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Fetal Yr 1 pathology focus :)

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Plymouth Med
Quiz by Plymouth Med, updated more than 1 year ago
Plymouth Med
Created by Plymouth Med over 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
How much Vitamin D should you take during pregnancy?
Answer
  • 10 mg every day throughout pregnancy and during breastfeeding
  • 400 mg every day throughout pregnancy and during breastfeeding
  • 100 mg every day throughout pregnancy and during breastfeeding
  • 10 mg every day during 1st trimester
  • 100 mg every day during 1st trimester
  • 400mg every day during 1st trimester

Question 2

Question
Why is Folic Acid important?
Answer
  • Significantly reduces chances of neural tube birth defects
  • improves brain functionality and development of fetus
  • Helps maintain pregnancy
  • Reduces chances of polydactyl

Question 3

Question
How much folic acid during pregnancy?
Answer
  • 400mg everyday 1st trimester (wk 0-12)
  • 400mg everyday throughout pregnancy
  • 40mg everyday 1st trimester (wk 0-12)
  • 40mg everyday throughout pregnancy
  • 400 mg everyday for the first few weeks of each trimester

Question 4

Question
Which are characteristic of patent ductus arteriosus?
Answer
  • Systolic murmur loudest in upper left sternal border
  • respiratory distress
  • reduced oxygen saturation
  • high fever
  • extensive crying
  • sternal swelling

Question 5

Question
What does the ductus venosus shunt allow?
Answer
  • blood from the fetus' heart to bipass the liver
  • blood from the placenta to bypass the liver
  • blood from the fetus' heart to bypass the lungs
  • blood from the placenta to bypass the lungs

Question 6

Question
What are the fetal heart shunts?
Answer
  • ductus arteriosus
  • ductus venous
  • foramen ovale
  • ductus deferens
  • ductus foramen
  • ductus thramensus

Question 7

Question
What regarding fetal circulation is true?
Answer
  • vasoconstriction in pulmonary circulation
  • most important organ needing oxygenated blood supply: heart
  • most important organ needing oxygenated blood supply: brain
  • Blood "recieved" by heart in right atrium
  • Higher pressure in left atrium than right atrium
  • oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood kept strictly separate

Question 8

Question
How does right atrial deoxygenated blood streaming occur?
Answer
  • Superior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Arteriosus-->Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)--> descending aorta--> lower body
  • Inferior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Arteriosus-->Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)--> descending aorta--> lower body
  • Superior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Arteriosus-->Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)--> descending aorta--> upper body
  • Inferior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Arteriosus--> Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)-->descending aorta--> upper body
  • Superior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Venosus--> Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)-->descending aorta--> lower body
  • Inferior Vena Cava--> Right Atrium--> Right ventricle-->Ductus Venosus-->Mixing of blood (partially oxygenated)--> descending aorta--> lower body

Question 9

Question
How does streaming of oxygenated blood occur?
Answer
  • Inferior Vena Cava-->Foramen Ovale-->left atrium-->left ventricle--> ascending aorta-->brain
  • Superior Vena Cava-->Foramen Ovale-->left atrium-->left ventricle--> ascending aorta-->brain
  • Inferior Vena Cava-->Foramen Ovale-->right atrium-->right ventricle--> ascending aorta-->brain
  • Superior Vena Cava-->Foramen Ovale-->right atrium-->right ventricle--> ascending aorta-->brain

Question 10

Question
Whats the purpose of Foramen Ovale
Answer
  • allows flow of blood between right and left atriums because right atrium has more pressure than left atrium
  • allows flow of blood between right and left atriums because left atrium has more pressure than right atrium
  • allows blood to bypass the liver
  • allows blood to bypass the lungs

Question 11

Question
What is NOT correct regarding ductus arteriosus?
Answer
  • allows blood from the pulmonary artery to descending artery
  • allows blood from the pulmonary artery to ascending artery
  • prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) controls the patency of ductus arteriosus
  • allows mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

Question 12

Question
Infants with Down's syndrome should be checked for hearing, ECG for congenital heart disease, and eye abilities before 6 months of age
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 13

Question
What leads to lungs activation?
Answer
  • First breath--> oxygen pressure rises--> pulmonary vasodilation
  • placenta circulation cut off--> left heart pressure increases
  • right heart pressure decreases
  • foramen ovale closes
  • ductus arteriosus closes immediately upon first breath
  • further decrease in left heart pressure
  • surfactant proteins and enzymes actiavte upon increased oxygen pressure

Question 14

Question
Foramen Ovale becomes what post-parturition?
Answer
  • Fossa Ovale
  • Foramen Ovalum
  • Foramen Ovale
  • Foramen Fossa

Question 15

Question
Ductus Arteriosus becomes Ligamentum Venosum
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 16

Question
Ductus Venosus becomes Ligamentum Venosum
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 17

