3082 - Lectures 4-12

Question 1 of 81

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Bem's self-perception theory proposes that people tend to become more _____ to those things which they hear themselves state.

Select one of the following:

  • attached

  • opposed

  • committed

  • drawn

Question 2 of 81

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What are the three central constructs of Person-Centered Therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Client Experiencing, Actualising Tendency, and Self-Concept

  • Client Self-Concept, Actualising Tendency, Acceptance.

  • Client Experiencing, Actualising Tendency, and Acceptance.

  • Actualising Tendency, Client Experience, Commitment.

Question 3 of 81

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In Person-Centered Therapy, the emotions, and sensory and physiological events going on in the individual during therapy is referred to as:

Select one of the following:

  • Motivating state

  • Client internal state

  • Current-state arousal

  • Client Experiencing

Question 4 of 81

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Giving direct feedback to a client regarding the negative consequences of their behaviour is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Direct advice

  • Confrontation

  • Assertion

  • Downward arrow technique

Question 5 of 81

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Motivational Interviewing falls under which broad therapeutic approach?

Select one of the following:

  • Person-centered therapy

  • Cognitive Therapy

  • Behaviour Therapy

  • Interpersonal Therapy

Question 6 of 81

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If a therapist asks a client to make two lists, one of all the good things and one of all the bad things associated with a particular behaviour they are attempting to:

Select one of the following:

  • dichotomise client behaviour

  • highlight contradictory thinking

  • develop discrepancy

  • highlight the benefits of certain behaviours

Question 7 of 81

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The empty chair and split chair technique is associated with which form of therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Emotion Focused Therapy

  • Interpersonal Therapy

  • Schema Focused Therapy

  • Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy

Question 8 of 81

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Self-monitoring, self-reward, self-contracting, and stimulus control are all strategies that are associated with:

Select one of the following:

  • Assertion training

  • Self-management

  • Activity scheduling

  • Behavioural activation

Question 9 of 81

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According to learned helplessness and attribution theory, depression will occur if:

Select one of the following:

  • A: the individual is aware of uncontrollable factors in their environment

  • B: the individual views their situation as unchangeable.

  • C: the individual is unable to control their current situation adequately

  • D: both A & B

Question 10 of 81

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Some common cognitive distortions in panic disorder are:

Select one of the following:

  • A: threat perception

  • B: catastrophising

  • C: misinterpretation of bodily sensations

  • D: all of the above

Question 11 of 81

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Cognitive content specificity refers to the observation that:

Select one of the following:

  • cognitive themes are specific to certain individuals

  • different cognitive themes are found in different disorders.

  • several mental disorders share specific cognitive content

  • the cognitive themes of mental disorders are very different to those in the normally-functioning population

Question 12 of 81

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Differentiating from thoughts and feelings is important when:

Select one of the following:

  • Identifying discrepancies in behaviours.

  • Retrieving repressed memories.

  • Identifying distorted automatic thoughts.

  • Developing coping statements.

Question 13 of 81

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Gloaguen, Cottraux, Cucherat & Blackburn (1998) performed a meta-analysis of CBT for treatment of depression. What did they conclude?

Select one of the following:

  • At post-test, CBT was significantly better than BT, antidepressants, and other miscellaneous psychological therapies.

  • At post-test, CBT was significantly better than wait-list, anti-depressants, and other miscellaneous psychological therapies. CBT was also equal to BT.

  • At post-test, CBT was significantly better than wait-list, and other miscellaneous psychological therapies, but not as effective as antidepressants.

  • At post-test, CBT was significantly better than BT and wait-list, but not as effective as antidepressants.

Question 14 of 81

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Oei & Free's (1995) meta-analysis showed what in relation to the presence of 'cognitive change' in treating depression?

Select one of the following:

  • A: The relationship between cognitive change and depression was not unique to CBT.

  • B: The relationship between cognitive change and depression unique to CBT and BT.

  • C: Cognitive change occurred in CBT, Drug therapy, other psychological therapy, and WLCs.

  • D: both A & C

Question 15 of 81

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The therapy that aims to equip the client with the skills necessary to "become their own therapist" and to teach them ways to deal with future difficulties is:

Select one of the following:

  • Cognitive Behaviour Therapy

  • Person-Centered Therapy

  • Interpersonal Therapy

  • Motivational Interviewing

Question 16 of 81

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A therapist repeatedly responds to their clients answers by prefacing the next question with: "Assuming this is true…" and then asking another question. This is an example of which technique?

