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3rd Lecture Exam Part 3

3rd Lecture Exam Part 3

Question 1 of 90

1

The secondary stage of syphilis

Select one of the following:

  • is when the patient is no longer infectious to others.

  • occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.

  • is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.

  • has no symptoms.

  • is when gummas develop in tissues.

Explanation

Question 2 of 90

1

During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?

Select one of the following:

  • primary

  • secondary

  • tertiary

  • latent

  • All of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 3 of 90

1

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis?

Select one of the following:

  • primary

  • secondary

  • tertiary

  • latent

  • All of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 4 of 90

1

Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all

Select one of the following:

  • obligate parasites requiring host cells.

  • curved rods.

  • transmitted by arthropod vectors.

  • spirochetes.

  • bacteria without cell walls.

Explanation

Question 5 of 90

1

Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that

Select one of the following:

  • are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues.

  • are sexually transmitted.

  • are caused by arthropod vectors.

  • are caused by Vibrio species

  • are respiratory tract infections.

Explanation

Question 6 of 90

1

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their

Select one of the following:

  • feces

  • blood

  • urine

  • respiratory secretions

  • saliva

Explanation

Question 7 of 90

1

Leptospirosis has all the following characteristics except

Select one of the following:

  • most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs

  • pathogen is a spirochete

  • infects kidneys, liver, brain, eyes

  • humans acquire it by contact with abraided skin or mucous membranes

  • can be transmitted by animal bites

Explanation

Question 8 of 90

1

Relapsing fever involves

Select one of the following:

  • soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii.

  • initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue.

  • late symptoms of vomiting, muscle aches, damage to liver, spleen, heart and kidneys.

  • human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis.

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 9 of 90

1

The causative agent of Lyme disease is

Select one of the following:

  • Ixodes scapularis

  • Borrelia hermsii

  • Borrelia burgdorferi

  • Ixodes pacificus

  • Leptospira interrogans

Explanation

Question 10 of 90

1

Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with

Select one of the following:

  • syphilis

  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever

  • relapsing fever

  • Lyme disease

  • leptospirosis

Explanation

Question 11 of 90

1

The Argyll Robertson pupil that is fixed and small, and does not react to light but does accommodate for focusing is associated with

Select one of the following:

  • Lyme disease

  • leptospirosis

  • chlamydiosis

  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever

  • tertiary syphilis

Explanation

Question 12 of 90

1

The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the enzootic transmission cycle associated with

Select one of the following:

  • Lyme disease

  • leptospirosis

  • chlamydiosis

  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever

  • tertiary syphilis

Explanation

Question 13 of 90

1

Control of rodent populations is important for preventing

Select one of the following:

  • tick-borne relapsing fever

  • ornithosis

  • epidemic typhus

  • Q fever

  • All of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 14 of 90

1

Lyme disease involves

Select one of the following:

  • early symptoms of fever, headache, stiff neck.

  • crippling polyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems.

  • people having contact with wooded or forested areas.

  • treatment with antimicrobics.

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 15 of 90

1

The RPR, VDRL, MHA-TP, FTA-ABS, and TPI tests are used to diagnose

Select one of the following:

  • chlamydiosis

  • syphilis

  • lyme disease

  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever

  • Q fever

Explanation

Question 16 of 90

1

The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its

Select one of the following:

  • capsule

  • neurotoxin

  • invasive enzymes

  • enterotoxin

  • All of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 17 of 90

1

Cholera symptoms are

Select one of the following:

  • copious watery diarrhea

  • loss of blood volume

  • acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst

  • hypotension, tachycardia, shock

  • All of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 18 of 90

1

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is

Select one of the following:

  • water and electrolyte replacement

  • antimicrobics

  • antitoxin

  • surgery

  • None of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 19 of 90

1

An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood is

Select one of the following:

  • Chlamydia trachomatis

  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus

  • Vibrio cholerae

  • Campylobacter jejuni

  • Helicobacter pylori

Explanation

Question 20 of 90

1

In patients with diabetes or liver disease, ingestion of raw oysters contaminated with this organism can lead to death