Question
What to remember regarding patent ductus arteriosus?
Answer
  • common with pre-term infants
  • common with maternal Rubella infection
  • problems with PGE2 receptors can lead to patent ductus arteriosus
  • low oxygen can lead to patent ductus arteriosus
  • common with "late" babies
  • common in multiple births
  • may have apnea or tachypnea
  • ECG is how to diagnose
  • Ultrasound is how to diagnose
  • NSAIDS (Indomethicin) can induce closure of patent ductus arteriosus

Question 18

Question
Malfunction in lungs' surfactant production can lead to baby struggling to breathe and problems in oxygen saturation
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 19

Question
What is inadequate production of surfactant in the baby's lungs known as?
Answer
  • Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome (IRDS)
  • Surfactant Deficiency Syndrome (SID)
  • Hypopneumocytomia
  • Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome
  • Infant Lung Collapse
  • Tetralogy of Fallot

Question 20

Question
What is part of the presentation of Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome?
Answer
  • commonly pre-term delivery
  • presents quickly after birth
  • can rapidly progress to hypoxia, fatugue or apnea
  • detectable in the womb
  • wheezing noises

Question 21

Question
How may you prevent infant respiratory distress syndrome?
Answer
  • Antenatal corticosteroids EX: Dexamethasone
  • Delaying Labor EX: Atosiban
  • Inducing Labor Ex: Oxytocin drips
  • NSAIDS Ex: Indomethacin
  • Placing mother on ventilator during labor

Question 22

Question
Not all ectopic pregnancies must be surgically/immediately removed as not all are dangerous
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 23

Question
What is an Ectpic pregnancy?
Answer
  • when the egg implants elsewhere than in the uterus
  • when benign tumor in uterus tricks body into thinking its a pregnancy
  • when 8 ovums are simultaneously implanted
  • A pregnancy in pre-menopause

Question 24

Question
Which is not a prominent risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?
Answer
  • fertility treatment
  • smokers
  • older age (more than 30)
  • previous spontaneous miscarriages
  • the combined pill

Question 25

Question
Methotrexate can terminate ectopic pregnancies
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 26

Question
How does ectopic pregnancy present
Answer
  • amenorrhea
  • abdominal pain
  • vaginal bleeding
  • breast tenderness
  • palpable mass
  • dysmenorrhea
  • fluctuating temperature
  • abdominal edema
  • pain and swelling in extremities ex: ankles

Question 27

Question
What is spontaneous loss of pregnancy before 24 weeks?
Answer
  • Miscarriage
  • Abortion
  • pre-parturition death

Question 28

Question
What type of miscarriage? Cervical os (exocervix): closed Bleeding: mild Pain: mild
Answer
  • threatened miscarriage
  • inevitable miscarriage
  • missed miscarriage
  • complete miscarriage
  • incomplete miscarriage

Question 29

Question
What type miscarriage? Bleeding: heavy, clotting Pain: Intense Cervical Os: Open
Answer
  • Inevitable Miscarriage
  • Threatned Miscarriage
  • Incomplete Miscarriage
  • Complete Miscarriage
  • Missed Miscarriage

Question 30

Question
What is characteristic of a missed miscarriage?
Answer
  • Dead fetus within womb
  • Closed cervical os
  • None-mild bleeding
  • None-mild pain
  • Open cervical os
  • Heavy bleeding
  • Heavy-medium pain
  • Fetus expelled/disintegrated early on
  • Remains are removed surgically

Question 31

Question
WIth close monitoring of the mother, a threatned abortion means that a miscarriage might not happen
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 32

Question
As soon as she learns that it is an inevitable miscarriage, mother will undergo an abortion pronto
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 33

Question
As there is still some leftover tissue in incomplete miscarriages, surgical removal necessary
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 34

Question
What is the maternal portion of the placenta known as?
Answer
  • decidua basalis
  • chorion
  • duodenum
  • amnion

Question 35

Question
What does the placenta metabolize?
Answer
  • glycogen
  • fatty acids
  • cholestrol
  • glyucose
  • maternal hemoglobin (convert into fetal hemoglobin)
  • proteins

Question 36

Question
What does the placenta transport?
Answer
  • IgGs
  • Urea and uric acid
  • Iron
  • Oxygen
  • Carbon Dioxide
  • Glucose
  • Amino Acids
  • some drugs/metabolites Ex: nicotine, alocohol
  • IgEs
  • Sodium

Question 37

Question
What hormones does the placenta produce?
Answer
  • HCG
  • HPL
  • estrogens
  • Corticotropin releasing hormone
  • Prolactin
  • Progesterone
  • Dopamine
  • Oxytocin
  • GnRH
  • FSH

Question 38

Question
"Antepartum haemorrhage is defined as any [blank_start]vaginal[blank_end] bleeding from the [blank_start]24th[blank_end] week of gestation until [blank_start]delivery[blank_end]"
Answer
  • 24
  • delivery
  • vaginal