Select one of the following:

  • A: Testing assumptions

  • B: Downward (vertical) arrow.

  • C: Spiral questioning

  • D: none of these

Question 17 of 81

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Dingle, et al (in prep) examined how people responded to music by having them complete the Pos & Neg MARS (Music Affective Response Scales). Who did they conclude are most likely to benefit from a music-based intervention?

Select one of the following:

  • Those who scored low on the MARS-POS scale and low on the MARS-neg scale.

  • Those who scored high on both MARS-Pos and MARS-Neg.

  • Those who scored high on the MARS-POS scale and low on the MARS-neg scale.

  • Those who scored the most extreme high scores on both MARS-Pos and MARS-Neg scales.

Question 18 of 81

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Dingle Sharman et al. (in prep) surveyed 384 adults and assessed whether they used music to explore or to change their emotions. They categorised Ps as either high or low-risk according to how they rated their current mood. What did they find with regards to how these groups used music?

Select one of the following:

  • They found no significant differences between the groups, they appeared to both use music in the same ways.

  • They found that the high-risk group were more likely to use music to change their emotions.

  • They found that the high-risk group were more likely to use music to regulate their emotions, but the low-risk group were more likely to use music to make enhance a happy mood.

  • They found that the high-risk group were more likely to use music as a music regulation tool but that this group also listened to more music in general.

Question 19 of 81

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What are some potential barriers to CBT in young people?

Select one of the following:

  • Metacognitive ability is not fully developed, poorer literacy skills, impulsivity, may have poor ability to recognise and process emotions

  • Impulsivity, may have poor ability to recognise and process emotions, reduced capacity for identifying emotions in others.

  • Metacognitive ability is not fully developed, poorer social skills, impulsivity, may have poor ability to recognise and process emotions

  • Metacognitive ability is not fully developed, poorer social skills, impulsivity, may have poor ability to recognise emotions in others.

Question 20 of 81

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Which form of therapy aims to help clients adaptively get their core needs met, and improve coping responses?

Select one of the following:

  • Cognitive Therapy.

  • Schema-focused therapy.

  • Behavioural activation.

  • Emotion-focused coping.

Question 21 of 81

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Limited reparenting' is part of the change process in which form of therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Interpsersonal Therapy

  • Emotion focused therapy

  • Schema focused therapy

  • Psychoanalytic therapy

Question 22 of 81

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A therapist asks her client to choose a theme and write a narrative on this theme before their next session. In the next session, the therapist unpacks this narrative with the client, and the exposure to the issues within the narrative eventually leads the client to be able to confront a traumatic issue more directly. What kind of therapy is in use here?

Select one of the following:

  • Dialectical Behaviour Therapy

  • Cognitive Processing Therapy

  • Re-appraisal Therapy

  • Acceptance and Commitment Therapy

Question 23 of 81

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Research evidence for mindfulness suggests:

Select one of the following:

  • A: It is useful for treating anxiety disorders, preventing relapse in depression, and stress reduction.

  • B: It has shown benefits for HIV, rheumatoid arthritis, and chronic pain sufferers.

  • C: It is useful for treating anxiety disorders, preventing relapse in depression, and stress reduction, and has also shown promise for treating milder forms of OCD.

  • D: That there is a case for using mindfulness as an adjunct therapy in almost all forms of psychological disorder.

  • E: both A & B

Question 24 of 81

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Third wave cognitive behaviour therapists would likely endorse the notion that identifying and challenging distorted cognitions:

Select one of the following:

  • is the first step towards enacting real psychological change.

  • makes clients attend to them more, and it is the increased awareness that instigates the process of psychological change.

  • makes clients attend to them more and therefore can worsen the problem.

  • makes clients attend to them more, and therefore they are more likely to become rigid or automatic.

Question 25 of 81

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Having a client complete a values worksheet is a technique that a therapist using _____ might use.