Select one of the following:

  • Vibrio vulnificus

  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus

  • Vibrio cholerae

  • Campylobacter jejuni

  • Helicobacter pylori

Explanation

Question 21 of 90

1

"Rice water stools" are associated with disease caused by this organism:

Select one of the following:

  • Vibrio vulnificus

  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus

  • Vibrio cholerae

  • Campylobacter jejuni

  • Helicobacter pylori

Explanation

Question 22 of 90

1

Helicobacter pylori causes

Select one of the following:

  • gastritis

  • duodenal ulcers

  • stomach ulcers

  • increased risk for stomach cancer

  • All of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 23 of 90

1

Which is NOT a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?

Select one of the following:

  • gram negative

  • produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea

  • curved rods

  • lives in the stomach

  • produces urease that buffers stomach acidity

Explanation

Question 24 of 90

1

All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except

Select one of the following:

  • it is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water.

  • it causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea.

  • it infects the stomach.

  • it produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea.

  • it has gram negative curved rods with darting motility.

Explanation

Question 25 of 90

1

Characteristics of rickettsias include

Select one of the following:

  • obligate parasites requiring host cells for growth.

  • arthropods serve as life cycle hosts and vectors.

  • gram negative coccobacilli.

  • host cells are required for ATP metabolism.

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 26 of 90

1

The pathogenesis of rickettsial infections often involves infection of

Select one of the following:

  • endothelial lining of blood vessels

  • gastrointestinal lining

  • dermis of the skin

  • stomach mucosa

  • urinary tract

Explanation

Question 27 of 90

1

Which is mismatched?

Select one of the following:

  • epidemic typhus – body louse feces

  • murine typhus – flea feces

  • rickettsial pox – mite bite

  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever – tick bite

  • human ehrlichiosis – flea bite

Explanation

Question 28 of 90

1

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Select one of the following:

  • is seen in highest numbers along the west coast.

  • is transmitted by Ixodes ticks

  • has symptoms that include fever, headache and rash.

  • never has severe complications.

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 29 of 90

1

All of the following pertain to erhlichiosis except

Select one of the following:

  • it is transmitted by Amblyomma and Ixodes ticks.

  • it causes infection of monocytes.

  • it causes infection of granulocytes.

  • has symptoms that include fever, headache, and muscle pains.

  • the disease is showing a decreased incidence.

Explanation

Question 30 of 90

1

Which is incorrect regarding Q fever?

Select one of the following:

  • transmitted by lice

  • pathogen produces resistant spores

  • humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread

  • causes fever, muscle aches, rash, and sometimes pneumonia

  • is a zoonosis

Explanation

Question 31 of 90

1

Which is mismatched?

Select one of the following:

  • Rickettsia rickettsii – epidemic typhus

  • Coxiella burnetii – Q fever

  • Bartonella quintana – trench fever

  • Bartonella henselae – cat scratch disease

  • Rickettsia typhi – endemic (murine) typhus

Explanation

Question 32 of 90

1

The following are characteristics of Chlamydias except

Select one of the following:

  • gram negative

  • obligate parasites that need host cells for growth

  • elementary bodies are the infectious form

  • elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP

  • reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies

Explanation

Question 33 of 90

1

Chlamydia trachomatis causes

Select one of the following:

  • nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males.

  • cervicitis in females.

  • congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis.

  • ocular trachoma.

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 34 of 90

1

Ornithosis is

Select one of the following:

  • caused by Chlamydia pneumoniae.

  • a zoonosis of certain types of birds

  • a mild, upper respiratory tract illness.

  • has humans as a reservoir for the pathogen.

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 35 of 90

1

Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by

Select one of the following:

  • specific strains of Chlamydia trachomatis

  • Ureaplasma urealyticum

  • Mycoplasma hominis

  • Chlamydia psittaci

  • Chlamydia pneumoniae.

