not develop in mature cows and bulls
Calculi develop on castrated males because the diameter of the urethra is smaller then normal
Regarding colostrum management for calves, which one of the following statements is most correct?
Colostrum quality is not related to a cow's history or volume of colostrum produced
Holsteins tend to have lower immunoglobulin concentrations in colostrum than Jerseys
The ability of the calf to absorb IgG does not decline until the calf is 48 hours old
Johne's disease cannot be transmitted through the feeding of colostrum from an infected cow
Pasteurization destroys most of the antibodies in colostrum
Rumen acidosis occurs as a result of:
Too much rapidly digestible grain in the diet
Not enough effective fiber
Slug feeding of grain (e.g. feeding grain in the milking parlor)
Heat stress (panting cows have less bicarbonate available for buffering the rumen)
All of the above
Which one of the following dairy cows would be more likely to get fatty liver syndrome after calving?
Fat cow-BCS 4.5
Normal cow-BCS 3.5
Thin cow-BCS 2.0
Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection spread to the dairy herd?
By the owner who did not disinfect his boots
By a stray cat
By direct contact with the calves and their feces
By a stray dog
With the front end loader used to feed the cows
When rolling a cow to correct left abomasal displacement, the cow should be put down on to the left side first
Pupillary constriction is a clinical sign consistent with hypocalcemia in recumbent dairy cows
Elk, mule deer, moose bison and white tailed deer are naturally susceptible to Johne's disease.
Cows with bilateral obturator nerve paralysis may till be able to stand whereas cows with bilateral sciatic nerve paralysis cannot.
Vaccination of feedlot cattle against foot rot will also aid in the control of liver abscesses.
When you need withdrawal information for an antibiotic that you are using in an extralabel manner, the government agency to contact is:
Which one of the following statements is true concerning interstitial pneumonia in cattle?
Interstitial pneumonia is accompanied by high fever
The principal clinical signs are inspiratory dyspnea and mild fever
Expiratory dyspnea and subcutaneous emphysema are commonly seen.
Preferred therapy is oxytetracycline.
Prognosis for recovery is poor
Milk protein allergy in cattle would best be treated by or with:
Milking out the cow's udder.
Broad spectrum antibacterials.
Several goats in a flock were affected with severe panophthalmitis and conjunctivitis. Your presumptive diagnosis is "pink-eye." What would be your recommendation for this flock?
Send all to slaughter immediately.
Quarantine and treat with procaine penicillin G.
Quarantine and refer to the state veterinary officer.
Quarantine and vaccinate the herd with pink-eye vaccine.
Quarantine and treat with tetracy cline.
If not properly prepared before marketing, commingled feeder claves have the potential of "wrecking out" when they arrive at a feedlot. What is responsible for this wreck?
A fall in resistance due to weather changes.
A simultaneous fall in resistance and a rise in disease challenge.
A rise in disease challenge from commingling.
Vaccination more than thirty days before marketing.
A fall in resistance due to stresses of weaning, shipping, and diet change.
A common respiratory disease which may lead to pneumonic pasteurellosis in dairy calves in the United States is:
Which one of the following test is the preferred first test for use in the diagnosis of tuberculosis in cattle?
Single intradermal test
Comparative cervical test
Gamma interferon test
What would be the significance of a low neutrophil count with many non-segmented cells in a cow with a total white blood cell count below normal?
Probably indicative of chronic infection
Probably indicative of parasitism
Probably indicative of bone marrow suppression
Probably indicative of an acute infection
Possibly could be a normal hemogram
Of the following sheep breeds, which one has the characteristic of being able to lamb at any time of year?
The antibiotic that has a Gram-positive spectrum, requires daily dosing, has a medium withdrawal time of around 10 days. is cheap, can be purchased over the counter and is a good choice for footrot, presurgical use, Listeria and Clostridial infections is:
Which of the following statements is true concerning copper metabolism in sheep?
Sheep accumulate copper in the liver more readily than other species
Copper is required for an effective immune response
"Steely wool" and "swayback" are commonly reported signs of copper deficiency in sheep
Copper is required for normal iron metabolism
All of the above statements are true
Which cattle breed produces beef with a fatty acid composition that is significantly lower in saturated fat and cholesterol and higher in monounsaturated fat, and conjugated linoleic acid (CLA)?
What is a "persistently infected animal" with respect to bovine virus diarrhea virus?
Younger animals are more likely to show clinical signs of anaplasmosis than are older ones
Biting flies are biological vectors of anaplasmosis
Effectiveness of oxytetracycline therapy for anaplasmosis is reduced if more than 15% of the red blood cells are infected
Anaplasmosis vaccine is marketed commercially in the United States
Incubation period for anaplasmosis in cattle is short, usually 5-15 days
Which of the following antimicrobials has a formulation with a 7 day treatment interval?
If one were to mate a heterozygous polled bull with a homozygous horned cow, what percentage of the offspring would be polled?
