10. oración y novena 698-817

Question

698 (Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is

Answer 1

a. 2,365 feet MSL

Answer 2

b. 2,400 feet MSL

Answer 3

c. 3,000 feet MSL.

Answer 4

a. Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach , or communications equipment, occurring in flight

Answer 5

b. Requested to contact a new controlling facility

Answer 6

c. Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes

Answer 7

a. One VOR receiver

Answer 8

b. One VOR receiver and DME

Answer 9

c. Two VOR receivers and DME

Answer 10

a. Used to separate IFR and known VFR traffic.

Answer 11

b. To facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures

Answer 12

c. Used at certain airports to relieve traffic congestion

Answer 13

a. Reaching the FAF

Answer 14

b. Advised to begin descent

Answer 15

c. Established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure.

Answer 16

a. Denver VORTAC

Answer 17

b. Dymon outer marker

Answer 18

c. Cruup I-AQD DME fix

Answer 19

a. A procedure turn is not authorized.

Answer 20

b. Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized

Answer 21

c. Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized

Answer 22

a. Maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes

Answer 23

b. Receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix

Answer 24

c. Maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes

Answer 25

a. Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach

Answer 26

b. Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot

Answer 27

c. Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.

Answer 28

a. Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used

Answer 29

b. Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.

Answer 30

c. Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.

Answer 31

a. 1,420 feet

Answer 32

b. 1,340 feet

Answer 33

c. 1,121 feet.

Answer 34

a. Ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.

Answer 35

b. Ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

Answer 36

c. Ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM

Answer 37

a. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision

Answer 38

b. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision

Answer 39

c. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.

Answer 40

a. Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL

Answer 41

b. 8,000 feet MSL

Answer 42

c. 2,100 feet AGL.

Answer 43

a. True, they are both the same

Answer 44

b. False, one is the type of flight plan and the other the designation as per Ops. Specs.

Answer 45

c. False, but they are correlated

Answer 46

a. The brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream

Answer 47

b. The brain not being used to a lack of oxygen

Answer 48

c. All of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic

Answer 49

a. 1.0 DME

Answer 50

b. 2.0 DME to either side of the arc

Answer 51

c. 0.0. (No deviations are allowed)

Answer 52

a. 6.0 Nm from the VOR

Answer 53

b. 4.5 Nm from the VOR

Answer 54

c. 3.0 Nm from the VOR

Answer 55

a. All ICAO special charts

Answer 56

b. IFR departure design criteria

Answer 57

c. Non Jeppesen stars

Answer 58

a. Continue flying the DP as published

Answer 59

b. Return for a landing

Answer 60

c. Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included

Answer 61

a. True, except as published on STARs

Answer 62

b. False, every airport is different

Answer 63

c. True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs

Answer 64

a. Be flown if available for that airport

Answer 65

b. Be flown and no change request for another DP is allowed if on an IFR flight plan

Answer 66

c. Be flown if accepted but may be declined or changes made if coordinated with ATC

Answer 67

a. V stands for “very high speed” and 344 is the max. speed allowed in Kts for that direction of flight

Answer 68

b. V stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway allocation

Answer 69

c. V stands or “VictorCollins” who min1935 invented the airways between VOR sand 344 is the airway allocation

Answer 70

a. Navigation signal

Answer 71

b. Both navigation and communications

Answer 72

c. 1.500 ground clearance around mountains

Answer 73

a. Do nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side

Answer 74

b. Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway

Answer 75

c. Do nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line

Answer 76

a. MVA, MEA and MOCA

Answer 77

b. MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA

Answer 78

c. Neither,astheradioaltimeterisneveractivated(2.500Ftorless)whentheaircraftfliesinmountainousterrain

Answer 79

a. A Hi or Lo enroute chart

Answer 80

b. A GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used

Answer 81

c. A WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for enroute navigation

Answer 82

a. Your altitude assigned level/alt, squak code

Answer 83

b. Aircraft ID, present altitude, squak code

Answer 84

c. Aircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude assigned and squak code

Answer 85

a. Write a maintenance report at your next stop

Answer 86

b. Advice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate arrangements

Answer 87

c. Check the MEL to ensure the equipment is not required for the type of flight you are executing

Answer 88

a. Aircraft ID, position, ETA over next PT and following point

Answer 89

b. Nothing if you were advised to be in radar contact since in this condition ATL always knows where you are

Answer 90

c. Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next point, following compulsory point, remarks if any

Answer 91

a. Report leaving present altitude

Answer 92

b. Just descend at will since ATC will know your altitude at all times

Answer 93

c. Descend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of your traffic

Answer 94

a. Advice ATC if more than 5 % error or 10 miles

Answer 95

b. If off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised time

Answer 96

c. Do nothing as you are on an IFR Flt

Answer 97

a. You will fly two complete racetrack patterns

Answer 98

b. You will fly three complete racetrack patterns

Answer 99

c. The # of circuits you fly depends on the speed you are holding at.