Select one of the following:

  • A: Dialectical Behaviour Therapy

  • B: Acceptance and Commitment Therapy

  • C: ACT or Cognitive Reprocessing

  • D: Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy (REBT)

  • E: both A & B

Question 26 of 81

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Marsha Linehan is known for her work on:

Select one of the following:

  • Dialectical Behaviour Therapy.

  • Acceptance and Commitment Therapy

  • Mindfulness

  • Cognitive Processing Therapy

Question 27 of 81

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According to the ACT framework, a client who has been drinking a lot since breaking up with a partner might be engaging in:

Select one of the following:

  • change avoidance

  • denial

  • emotional displacement

  • experiential avoidance

Question 28 of 81

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In DBT, how is the analysis of self-harm useful for managing this behaviour?

Select one of the following:

  • A: It can help the client to understand the functionality of the behaviour.

  • B: It highlights the particular contexts that lead the the behaviour.

  • C: It acts as a mild punisher as the individual sees the analysis of the behaviour aversive.

  • D: It acts as a mild punisher as the individual begins to see how the behaviour is dysfunctional.

  • E: both A&B

Question 29 of 81

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The biosocial theory of Personality Disorder asserts that:

Select one of the following:

  • there are biological and environmental factors associated with PD. Biological: dysfunction of emotion regulation system. Environmental: invalidating environment, and the individual's pattern of self-invalidation.

  • there are biological and environmental factors associated with PD. Biological: dysfunction of emotional rewards system. Environmental: self and others in the environment that validate inappropriate behaviours

  • there are biological and environmental factors associated with PD. Biological: dysfunction of emotion regulation system. Environmental: invalidating environment, and the individuals reliance on expressing only primary emotions

  • there are biological and environmental factors associated with PD. Biological: dysfunction of emotion regulation system. Environmental: invalidating environment, and the individual's inability to restrict expression of primary emotions

Question 30 of 81

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Which therapeutic approach would be most likely to endorse the notion that we should pay particular attention to the context and function of psychological phenomena, not just their form?

Select one of the following:

  • Dialectical Behaviour Therapy

  • Third-wave cognitive-behaviour

  • Motivational Interviewing

  • Cognitive Processing

Question 31 of 81

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According to Hayes et al (2006), ACT is unusual as a modern day therapy because it is linked to a comprehensive basic theory of:

Select one of the following:

  • behavior principles

  • language and cognition

  • language, cognition and emotion regulation

  • emotion regulation and cognition

Question 32 of 81

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There is empirical support for DBT in treating:

Select one of the following:

  • A; Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)

  • B: chronically suicidal adults and suicidal adolescents

  • C: binge-eating disorder.

  • D: A & B only

  • E: All of the above

Question 33 of 81

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How did Hayes et al (2006) propose ACT compared to other active treatments across the range of problems they examined?

Select one of the following:

  • It was found to be about as equally effective as other active treatments for the problems they examined.

  • It showed generally smaller effect sizes for most treatments, but was well-received by almost all of those who were treated by ACT.

  • There was not enough well-controlled studies to conclude it was more effective than other active treatments but so far it seems that the data are promising.

  • The data were promising but there are difficulties measuring some of the core components of ACT so the results are difficult to interpret.

Question 34 of 81

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"Undoing self-blame" is one of the goals of:

Select one of the following:

  • Cognitive Processing Therapy

  • Dialectical Behaviour Therapy

  • Acceptance and Commitment Therapy

  • Emotion Focused Therapy

Question 35 of 81

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Oei & Dingle's (2008) meta-analysis of group CBT for depression found that:

Select one of the following:

  • Group CBT is an effective treatment that is comparable to other active treatments for depression. Effect size was larger when examining GCBT in uncontrolled studies than when examining trials that used a control group.

  • Group CBT is an effective treatment that is comparable to other active treatments for depression. Effect size was smaller when examining GCBT in uncontrolled studies than when examining trials that used a control group.

  • Group CBT is equally as effective as other active treatments for depression. Effect size was smaller when examining GCBT in uncontrolled studies than when examining trials that used a control group.

  • Group CBT is equally as effective as other active treatments for depression. Effect size was larger when examining GCBT in uncontrolled studies than when examining trials that used a control group.

Question 36 of 81

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What are the key concepts in group therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Group cohesion, group climate, therapeutic alliance, therapist empathy, engagement.

  • Group cohesion, group climate, individual affective relationship with group therapist, therapist empathy, commitment.

