Final Lecture Exam Part2

Question 1 of 59

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T-lymphocyte stimulation by specific antigens leads to a type of immunity called

Select one of the following:

  • cell-mediated immunity.

  • antibody-mediated immunity.

  • innate immunity.

  • species immunity.

Question 2 of 59

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Which of the following cells undergo clonal selection when their antigen receptors bind to an antigen?

Select one of the following:

  • B cells

  • CD4 T cells

  • CD8 T cells

  • All of the above

Question 3 of 59

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The cell that matures in the thymus gland

Select one of the following:

  • localizes in the skin tissues.

  • becomes a plasma cell.

  • is responsible for cell-mediated immunity.

  • produces antibodies.

Question 4 of 59

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Which of the following cells has specific antigen receptors, has to interact with antigen presenting cells in order to be activated, and kills host cells that are infected with viruses?

Select one of the following:

  • B cells

  • Helper T cells

  • Cytotoxic T cells

  • Natural Killer cells

Question 5 of 59

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The thymus

Select one of the following:

  • is where lymphoid progenitor cells mature into immunocompetent T cells.

  • is where B cells mature into plasma cells.

  • selectively destroys B lymphocytes.

  • is involved in the humoral immune response.

Question 6 of 59

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The site on an antibody molecule that can be bound by a phagocyte is part of the

Select one of the following:

  • Fab fragment.

  • variable region.

  • light chain.

  • Fc fragment.

Question 7 of 59

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The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that contains the antigen binding site can be described as all of the following, except

Select one of the following:

  • composed of parts of the light chain and the heavy chain.

  • is called the Fab fragment.

  • composed of variable domains.

  • is called the Fc fragment.

Question 8 of 59

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Which of the following are functions of the Fc fragment?

Select one of the following:

  • It can combine with phagocytes in opsonization.

  • It may activate the complement system in resistance mechanisms.

  • It might attach to certain cells in allergic reactions.

  • All of the above are correct.

Question 9 of 59

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All of the following are true of IgG except

Select one of the following:

  • it confers immunity to the fetus.

  • it is the important factor of the secondary antibody response.

  • it is the major circulating antibody.

  • it is critically important in allergic reaction.

Question 10 of 59

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All of the following are true of IgG except

Select one of the following:

  • it confers immunity to the fetus.

  • it is the important factor of the secondary antibody response.

  • it is the major circulating antibody.

  • it is critically important in allergic reaction.

Question 11 of 59

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The _______ antibody class is referred to as the maternal antibody

Select one of the following:

  • IgM

  • IgA

  • IgE

  • IgG

Question 12 of 59

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The first antibody produced in a primary antibody response is

Select one of the following:

  • IgG

  • IgM

  • IgA

  • IgD.

Question 13 of 59

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Colostrum contains

Select one of the following:

  • IgG.

  • IgM.

  • IgA.

  • IgD

Question 14 of 59

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Which of the following is NOT true about the secondary response to a particular antigen?

Select one of the following:

  • Faster than the primary response

  • . Higher antibody titer than the primary response

  • Memory cells are involved

  • Happens the first time the antigen stimulates the lymphocytes

Question 15 of 59

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Antibodies can protect against viral infection by binding to epitopes on the viruses which

Select one of the following:

  • kills the virus.

  • prevents the virus from attaching to host cells.

  • causes agglutination of the viral particles.

  • None of the above: antibodies offer no protection against viruses.

Question 16 of 59

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The neutralization of toxin molecules by antitoxins accomplishes all the following except

Select one of the following:

  • increases the activity between toxins and interleukins.

  • prevents toxin from binding to cells.

  • prevents toxic effects on cells.

  • lessens the ability of toxins to diffuse through the tissues.

Question 17 of 59

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Antibodies binding to antigens can trigger

Select one of the following:

  • opsonization.

  • activation of complement.

  • neutralization.

  • All the above are correct.

Question 18 of 59

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Macrophages are involved in

Select one of the following:

  • presenting antigen fragments to T cells.

  • phagocytosis.

  • destroying antigen-antibody complexes

  • All the above are correct.

Question 19 of 59

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Which one of the following is not an effect of complement activation?

Select one of the following:

  • Lysis of a bacterial cell through cytoplasmic leakage

  • Attraction of phagocytes

  • Enhanced T-lymphocyte activity through thymus gland interaction

  • Opsonization of bacterial surfaces

Question 20 of 59

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CD8 co-receptor proteins are found on

Select one of the following:

  • helper T cells.

  • macrophages.

  • cytotoxic T cells.

  • plasma cells.

Question 21 of 59

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CD4 co-receptor proteins are found on

Select one of the following:

  • helper T cells.