Answer 100

a. Slow down and enter the hold at VMC + 10 Kts

Answer 101

b. Reach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/category

Answer 102

c. Maintainthespeedupsoastoholdatthefastestspeedpossibletobethefirsttoleavethefixandexpedite ATC

Answer 103

a. When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace

Answer 104

b. In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.

Answer 105

c. In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace

Answer 106

a. Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace

Answer 107

b. Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists

Answer 108

c. Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist

Answer 109

a. Entering controlled airspace

Answer 110

b. Entering weather conditions below VFR minimums

Answer 111

c. Takeoff.

Answer 112

a. Controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments

Answer 113

b. Entering weather conditions in any airspace

Answer 114

c. Entering controlled airspace

Answer 115

a. When operating in the Class E airspace

Answer 116

b. When operating in the Class A airspace.

Answer 117

c. When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet

Answer 118

a. Takeoff.

Answer 119

b. Entering IFR conditions

Answer 120

c. Entering Class E airspace.

Answer 121

a. And receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff

Answer 122

b. Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway

Answer 123

c. And receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

Answer 124

a. Then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

Answer 125

b. Then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Answer 126

c. And then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

Answer 127

a. And fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

Answer 128

b. Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Answer 129

c. Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Answer 130

a. 800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.

Answer 131

b. 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility

Answer 132

c. 1,000-footceilingandvisibilitytoallowdescentfromminimumenroutealtitude(MEA),approach,andlanding under basic VFR

Answer 133

a. 400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

Answer 134

b. 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility

Answer 135

c. 800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

Answer 136

a. Ceiling200feetabovetheapproachminimumsandatleast1statutemilevisibility,butnotlessthantheminimum visibility for the approach

Answer 137

b. 600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility

Answer 138

c. Ceiling200feetabovefieldelevationandvisibility1statutemile,butnotlessthantheminimumvisibilityfor the approach

Answer 139

a. The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively

Answer 140

b. The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.

Answer 141

c. The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR

Answer 142

a. 600-1 if the airport has an ILS

Answer 143

b. Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum, visibility 2 miles.

Answer 144

c. The landing minimums for the approach to be used.

Answer 145

a. Minimums specified for the approach procedure selected

Answer 146

b. Alternate minimums shown on the approach chart.

Answer 147

c. Minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums.”

Answer 148

a. Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).

Answer 149

b. The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport

Answer 150

c. The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

Answer 151

a. Allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions

Answer 152

b. Be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.

Answer 153

c. Allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions

Answer 154

a. The established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.

Answer 155

b. An instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors

Answer 156

c. Direct route only.

Answer 157

a. The ATIS broadcast.

Answer 158

b. The FSS.

Answer 159

c. Notices to Airmen (Class II).

Answer 160

a. The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach

Answer 161

b. The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach

Answer 162

c. The point of first intended landing

Answer 163

a. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively

Answer 164

b. Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively

Answer 165

c. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.

Answer 166

a. 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA

Answer 167

b. 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.

Answer 168

c. 800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA

Answer 169

a. No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.

Answer 170

b. No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively

Answer 171

c. Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.

Answer 172

a. From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles

Answer 173

b. From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles

Answer 174

c. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles

Answer 175

a. Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.

Answer 176

b. Advise departure control upon initial contact

Answer 177

c. Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan

Answer 178

a. 22 NM of a VOR.

Answer 179

b. 25 NM of a VOR

Answer 180

c. 30 NM of a VOR

Answer 181

a. 40 NM apart

Answer 182

b. 70 NM apart

Answer 183

c. 80 NM apart

Answer 184

a. Abeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever occurs last

Answer 185

b. When the wings are level at the completion of the 180° turn outbound.