  • Group cohesion, individual affective relationship with group therapist, therapist empathy, commitment.

  • Group cohesion, group climate, group size, therapeutic alliance, therapist empathy, engagement.

Question 37 of 81

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Dwyer et al. (2011) investigated self determination theory as related to cognitive behavioural theories and found which aspect of SDT to be important in group therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • A: group relatedness

  • B: group identification

  • C: autonomy need satisfaction

  • D: both B & C

Question 38 of 81

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Why is individual therapy not necessary for many people with a chronic mental health condition?

Select one of the following:

  • Because therapy delivered in a group is usually more cost effective, something which is a major consideration for sufferers of chronic mental illness.

  • Because some chronic mental illness is best suited to a group application of therapy.

  • Because many people with a chronic mental illness already have individual contact with several health professionals in different areas of the health system and large therapeutic support networks.

  • Because they tend to present in hospital in acute episodes and otherwise can manage their illness in the community.

Question 39 of 81

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In the study of AOD Therapeutic Community members, living with someone with a substance use problem was related to:

Select one of the following:

  • voluntary withdrawal from the therapeutic community.

  • being discharged from the group for a rule violation.

  • substance use problems for the individual receiving therapy.

  • more frequent but shorter duration stays in the therapeutic community.

Question 40 of 81

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What were the main findings of the Dwyer et al. (2011) study of group therapy and autonomy needs satisfaction?

Select one of the following:

  • A: Mean autonomy satisfaction increased from pre-to-mid therapy then levelled out.

  • B: Increased identification with other group members improved outcomes.

  • C: number of group sessions mediated the relationship between autonomy and outcomes.

  • D: A & B

Question 41 of 81

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Hornsey et al. (2009) studied group processes in psychotherapy and concluded:

Select one of the following:

  • Half of the studies they reviewed showed no relationship between cohesion and outcomes, large variations in definition and measurement of cohesion, high cohesiveness improved personal expression.

  • 11/18 studies they reviewed showed a significant relationship between cohesion and outcomes, but large variations in definition and measurement of cohesion makes the results hard to interpret.

  • Few studies showed a relationship between cohesion and outcomes, large variations in definition and measurement of cohesion, high cohesiveness stifled personal expression.

  • More than half of the studies they reviewed showed no relationship between cohesion and outcomes, large variations in definition and measurement of cohesion, high cohesiveness may result in less personal expression.

Question 42 of 81

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What did the School of Hard Knocks study reveal about people who dropped out of the group?

Select one of the following:

  • They had difficulties identifying with the group at outset, and conflict with other group members was visible at outset.

  • They initially rated their identity with the group as higher than non-leavers.

  • They rated their identity with and support from the group as lower, and reported higher group based discrimination.

  • They had more severe chronic health conditions, which led to decreased ability to maintain their group membership.

Question 43 of 81

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What does the ethical principle of 'Integrity' refer to?

Select one of the following:

  • The competency of the practitioner.

  • The broader conduct of the practitioner.

  • The honesty of the practitioner.

  • The practitioner's ability to manage conflicts of interest.

Question 44 of 81

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What is the difference between Mandatory and Aspirational ethics?

Select one of the following:

  • Mandatory ethics refer to the ideal level of professional practice, whereas Aspirational ethics refer to the highest standard of conduct to which a professional can aspire.

  • Mandatory ethics refer to the highest standard of conduct a professional must achieve, whereas aspirational ethics refer to the minimum level of professional practice a practitioner should achieve.

  • Mandatory ethics refer to the minimum level of professional practice, whereas Aspirational ethics refer to the highest standard of conduct to which a professional can aspire.

  • Mandatory ethics refer to the rules regarding professional practice, whereas Aspirational ethics refer to the rules that individual practitioners set in their own practice.

Question 45 of 81

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Educating your client about their rights and responsibilities and helping them to make informed choices shows you understand and are delivering on your client's:

Select one of the following:

  • right to informed consent.

  • right to confidentiality.

  • right to transparency of information.

  • right to be respected.

Question 46 of 81

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In Australia, can a young person give informed consent?

Select one of the following:

  • Yes, if they are over 15 years of age.

  • No, a young person cannot give informed consent in Australia, they need to have a parent or guardian present to do this.