  • macrophages.

  • cytotoxic T cells.

  • plasma cells.

Question 22 of 59

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Which of the following molecules are found on the surface of all nucleated cells in the body?

Select one of the following:

  • Immunoglobulin

  • MHC Class I molecules

  • MHC Class II molecules

  • TCRs

Question 23 of 59

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Which of the following molecules are only found on the surface of antigen presenting cells?

Select one of the following:

  • Immunoglobulin

  • MHC Class I molecules

  • MHC Class II molecules

  • TCRs

Question 24 of 59

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Which one of the following is not associated with interleukin-1?

Select one of the following:

  • It is secreted by macrophages.

  • It activates helper T cells.

  • It stimulates antigen-antibody reactions.

  • It is produced in response to APC binding to T cell.

Question 25 of 59

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. The cells that are responsible for killing abnormal cells such as tumor cells are

Select one of the following:

  • Phagocytes such as macrophages.

  • Helper T cells.

  • Cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

  • B cells.

Question 26 of 59

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Cytotoxic T cells release which of the following cytokines in cell to cell combat?

Select one of the following:

  • Lysozyme and histamine

  • Perforin and granzyme

  • Lysozyme and perforin

  • Granzyme and histamine

Question 27 of 59

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The only cells required in an antibody response to T-independent antigens are

Select one of the following:

  • B lymphocytes.

  • T lymphocytes.

  • natural killer cells.

  • macrophages.

Question 28 of 59

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Superantigens are

Select one of the following:

  • antigens that bind directly to MHC protein on T cells.

  • extraordinarily large antigens on B cells.

  • haptens + carrier proteins.

  • None of the above are correct.

Question 29 of 59

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With the development of modern vaccines we have brought which of the following diseases to the point where we can now say it has been eradicated?

Select one of the following:

  • Smallpox

  • Polio

  • Diptheria

  • Pertussis

Question 30 of 59

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How does an individual gain naturally acquired active immunity?

Select one of the following:

  • Get the disease and recover from it.

  • Be exposed exposed to the disease, but have a subclinical case.

  • Be born with a natural immunity to the disease.

  • Both A and B are correct, but not C.

Question 31 of 59

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An individual generally acquires natural active immunity after

Select one of the following:

  • an injection of IgG.

  • an infusion of T lymphocytes.

  • a blood transfusion.

  • suffering an illness.

Question 32 of 59

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Active immunity develops after the

Select one of the following:

  • antigens enter the body and induce an immune response.

  • antiserum is injected into the body.

  • antibodies pass across the placenta to the fetus.

  • antibodies pass in the colostrum to the newborn.

Question 33 of 59

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Which of the following types of vaccines induce the strongest immune response, sometimes giving a lifelong immunity?

Select one of the following:

  • Conjugate vaccine

  • DNA vaccine

  • Live attenuated vaccine

  • Recombinant subunit vaccine

Question 34 of 59

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The intentional injection of an attenuated virus into a person will lead to

Select one of the following:

  • naturally acquired active immunity.

  • artificially acquired active immunity.

  • naturally acquired passive immunity.

  • artificially acquired passive immunity.

Question 35 of 59

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The Sabin oral polio vaccine is prepared with _______ polioviruses that stimulate the immune system.

Select one of the following:

  • activated

  • attenuated

  • killed

  • parts of

Question 36 of 59

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. Attenuated viral vaccines are more difficult to use in developing countries than inactivated viral vaccines because

Select one of the following:

  • they require more booster shots.

  • they require refrigeration to retain their effectiveness.

  • it is difficult finding enough sterile needles for them.

  • it is difficult finding enough medical personnel to administer the vaccines.

Question 37 of 59

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Which of the following is a drawback to the use of inactivated vaccines?

Select one of the following:

  • Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time.

  • They have to be kept refrigerated.

  • They have a short shelf life.

  • All of the above are correct.

Question 38 of 59

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Immunity to the disease _______ may be stimulated by injection of a preparation of _______.

Select one of the following:

  • pertussis; attenuated viruses

  • meningitis; inactivated virus

  • diphtheria; toxoid

  • measles; bacterial fragments

Question 39 of 59

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Which of the following is a single-dose vaccine?

Select one of the following:

  • Sabin polio vaccine

  • Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine

  • Salk polio vaccine

  • All of the above are single-dose vaccines.

Question 40 of 59

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Subunit vaccines are those that use

Select one of the following:

  • parts of antibody molecules as antigens.

  • fragments of phagocytes in solution.

  • parts of microorganisms such as pili and capsular polysaccharides.

  • preparations of haptens.