What is the most prevalent major contagious pathogen in the U.S. and worldwide?
Mastitis can be eradicated from a dairy herd
Streptococcus agalactiae can be eradicated from a dairy herd
All of the following are dairy breeds EXCEPT
Most gram-positive mastitis pathogens are susceptible in vitro to the intramammary (IMM) antibiotics available
E. coli is is usually susceptible to approved IMM antibitoics
Most gram-negative mastitis pathogens are susceptible in VIVO to the IMM antibiotics available
Cows with contagious mastitis should be milked______?
Before fresh heifers
Should be dried up and not milked
What is considered the first line of defense of the mammary gland?
Pick the other one
What control procedure do we use to aid the first line of defense in the mammary gland?
Teat dipping with an effective germicide
pick the other one
Chronic mastitis is primarily due to ____________ pathogens?
To control Staphylococcus aureus, you should focus your efforts on decreasing social contact among cows
What major pathogen can be eliminated by antibiotic therapy?
Milking time hygiene is ALWAYS needed in every dairy
Clinical mastitis is more costly than subclinical mastitis
The teat canal remains open after milking up to ____________ hours
The streptococcus species that has characteristics of both contagious and environmental pathogens is S. dysgalactaie
Dry cow therapy means one is treating a dry cow for clinical mastitis
In a freestall barn, you see several cows standing or lying on concrete alleyways and loafing yards. This usually means what?
Free stalls are not comfortable
What major pathogen does not grow on blood agar?
What 3 words sum up coliform control?
clean, dry, and comfortable
Pick other one
You should only use dry cow IMM therapy on KNOWN infected cows.
Culling the cow is probably the only sure way to eliminate Mycoplasma bovis IMM
Buying dairy cows from other herds is a good dairy practice
Which of the following is NOT a good milking time hygiene?
Spraying water on udders of all cows
Single use damp cloth towels
Predipping and only leaving the predip on for 30 seconds
Drying the udder completely before attaching the milking unit
Which of the following teat dips are acceptable
Which two microorganisms are involved in the development of the condition shown in this picture?
Pasteurella and swine influenza virus
Hemophilus and Bordetella
Actinobacillus and Pasteurella
PRRS virus and Bordetella
Bordetella and Pasteurella
Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?
The ear twitch
The midline catch
The body wrap
These weaned pigs are affected with porcine dermatopathy and nephropathy syndrome (PDNS). Which one of the following pathogens is associated with this condition?
Porcine Circovirus type 2
Swine influenza virus
Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome virus
Identify this breed used mainly for milk and cheese production
These pigs have swine dysentery. Which one of the following statements is most correct concerning this disease?
The causative organism will survive outside the pig for up to seven weeks in cold moist conditions but it dies out in two days in dry warm environments
The high cost of disease is associated with high mortality
Clinical disease in sows is common
Pigs become infected through the ingestion of saliva from feeders
Swine dysentery is caused by a virus
Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and jowl abscess observed in this weaned pig?
Shown here is a cross-sectional view of a cow's abdomen showing distention of the ventral sac of the rumen. Which one of the following diagnoses would be most likely associated with this condition?
Acute traumatic reticulitis
Persistent non patent urachus
Identify the condition shown in this photograph
Upward fixation of the patella
What would be your diagnosis for this pruritic skin condition observed in these animals?
Greasy Pig disease
The disease affecting the tongue of this deer and causing the photosensitization in the bull are one and the same. Identify the disease.
Epizootic hemorrhagic disease
Chronic wasting disease
These stocker calves being fed pasture are being?
This cow is most likely suffering from?
On farms with robot milkers cows choose how often they want to be milked. What is the most important mechanism by whic increased frequency of milking increases milk production?
Frequent milking reduces back pressure in the udder
Increased prolactin secretion recruits more secretory cells
More frequent oxytocin release leads to increased production
Milking removes a locally acting lactation inhibition factor
Cows get more used to being milked and produce less adrenalin to interfere with milk letdown
Which one of the following is considered to be part of tan ideal milking system?
75:25 milking to massage ratio on the pulsators
Small bowl claw
20" Hg milking vacuum level
Post-dip applied by sprayer
Low line pipeline
What is the lowest lameness score this cow could have?
Which of the following choices is most reasonable for grade M2 mastitis (clots and flakes, swollen quarter, but no systemic involvement) in a herd in which most clinical mastitis is caused by Strep. uberis?
Proprietary intramammary mastitis infusion (e.g. Cef-Lak)
Intramammary mastitis tube + adjunct antibiotic therapy
Systemic ceftiofur (Naxcel/Excenel)
Custom compounded antibiotic udder infusion
No treatment until dry-off
What are we attempting to accomplish with this device?
Provide antibiotic to treat disease
Provide potable water
Harvest velvet from the antlers
Rid deer of ticks carrying lyme disease
Offer deer trace minerals and salts
This alpaca is presented for examination of a chronic pruritic skin disease of the head and face. Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely?