  • Yes, if they can achieve a sufficient understanding and intelligence to enable him/her to understand fully what is proposed.

  • Yes, but ethical guidelines relating to this are not comprehensive, therefore it would be best to have their parent give consent for them.

Question 47 of 81

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Westra et al (2012) studied therapists' early positive and negative emotional reactions to clients and their relationship to client resistance. What did they find?

Select one of the following:

  • greater therapist early positive reactions (especially liking, enjoyment and attachment, were associated with significantly lower levels of client resistance mid treatment, and greater reductions in client resistance from early to mid treatment, and these effects were independent of the therapist's competence at delivering CBT.

  • greater therapist early positive reactions (especially liking, enjoyment and attachment, were associated with significantly lower levels of client resistance mid treatment, and greater reductions in client resistance from mid treatment to termination, and these effects were independent of the therapist's competence at delivering CBT.

  • greater therapist early positive reactions (especially liking, enjoyment and attachment, were associated with significantly lower levels of client resistance mid treatment, and greater reductions in client resistance from early to mid treatment, but these effects depended on the therapist's competence at delivering CBT.

  • greater therapist early positive reactions (especially liking, enjoyment and attachment, were associated with significantly lower levels of client resistance mid treatment, but there seemed to be no relationship between therapist's positive/negative reactions and resistance in the later stages of therapy.

Question 48 of 81

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Issues of Informed Consent, Confidentiality, and Justice fall under which general principle of the APS code of ethics?

Select one of the following:

  • Propriety

  • Respect

  • Integrity

  • Accountability

Question 49 of 81

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You are a therapist working at a small private practice, and you suspect that another practitioner at the firm is exploiting one of their clients by booking them extra sessions because they are financially very well off. Which principle of the code of ethics are they violating?

Select one of the following:

  • Integrity

  • Respect

  • Propriety

  • Dignity

Question 50 of 81

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What purposes does a code of ethics serve?

Select one of the following:

  • A: Educate about responsibilities, provide basis for accountability

  • B: Provide basis for reflecting on and improving one's professional practice.

  • C: To provide stringent guidelines for practicing professionals

  • D: A & B

  • E: all of the above

Question 51 of 81

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Your client does not agree with your formulation. What should you do?

Select one of the following:

  • Explore areas of concern, modify your formulation, and if no agreement, refer the patient onwards

  • Give the client reasoning for your formulation, and if no agreement, discuss termination of treatment

  • Explore areas of concern, modify your formulation, and if no agreement, discuss the options

  • Explore areas of concern, modify your formulation until the patient is satisfied it is correct, then discuss any further issues.

Question 52 of 81

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The explanation of a client's presenting problems based on theoretical framework is also called a:

Select one of the following:

  • formulation

  • conceptualisation

  • diagnosis

  • rationale

Question 53 of 81

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What elements of the therapeutic relationship do clients report as being helpful?

Select one of the following:

  • A: Talking to someone (who listens)

  • B: Subjectivity

  • C: Truthfulness and honesty.

  • D: all of the above

  • E: A & C only

Question 54 of 81

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When making an assessment of a new client, what is important to consider at this step?

Select one of the following:

  • A: The meaning that is riding on the assessment: that is, what consequences might be associated with a particular diagnosis.

  • B: The client's ability to stay committed to a particular type of treatment plan.

  • C: Whether or not the client should be notified immediately of their diagnosis.

  • D: all of these things

Question 55 of 81

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Westra et al (2012) proposed that which interpersonal phenomenon that is heavily influenced by the therapist can be considered a clinical skill error?

Select one of the following:

  • client engagement in therapy

  • countertransference

  • sustained client resistance.

  • empathic communication

Question 56 of 81

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You are a therapist, and are about to see a couple with marital issues. At your last session, the couple spent a lot of time arguing and making hurtful comments to each other. What is an important step that may help to deal with or prevent these issues?

Select one of the following:

  • set rules for interaction at the outset of therapy

  • discuss this with each client individually before beginning the session

  • use turn-taking techniques so that neither can dominate the discourse

  • point out that hurtful comments will only hinder their progress in therapy

  • all of these

Question 57 of 81

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Clarifying expectations of therapy is useful when your client:

Select one of the following:

  • talks too much or doesn't talk at all

  • repeatedly avoids talking about a particular traumatic subject

  • has trouble articulating their feelings

  • doesn't understand your case formulation

Question 58 of 81

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What is meant by 'secondary gain for not changing' with respect to client resistance?