Explanation

Question 36 of 90

1

Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Select one of the following:

  • has birds as a reservoir

  • common cause of primary atypical pneumonia

  • initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, headache

  • after 2 to 3 weeks develops into an unproductive cough and earache

  • is a bacterial cell without a cell wall

Explanation

Question 37 of 90

1

Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface

Select one of the following:

  • develop a biofilm.

  • use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere.

  • include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque.

  • lactobacilli and streptococci ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries.

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 38 of 90

1

Gingivitis is

Select one of the following:

  • primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora.

  • erosion of tooth enamel causing a lesion.

  • caused by Streptococcus mutans

  • also called NUG.

  • None of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 39 of 90

1

Ureaplasma urealyticum is implicated in which of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • nongonococcal urethritis

  • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

  • periodontal disease

  • Q fever

  • endemic typhus

Explanation

Question 40 of 90

1

All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except

Select one of the following:

  • fluoride

  • lysozyme in saliva

  • antibodies in saliva

  • refined sugar

  • genetics.

Explanation

Question 41 of 90

1

Treponema vincentii, Bacteroides forsythus, and fusobacteria synergistically are involved in which infection?

Select one of the following:

  • gingivitis

  • necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)

  • ornithosis

  • yaws

  • caries

Explanation

Question 42 of 90

1

Which of the following distinguishes syphilis from yaws?

Select one of the following:

  • Syphilis is caused by a spirochete

  • Syphilis has a primary, secondary, and tertiary stages.

  • Syphilis is sexually transmitted.

  • Syphilis is treated with antibiotics.

  • Syphilis is a slow and progressive disease.

Explanation

Question 43 of 90

1

Which of the following are other names for yaws?

Select one of the following:

  • bouba

  • frambesia tropica

  • patek

  • All of the choices are correct.

  • None of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 44 of 90

1

Hutchinson's teeth are

Select one of the following:

  • a symptom of untreated Lyme disease.

  • a symptom of untreated periodontal disease.

  • a symptom of ANUG.

  • a symptom of congenital syphilis.

  • a symptom of congenital Chlamydia trachomatis.

Explanation

Question 45 of 90

1

The tertiary stage of syphilis

Select one of the following:

  • is when gummas develop in tissues.

  • is when the patient is highly infectious to others.

  • occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.

  • has no symptoms.

  • is when a chancre develops.

Explanation

Question 46 of 90

1

Which is incorrect about Lyme disease?

Select one of the following:

  • It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut.

  • Its reservoirs are mice and deer

  • It is transmitted by ticks.

  • It is nonfatal.

  • It can slowly progress and mimic rheumatoid conditions.

Explanation

Question 47 of 90

1

Which of the following diseases could be prevented with proper sewage disposal and water purification?

Select one of the following:

  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis

  • Vibrio vulnificus gastroenteritis

  • Cholera

  • Lyme disease

  • Leptospirosis

Explanation

Question 48 of 90

1

Which is incorrect about Leptospirosis?

Select one of the following:

  • It can be avoided by not swimming in livestock watering ponds.

  • A vaccine is not available.

  • Its principle targets are the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes.

  • It is a zoonosis.

  • Weil's syndrome occurs during the second phase of the disease.

Explanation

Question 49 of 90

1

Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

Select one of the following:

  • enterotoxigeic strains of E. coli

  • Salmonella

  • Shigella dysenteriae

  • E. coli 0157:H7

  • enteroinvasive E. coli

Explanation

Question 50 of 90

1

Which of the following is not correct concerning Legionnaires disease?

Select one of the following:

  • L. pneumophila lives in close associations with free-living amebas.

  • The disease is communicable from person to person.

  • Symptoms include cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.

  • . It is more common in males over 50 years of age.

  • Cases have been traced to the fallout from the Mount Saint Helen's volcano.

Explanation

Question 51 of 90

1

Which of the following is not correct concerning the plague?