Answer 186

c. When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.

Answer 187

a. Obstacleclearance,accuratenavigationalsignalsfrommorethanoneVORTAC,andaccurateDMEmileage.

Answer 188

b. A 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage

Answer 189

c. Acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements

Answer 190

a. 230 knots

Answer 191

b. 265 knots

Answer 192

c. 200 knots

Answer 193

a. 1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility

Answer 194

b. 1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.

Answer 195

c. 500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility

Answer 196

a. Whenthewingsarelevelandthewinddriftcorrectionangleisestablishedaftercompletingtheturntothe outbound heading.

Answer 197

b. When the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix, whichever occurs first.

Answer 198

c. When abeam the holding fix

Answer 199

a. It signifies a localizer-only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.

Answer 200

b. The localizer has an additional navigation function

Answer 201

c. GRICEintersectionalsoservesastheFAFfortheILSapproachproceduretoHarryP.WilliamsMemorial

Answer 202

a. 220 knots

Answer 203

b. 265 knots.

Answer 204

c. 200 knots.

Answer 205

a. The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.

Answer 206

b. The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage

Answer 207

c. Analtitudewhichmeetsobstacleclearancerequirements,assuresacceptablenavigationsignalcoverage, two-way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.

Answer 208

a. 230 knots.

Answer 209

b. 200 knots

Answer 210

c. 210 knots

Answer 211

a. Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later

Answer 212

b. Timing for the inbound leg begins when initiating the turn inbound

Answer 213

c. Adjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg.

Answer 214

a. IFR Planning Chart

Answer 215

b. IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart

Answer 216

c. IFR High Altitude En Route Chart

Answer 217

a. At pilot’s discretion

Answer 218

b. Only in an emergency

Answer 219

c. Only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

Answer 220

a. 6,400 feet

Answer 221

b. 6,500 feet.

Answer 222

c. 7,000 feet.

Answer 223

a. Adequate navigation signals

Answer 224

b. Adequate communications

Answer 225

c. 1,000-foot obstacle clearance

Answer 226

a. The MEA at which the fix is approached

Answer 227

b. The MRA at which the fix is approached

Answer 228

c. The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.

Answer 229

a. 122.1, 126.4

Answer 230

b. 123.6, 122.65.

Answer 231

c. 122.2, 122.3

Answer 232

a. All fixes that are labeled IAF

Answer 233

b. Any fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other than the FAF or stepdown fix

Answer 234

c. The procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder facility ring.

Answer 235

a. 15 feet

Answer 236

b. 18 feet

Answer 237

c. 22 feet

Answer 238

a. 3,000 feet MSL

Answer 239

b. 1,800 feet MSL.

Answer 240

c. 1,690 feet MSL

Answer 241

a. At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach

Answer 242

b. As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

Answer 243

c. At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight

Answer 244

a. Certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.

Answer 245

b. 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight

Answer 246

c. 1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight

Answer 247

a. Proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER

Answer 248

b. Proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart

Answer 249

c. Proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1.

Answer 250

a. Arrival at the DH on the glide slope

Answer 251

b. Arrival at the middle marker

Answer 252

c. Expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

Answer 253

a. It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM

Answer 254

b. It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured

Answer 255

c. ItistheminimumvectoraltitudeforradarvectorsinthesectorsoutheastofPUCbetween020°and290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR

Answer 256

a. Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability

Answer 257

b. Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available

Answer 258

c. Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability

Answer 259

a. To all pilots wherever STAR’s are available.

Answer 260

b. Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the “Remarks” section of the flight plan

Answer 261

c. When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”

Answer 262

a. 200 feet per minute.

Answer 263

b. 400 feet per minute

Answer 264

c. 600 feet per minute

Answer 265

a. Land straight in on runway 31.

Answer 266

b. Comply with straight-in landing minimums

Answer 267

c. Begin final approach without making a procedure turn

Answer 268

a. Denver VORTAC

Answer 269

b. Gandi outer marker

Answer 270

c. Denver/Stapleton International Airport

Answer 271

a. The 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.

Answer 272

b. A radius of 5 miles from the holding fix.

Answer 273

c. 10 knots of the specified holding speed

Answer 274

a. Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.