Select one of the following:

  • The client may feel if they derail the therapy repeatedly they will be diagnosed with the mental illness they believe they have.

  • The client may not wish to make progress in therapy as it may serve a purpose for them to remain unwell or to continue to be viewed as unwell.

  • The client may receive further financial funding for remaining in treatment

  • The client feels that their repeated resistance to the therapist will enhance their therapy by giving them more time to talk about their issues in therapy.

Question 59 of 81

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Any client behaviour that is unhelpful to their progress in therapy is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • transference

  • countertransference

  • resistance

  • deference

Question 60 of 81

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Which therapy was developed 'by accident' after it was used in a NIMH study as a 'placebo' condition?

Select one of the following:

  • Emotion Focused Therapy

  • Interpersonal Therapy

  • Cognitive Processing Therapy

  • Dialectical Behaviour Therapy

Question 61 of 81

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According to IPT, a sufficient social support network is likely to lead to _____ for someone facing an interpersonal crisis of Suprathreshold intensity.

Select one of the following:

  • increased reliance on social suuport network

  • resolution of the crisis

  • Subthreshold intensity symptoms

  • better interpersonal coping skills

Question 62 of 81

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In IPT, encouraging the client to assume a 'sick role' functions to:

Select one of the following:

  • A: remove the blame from the client

  • B: identify the problem as time-limited.

  • C: normalise the problem

  • D: all of the above

Question 63 of 81

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In IPT, having the client play several different roles during role playing serves to help the client:

Select one of the following:

  • A: understand different communication patterns

  • B: step briefly outside of their own body's experience

  • C: see how others model appropriate behaviour

  • D: A & C only

  • E: A & B only

Question 64 of 81

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Following a death, a person who experiences "normal grief" should see their symptoms resolve in approximately:

Select one of the following:

  • 3-5 months

  • 2-4 months

  • 6-8 months

  • it depends on their attachment style

Question 65 of 81

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According to the APA guidelines for treatment of depression, who in particular may respond better to sequential treatment with IPT followed by antidepressant medication in the non responders?

Select one of the following:

  • older women

  • younger women

  • men

  • women

Question 66 of 81

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In the initial phase of IPT for a woman who has recently lost a baby, statements like "I'm so sorry. You have suffered a terrible loss. No wonder you've been feeling so bad" help to ____ the woman's situation.

Select one of the following:

  • reinforce

  • validate / normalise

  • acknowledge

  • relect upon

Question 67 of 81

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Who is best suited to benefit from IPT?

Select one of the following:

  • Women

  • The answer to this remains unclear as more work needs to be done to establish this.

  • Women with post-partum depression

  • anyone with an insecure/avoidant attachment style

Question 68 of 81

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O'Hara et al (2000) examined the efficacy of IPT for postpartum Depression treatment. How did the results of the IPT group compare to the Antidepressant treatment group and the control group?

Select one of the following:

  • The IPT Group showed significantly greater improvement than the WLC group, but IPT was slightly less effective than antidepressants.

  • The IPT Group showed significantly greater improvement than the antidepressant group, a result which was unexpected given that the IPT group was developed to act as a placebo condition in this study.

  • The IPT Group showed a marginal improvement over the WLC group, and antidepressant treatment was still the most effective treatment.

  • The IPT Group showed significantly greater improvement than the WLC group, but there was no antidepressant treatment condition in this study.

Question 69 of 81

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What are the goals in helping someone transition to a new role?

Select one of the following:

  • A: Facilitate mourning of old role and acceptance of new role, help the gain mastery over new role.

  • B: Help client see significant others as less negative

  • C: develop new attachments and supports.

  • D: A & C

Question 70 of 81

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What incorrect assumptions related to communication does Communication Analysis seek to address?

Select one of the following:

  • A: The assumption that communication deficits are unaviodable

  • B: The assumption that one has communicated clearly and been understood.

  • C: The assumption that micro-skills are not necessary in communication

  • D: all of the above

Question 71 of 81

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According to ITP, who is most likely to present in a crisis situation for therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • A: People with insufficient social support networks who feel the crisis is above the level of intensity they can handle.