Select one of the following:

  • Mice, voles and other rodents are primary long-term reservoirs.

  • Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today as in the Middle Ages

  • It is transmitted by flea vectors.

  • Less than 10 cases per year occur in the US.

  • The etiological agent is Yersinia pestis.

Explanation

Question 52 of 90

1

What is the usual cause of pseudomembranous colitis?

Select one of the following:

  • improperly home-preserved foods containing botulin toxin

  • eating unpasteurized dairy containing Listeria monocytogenes

  • handling infected animals contaminated with E. rhusiopathiae

  • therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile

  • living in close contact with someone infected with C. perfringens

Explanation

Question 53 of 90

1

Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene?

Select one of the following:

  • debridement of the wound

  • hyperbaric chamber

  • amputation of affected limb

  • rigorous cleansing of deep wounds

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 54 of 90

1

Mild, uncomplicated cases of pseudomembranous colitis may be treated by

Select one of the following:

  • debridement

  • wound cleansing

  • vancomycin for several weeks

  • withdrawal of antibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes

  • All of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 55 of 90

1

Viruses have all the following except

Select one of the following:

  • definite shape

  • metabolism

  • genes

  • ability to infect host cells

  • ultramicroscopic size

Explanation

Question 56 of 90

1

Host cells of viruses include

Select one of the following:

  • human and other animals

  • plants and fungi

  • bacteria

  • protozoa and algae

  • All of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 57 of 90

1

The core of every virus particle always contains

Select one of the following:

  • DNA

  • capsomers

  • enzymes

  • DNA and RNA

  • either DNA or RNA

Explanation

Question 58 of 90

1

Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except

Select one of the following:

  • type of nucleic acid

  • type of capsid

  • presence of an envelope

  • biochemical reactions

  • nucleic acid strand number

Explanation

Question 59 of 90

1

Which of the following represents a virus family name?

Select one of the following:

  • Herpes simplex virus

  • Herpesviridae

  • Picornavirus

  • Enterovirus

  • Hepatitis B virus

Explanation

Question 60 of 90

1

Virus capsids are made from subunits called

Select one of the following:

  • envelopes

  • spikes

  • capsomeres

  • prophages

  • peplomers

Explanation

Question 61 of 90

1

Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus

Select one of the following:

  • spike

  • capsomere

  • envelope

  • capsid

  • core

Explanation

Question 62 of 90

1

Which of the following is correct about viruses?

Select one of the following:

  • cannot be seen with a light microscope

  • are procaryotic

  • contain 70S ribosomes

  • undergo binary fission

  • can be grown on nutrient agar

Explanation

Question 63 of 90

1

All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they

Select one of the following:

  • gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane.

  • gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane.

  • contain special virus proteins.

  • help the virus particle attach to host cells.

  • located between the capsid and nucleic acid.

Explanation

Question 64 of 90

1

Which of the following is not associated with every virus?

Select one of the following:

  • envelope

  • capsomers

  • capsid

  • nucleic acid

  • genome

Explanation

Question 65 of 90

1

These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors

Select one of the following:

  • sheath

  • tail fibers

  • nucleic acid

  • capsid head

  • None of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 66 of 90

1

Which is incorrect about prophages?

Select one of the following:

  • present when the virus is in lysogeny

  • formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome

  • replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny

  • cause lysis of host cells

  • occur when temperate phages enter host cells

Explanation

Question 67 of 90

1

T-even phages

Select one of the following:

  • include the poxviruses

  • infect Escherichia coli cells

  • enter host cells by engulfment

  • have helical capsids

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 68 of 90

1

The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is

Select one of the following:

  • penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release.

  • replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release.

  • adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release

  • assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption.

  • adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration.

Explanation

Question 69 of 90

1

The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is

Select one of the following:

  • adsorption to the host cells

  • injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell

  • host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins

  • assembly of nucleocapsids

  • replication of viral nucleic acid

Explanation

Question 70 of 90

1

Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during

Select one of the following:

  • replication

  • assembly

  • adsorption

  • release

  • penetration

Explanation

Question 71 of 90

1

Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?