Answer 275

b. Use Category B minim ums

Answer 276

c. Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches

Answer 277

a. 180 knots IAS

Answer 278

b. 200 knots IAS

Answer 279

c. 250 knots IAS

Answer 280

a. Take off minimums are 1 mile for aircraf thavingtwo engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines

Answer 281

b. Instrument takeoffs are not authorized

Answer 282

c. Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

Answer 283

a. On tower frequency

Answer 284

b. On approach control frequency

Answer 285

c. One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency

Answer 286

a. Astraight-inlanding may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle to land on the runway.

Answer 287

b. The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.

Answer 288

c. Astraight-inlanding may be made if the pilot has the runway insight insufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

Answer 289

a. A procedure turn is not authorized.

Answer 290

b. Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized

Answer 291

c. Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.

Answer 292

a. 425 feet per minute

Answer 293

b. 530 feet per minute.

Answer 294

c. 635 feet per minute

Answer 295

a. Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches.

Answer 296

b. Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure

Answer 297

c. Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF

Answer 298

a. 70 feet MSL

Answer 299

b. 54 feet MSL.

Answer 300

c. 46 feet MSL

Answer 301

a. 363 feet MSL

Answer 302

b. 365 feet MSL.

Answer 303

c. 396 feet MSL

Answer 304

a. The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope

Answer 305

b. The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.

Answer 306

c. The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.

Answer 307

a. 415 feet per minute

Answer 308

b. 480 feet per minute

Answer 309

c. 555 feet per minute

Answer 310

a. 1,200 fpm

Answer 311

b. 500 fpm.

Answer 312

c. 800 fpm.

Answer 313

a. You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions

Answer 314

b. You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions

Answer 315

c. You must have the airport insight or a preceding aircraft to be followed ,and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

Answer 316

a. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

Answer 317

b. Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix

Answer 318

c. After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right.

Answer 319

a. 4 DME miles from LABER.

Answer 320

b. 10 DME miles from the MAP

Answer 321

c. 12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC.

Answer 322

a. 5,957 feet.

Answer 323

b. 7,000 feet

Answer 324

c. 7,900 feet.

Answer 325

a. As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet

Answer 326

b. As an RVR of 2,400 feet

Answer 327

c. As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

Answer 328

a. Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF

Answer 329

b. When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.

Answer 330

c. After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.

Answer 331

a. Parallel ILS approach runway center lines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR separation is provided on the adjacent runway

Answer 332

b. Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course

Answer 333

c. Landing minimums to the adjacent runway willbe higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.

Answer 334

a. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility

Answer 335

b. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system

Answer 336

c. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

Answer 337

a. Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver

Answer 338

b. Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures

Answer 339

c. Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first

Answer 340

a. completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer.

Answer 341

b. CREAK outbound

Answer 342

c. intercepting the glide slope.

Answer 343

a. As soon as intercepting LOC inbound

Answer 344

b. Immediately

Answer 345

c. Only at the point authorized by ATC

Answer 346

a. Required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure

Answer 347

b. Permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.

Answer 348

c. Permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway

	Criado por JOHANN ALVAREZ mais de 7 anos atrás

Próximo

10. oración y novena 698-817

Descrição

Resumo de Recurso

Questão 1

Questão 2

Questão 3

Questão 4

Questão 5

Questão 6

Questão 7

Questão 8

Questão 9

Questão 10

Questão 11

Questão 12

Questão 13

Questão 14

Questão 15

Questão 16

Questão 17

Questão 18

Questão 19

Questão 20

Questão 21

Questão 22

Questão 23

Questão 24

Questão 25

Questão 26

Questão 27

Questão 28

Questão 29

Questão 30

Questão 31

Questão 32

Questão 33

Questão 34

Questão 35

Questão 36

Questão 37

Questão 38

Questão 39

Questão 40

Questão 41

Questão 42

Questão 43

Questão 44

Questão 45

Questão 46

Questão 47

Questão 48

Questão 49

Questão 50

Questão 51

Questão 52

Questão 53

Questão 54

Questão 55

Questão 56

Questão 57

Questão 58

Questão 59

Questão 60

Questão 61

Questão 62

Questão 63

Questão 64

Questão 65

Questão 66

Questão 67

Questão 68

Questão 69

Questão 70

Questão 71

Questão 72

Questão 73

Questão 74

Questão 75

Questão 76