Question 41 of 59

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Conjugate vaccines contain toxoids because

Select one of the following:

  • toxoids are much easier to store.

  • polysaccharide antigens by themselves produce a weak immune response.

  • they are only used for diseases caused by toxins

  • the pathogen that they are designed to protect against has no other antigens.

Question 42 of 59

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Which of the following vaccines are conjugate vaccines where part of the capsular polysaccharides are added to a tetanus or diphtheria toxoid?

Select one of the following:

  • Hib

  • MMR

  • Salk polio

  • Sabin polio

Question 43 of 59

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Recombinant subunit vaccines have been developed against

Select one of the following:

  • polio.

  • hepatitis B.

  • tetanus.

  • None of the above is correct.

Question 44 of 59

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Passive immunity can

Select one of the following:

  • involve an injection of antibodies.

  • be acquired by a child from its mother.

  • be administered with a convalescent serum.

  • All the above are correct.

Question 45 of 59

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A child receiving antibodies in the colostrum during nursing has acquired immunity that is

Select one of the following:

  • passive and active.

  • natural and artificial.

  • passive and natural.

  • artificial and passive.

Question 46 of 59

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Serum sickness may accompany the development in the body of

Select one of the following:

  • cell-mediated immunity.

  • the complement cascade

  • artificial passive immunity.

  • natural active immunity.

Question 47 of 59

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When the immune system recognizes a foreign protein in a serum injection, immune complexes form and complement is activated, a person may develop a type of reaction called

Select one of the following:

  • immune complex disease.

  • anaphylaxis.

  • hypersensitivity.

  • serum sickness.

Question 48 of 59

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Which one of the following is not a characteristic of convalescent serum?

Select one of the following:

  • It protects against an illness.

  • It is derived from the blood of a patient recovering from an illness.

  • It is used to treat an established disease.

  • It is made from a pool of sera from animals.

Question 49 of 59

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Herd immunity is affected by all the following factors except

Select one of the following:

  • the environment.

  • antibiotic use.

  • immune system strength.

  • the number of vaccinated people in the population.

Question 50 of 59

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Which one of the following is not related to antibody titer?

Select one of the following:

  • The amount of antibodies present in the serum

  • The progress of a disease

  • The level of immunity in a patient

  • The degree of activity of T lymphocytes

Question 51 of 59

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A neutralization reaction may be observed in the laboratory by

Select one of the following:

  • noting the agglutination of red blood cells.

  • injecting the antigen-antibody mixture to an animal.

  • watching for precipitate formation.

  • observing the fixing of complement.

Question 52 of 59

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You are carrying out a serological test. You first mix a sample of diphtheria toxin with the patient's serum, inject it into a mouse, then watch to see whether the animal dies or survives. You have performed a(n)

Select one of the following:

  • precipitation test.

  • neutralization test.

  • agglutination test

  • complement fixation test.

Question 53 of 59

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Precipitation reactions between antigens and antibodies are characterized by

Select one of the following:

  • appearance of IgE in the immune system.

  • formation of a large lattice formed from antibodies and antigens.

  • inhibition of the complement system.

  • destruction of red blood cells.

Question 54 of 59

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The zone of equivalence is the

Select one of the following:

  • concentrations of antibodies and antigens which is ideal for precipitation.

  • area on an immunoelectrophoresis gel where the antibody is placed

  • optimum concentration of vaccine for an individual.

  • time at which active and passive immunity are equally effective in protecting against disease.

Question 55 of 59

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A neutralization test for diphtheria is called

Select one of the following:

  • Coombs test.

  • Widal test.

  • Schick test.

  • precipitin test.

Question 56 of 59

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In immunodiffusion, antigens and antibodies diffuse through a gel towards each other and

Select one of the following:

  • agglutinate when they reach each other.

  • neutralize each other.

  • form a visible precipitate at the zone of equivalence.

  • fluoresce at the zone of equivalence.

Question 57 of 59

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The test to detect Rh antibodies is the

Select one of the following:

  • Coombs test.

  • Widal test.

  • Schick test.

  • precipitin test.

Question 58 of 59

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All the following are required to perform a florescent antibody test for syphilis except

Select one of the following:

  • a sample of the patient's serum

  • fluorescein-labeled antiglobulin antibodies.

  • complement from a guinea pig.

  • syphilis spirochetes.

Question 59 of 59

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An important advantage of the radioimmunoassay is the

Select one of the following:

  • adaptability to small laboratories.

  • high sensitivity.

  • low hazard level.

  • low cost per test.

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Final Lecture Exam Part2

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Quiz on Final Lecture Exam Part2, created by Sunny-ko on 14/05/2014.

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