  • B: People with sufficient social support networks who feel the crisis is above the level of intensity they and their social support network can handle.

  • C: People who are experiencing an interpersonal crisis at a subthreshold intensity and without a social support network.

  • D: People who are experiencing an interpersonal crisis at a suprathreshold of intensity and who have interpersonal deficits that manifest in writing really long-winded distractor-answers to fake multiple choice quizzes just so they can remember some trivial piece of information that is most likely not going to be asked in an exam.

Question 72 of 81

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What is one of the primary goals in working with grief?

Select one of the following:

  • To help the person recover faster

  • To facilitate mourning.

  • To encourage the client to grieve 'normally'

  • To reduce isolation

Question 73 of 81

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In the NIMH Treatment of Depression Study, how did IPT compare to treatment with Imipromine (a tricyclic antidepressant) ?

Select one of the following:

  • The antidepressant was most effective for severe depression, but IPT was favoured by pregnant women due to their fears of taking antidepressants while breastfeeding.

  • They were both equally effective for treatment of severe depression.

  • For mild to moderate depression it was equally as effective, but for severe depression the antidepressant treatment was more effective than IPT.

  • For mild to moderate depression IPT was slightly more effective, but for severe depression the antidepressant treatment was more effective than IPT.

Question 74 of 81

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What are some strategies that might be used to address interpersonal deficits in IPT?

Select one of the following:

  • A: Increase the client's awareness of others' communication styles, reduce isolation, help the client recognise their emotions.

  • B: Review past significant relationships, problem-solve with positive reinforcement, and role play.

  • C: Have the client practice appropriate behaviours.

  • D: all of the above

Question 75 of 81

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What are the goals of IPT?

Select one of the following:

  • A: Change

  • B: Improvement in interpersonal relationships and social networks

  • C: Insight

  • D: all of these

  • E: A & B only

Question 76 of 81

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According to IPT, isolation and dysfunction in social relationships is _____ .

Select one of the following:

  • the most pressing concern when in psychological distress.

  • both causal and reciprocal in psychological distress.

  • common in psychological distress.

  • likely to result in psychological distress.

Question 77 of 81

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Why does Interpersonal Therapy place such a large emphasis on communication?

Select one of the following:

  • Because ITP takes the view that specific types of communication develop according to a person's attachment style, and certain attachment styles can leave people less able to communicate their needs appropriately.

  • Because communication has been found to be one of the major barriers to change in many other types of therapy.

  • Because without good communication skills, people will always find interpersonal deficits in their lives.

  • Because all people have different styles of communication and we need to understands these better in order to have healthy interpersonal relationships.

Question 78 of 81

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Harry Stack Sullivan is associated with which form of therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Emotion Focused Therapy

  • Interpersonal Therapy

  • Dialectical Behaviour Therapy

  • Cognitive Therapy

Question 79 of 81

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Social theory, a major underpinning of IPT acknowledges that within the population people display a spectrum of responses to interpersonal stressors. What does this mean in regards to the application of interpersonal therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • This type of therapy may be effective for a broader range of individuals than other more targeted approaches.

  • It may not be effective for everyone because people also react to stressors with a broad spectrum of communication styles and the communication analyses with ITP only address a select few.

  • It may not be effective for everyone because intervention at the interpersonal level may not be required for those people who are better at dealing with interpersonal stressors than others.

  • It means that therapists must be well trained in understanding a wide range of responses to interpersonal stressors in order to be effective in delivery IPT.

Question 80 of 81

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What is the aim of using clarification and directives in IPT?

Select one of the following:

  • A: To make the client more aware of what has actually been communicated.

  • B: To restructure and give feedback on the client's material.

  • C: A & B

  • D: none of the above

Question 81 of 81

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Which Ramones song did the super-talky mature-age student in our 3082 lectures tell Genevieve she should play during the break the Psychoanalysis lecture?

Select one of the following:

  • Gimme Gimme Shock Treatment

  • Psychotherapy

  • I Wanna Be Sedated

  • Teenage Lobotomy

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3082 - Lectures 4-12

renaecollett
Quiz by , created about 1 year ago

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renaecollett
Created by renaecollett about 1 year ago
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