Select one of the following:

  • live lab animals

  • embryonated bird eggs

  • primary cell cultures

  • continuous cell cultures

  • blood agar

Explanation

Question 72 of 90

1

In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____.

Select one of the following:

  • nucleus, cytoplasm

  • cytoplasm, cell membrane

  • cell membrane, cytoplasm

  • cytoplasm, nucleus

  • nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation

Question 73 of 90

1

Host range is limited by

Select one of the following:

  • type of nucleic acid in the virus

  • age of the host cell

  • type of host cell receptors on cell membrane

  • size of the host cell

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 74 of 90

1

The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called

Select one of the following:

  • lysogeny

  • budding

  • plaques

  • cytopathic effects

  • pocks

Explanation

Question 75 of 90

1

Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called

Select one of the following:

  • lysogeny

  • budding

  • plaques

  • cytopathic effects

  • pocks

Explanation

Question 76 of 90

1

Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called

Select one of the following:

  • lysogeny

  • budding

  • plaques

  • cytopathic effects

  • pocks

Explanation

Question 77 of 90

1

Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called

Select one of the following:

  • latent

  • oncogenic

  • prions

  • viroids

  • delta agents

Explanation

Question 78 of 90

1

Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect?

Select one of the following:

  • inclusions in the nucleus

  • multinucleated giant cells.

  • inclusions in the cytoplasm

  • cells round up

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 79 of 90

1

Uncoating of viral nucleic acid

Select one of the following:

  • does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication

  • involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid

  • occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle

  • occurs before replication

  • All of the choices are correct

Explanation

Question 80 of 90

1

Infectious protein particles are called

Select one of the following:

  • viroids

  • phages

  • prions

  • oncogenic viruses

  • spikes

Explanation

Question 81 of 90

1

Infectious naked strands of RNA are called

Select one of the following:

  • viroids

  • phages

  • prions

  • oncogenic viruses

  • spikes

Explanation

Question 82 of 90

1

Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is

Select one of the following:

  • caused by a chronic latent virus

  • initiated by an oncogenic virus

  • caused by a viroid

  • a spongiform encephalopathy of humans

  • also called "mad cow disease".

Explanation

Question 83 of 90

1

Satellite viruses are

Select one of the following:

  • also called viroids

  • dependent on other viruses for replication

  • the cause of spongiform encephalopathies

  • significant pathogens of plants

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 84 of 90

1

All of the following is correct about treating viral diseases except

Select one of the following:

  • viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria

  • many antiviral drugs block viral replication

  • many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects

  • interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections

  • All of the choices are correct.

Explanation

Question 85 of 90

1

The capsomers are made of

Select one of the following:

  • DNA

  • RNA

  • Lipids

  • Protein

  • Carbohydrate

Explanation

Question 86 of 90

1

Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered

Select one of the following:

  • simple viruses

  • complex viruses

  • naked viruses

  • viroids

  • incomplete viruses

Explanation

Question 87 of 90

1

The nucleocapsid consists of

Select one of the following:

  • the capsomers assembled into the capsid

  • the nucleic acid of the virus only

  • the nucleic acid along with the capsid

  • the envelope and capsid

  • the envelope, nucleic acid and caspid

Explanation

Question 88 of 90

1

Which of the following parts of a virus is not always present?

Select one of the following:

  • envelope

  • nucleic acid

  • capsid

  • capsomers

  • None of the choices are optional parts of a virus

Explanation

Question 89 of 90

1

When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means

Select one of the following:

  • the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.

  • the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane.

  • the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid.

  • the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host.

  • the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective.

Explanation

Question 90 of 90

1

All of the following are characteristics of viruses except

Select one of the following:

  • they can be crystallized.

  • they often have a geometric capsid

  • they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids

  • they can cause fatal diseases.

  • they can cause mild diseases.

Explanation

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