Vitamin A deficiency
What is the definitive host for the parasite which causes paresis or paralysis in camelids?
Snails and slugs
Here is pictured a beef liver with abscessation. One of the more likely causative organisms associated with this condition is also associated with which one of the following?
Wooden tongue in cattle
Big head in horses
Big head in sheep
Blackleg in cattle
ID this breed of dairy cattle known for the production of alpha-2 beta-casein milk
ID this beef breed which comes from Italy
Belgian blue and white
Energy balance is shown on this chart of events in the lactation cycle of a dairy cow. What is represented by the highlighted line?
Body condition score
Normal lactation curve
Dry matter intake
Serum ionize calcium levels
Risk for developing lameness
Porcine circovirus type 2
Energy balance is shown on this chart of events in the lactation cycle of a diary cow. What is represented by the orange line?
Serum ionized calcium levels
Identify this lesion found during abdominal surgery on a sheep
The dairy cow in this picture had a selective appetite for roughage but not grain shortly after a normal calving. Which one of the following diagnoses would be most likely?
Chondrodysplasia is a genetically induced disease of which one of the following breeds of sheep?
Identify the animal in this picture
this goat has a large swelling on the right side of the head below the ear. Which one of the following is a more likely diagnosis?
Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and skin lesions observed in this weaned pig?
On farms with robot milkers cows choose how often they want to be milked. What is the most important mechanism by which increased frequency of milking increases milk production?
Which one of the following organisms is associated with exudative epidermitis in swine?
This picture shows?
Proper placement of intramuscular injection
Proper placement of subcutaneous injection
Improper needle size selection
Inadequate restraint of the patient
Improper selection of site for administration of medication
Which one of the following problems would more likely be diagnosed in post-weaned pigs six to eight weeks of age?
ID the breed
A 4-H member handled some lambs about a week ago at the county fair. Now he has developed lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
This bull was presented with a large swelling in the penile and scrotal areas. What are the two most likely differential diagnoses?
Amyloidosis or hypoproteinemia
Lymphosarcoma or preputial abscess
Ruptured urethra or preputial abscess
Cardiac failure or hypoproteinemia
Parasitism or preputial abscess
You have been called to examine this recumbent neonatal calf which is unable to rise. In addition the calf is showing opisthotonus and has a fever of 107 degrees F. The calf does not have tetanus. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
What would be the most likely cause of the otitis media diagnosed in this calf?
Snails or slugs
White tailed deer
What is the lameness score of this cow?
chronic wasting disease of cervids is an example of what type of disease?
Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and jowl abscess observed in these weaned pigs?
Bovine virus diarrhea-mucosal disease complex
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
Consumption of Lupines during the first 30 days of pregnancy
Colostrum quality does not depend upon a cow's history or volume of colostrum produced
Holsteins tend to have higher immunoglobulin concentrations in colostrum than Jerseys
The ability of the calf to absorb 1gG does not decline until the calf is 48 hours old
Pasteurization does not destroy most of the antibodies in colostrum
What is usually the first step to be recommended in therapy for berserk male syndrome in llamas?
Removal of the canine teeth
The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between
Several piglets in a group weaned 10 days ago in the nursery facility of a commercial swine operation were found dead. On evaluation, some weaners have swelling around the eyes and forehead. Some are in lateral recumbency and dyspneic. Necropsy of the dead piglets reveals subcutaneous and submucosal edema. The most likely causative organism is........
Why do we keep an animal in sternal recumbency while administering treatment for milk fever?
Prevent muscle damage
Improve respiratory function
Improve cardiac function
Prevent regurgitation and aspiration
Which one of the following is used as a vaccine for contagious ecthyma in sheep?
Modified live virus
Air quality is often an issue in livestock confinement operation. Which one of most likely involved with animal or human deaths in a confinement operation?
Which one of the following statements is true concerning tuberculosis in cattle?
The primary route of infection is transplacental
The test used in the eradication program is an intradermal skin test
The disease has been eradicated in the continental United States
Coughing and chronic nasal discharge are the most obvious clinical signs in early cases
Infection usually occurs after two years of age
Which vaccine virus is not present in the standard 4-way modified live cattle respiratory vaccine?
Excessive use of water to clean the udder is a risk factor for which type of mastitis?
Increasing grain ration in close-up dairy cows before calving
Dipping teats before milking
Mowing pastures that have gone to seed to reduce eye irritation in pastured cattle
feeding anionic salts, such as ammonium chloride, to reduce the incidence of hypocalcemia in dairy cows
Processing beef calves in such a way as to reduce stress before moving them to a feedlot
Which of the following is true of contagious mastitis bacteria?
They are mostly gram negative
They rarely cause chronic infections
They don't respond to most intramammary mastitis preparations
transmission is between quarters is controlled by pre-dipping
They are obligate parasites of the mammary tissue or teat skin