Question 39

Question
Placenta abruption is the [blank_start]premature[blank_end] separation of a normally placed placenta [blank_start]before delivery[blank_end] of the fetus, with [blank_start]blood[blank_end] collecting between the placenta and the [blank_start]uterus[blank_end].
Answer
  • premature
  • partial
  • late
  • before delivery
  • during development
  • after birth
  • blood
  • lymph
  • amniotic fluid
  • uterus
  • bladder
  • yolk sac
  • amniotic sac

Question 40

Question
[blank_start]Placenta previa[blank_end] exists when the placenta is inserted wholly or in part [blank_start]into the lower segment of the uterus[blank_end].
Answer
  • Placenta previa
  • Placenta abruption
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • covering the endocervix
  • over the uterus upper part
  • suffocating the baby
  • entwines with the umbilical cord

Question 41

Question
What's important regarding placenta previa?
Answer
  • Painless bright red bleeding
  • Bleeding visible during third trimester usually
  • should NOT do manual pelvic examination
  • should NOT do ultrasound
  • C-section unless very minor placenta previa
  • painful vaginal bleeding
  • abdominal pain

Question 42

Question
How might uterine atony present as?
Answer
  • afebrile
  • large boggy/soggy uterus
  • mild distress
  • vaginal bleeding and clotting
  • tight rigid/stiffened uterus
  • abdominal edema
  • abdominal pain

Question 43

Question
Postpartum Hemmorhage is excessive bleeding post delivery. [blank_start]Primary[blank_end] Postpartum Hemmorhage is 500<ml within [blank_start]24 hours[blank_end] after birth. [blank_start]Secondary[blank_end] is [blank_start]post-24 hours[blank_end] to [blank_start]six weeks[blank_end] post-partum. It can be caused by [blank_start]infection[blank_end], [blank_start]endometritis[blank_end], and [blank_start]retained products of conception.[blank_end]
Answer
  • Primary
  • Tertiary
  • Secondary
  • 24 hours
  • 48 hours
  • 2 weeks
  • Secondary
  • Primary
  • Tertiary
  • post-24 hours
  • post-48 hours
  • post 2 weeks
  • six weeks
  • 1 year
  • 2 weeks
  • infection
  • cold/fever
  • early labor
  • endometritis
  • peritonitis
  • apendicitis
  • retained products of conception.
  • miscarriage
  • stress

Question 44

Question
What fetal positions are normal?
Answer
  • longitudinal
  • cephalic
  • breech
  • oblique
  • transverse
  • occiput-anterior
  • occiput-posterior

Question 45

Question
Uterine atony can be treated with [blank_start]oxytocin infusion[blank_end]. It is one of the most common causes of primary post-partum hemorrhage. The other is [blank_start]retained placenta.[blank_end] General causes of uterine atony are "pathology of the four T's:" [blank_start]tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin[blank_end]. Uterine atony can lead to hemorrhage because uterine contractions help with [blank_start]coagulability[blank_end] so lack can lead to extensive bleeding.
Answer
  • retained placenta.
  • retracted placenta
  • placenta previa
  • oxytocin infusion
  • atosiban
  • synacthen
  • tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin
  • temperature, tiredness, tone, trauma
  • coagulability
  • anti-coagulability

Question 46

Question
Descent of the baby is measured in comparison to...?
Answer
  • ischial spines
  • sacrum
  • illiac crests
  • coccyx
  • anterior superior illiac spines

Question 47

Question
What is considered an abnormal APGAR score?
Answer
  • 7-9
  • <7
  • 10
  • <5

Question 48

Question
What is FALSE regarding the APGAR test
Answer
  • first test given to newborns to assess condition of baby
  • c-section can give a low score
  • fluid in the airways can give a low score
  • difficulties during labor can give low score
  • hand and feet of baby commonly cold/blue-- professional's judgement needed
  • vaccination given to newborns to boost condition post birth

Question 49

Question
Aneuploidy more common in maternal meoisis II
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 50

Question
What are the most common aneuploidies
Answer
  • chromosome 18
  • chromosome 21
  • chromosome 13
  • chromosome 15
  • chromosome 11
  • chromosome 9

Question 51

Question
Characteristics of Down's Syndrome
Answer
  • some degree of learning difficulty
  • single palmar crease
  • brachycephaly
  • protruding tongue
  • congenital heart defects
  • bulging eyes
  • creased forehead
  • lack of attention span

Question 52

Question
Most babies born with Edward's are able to live adequately long.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 53

Question
Patua's is basically incompatible with life: most die either miscarriage, stillborn, or in less than a week.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 54

Question
Clinical key factors of Turner's Syndrome
Answer
  • Short stature
  • Infertility and ammenorhea
  • Webbed neck
  • Underdeveloped breasts, usually lean
  • Abnormal IQ
  • Increased risk for chronic conditions
  • Genotype: X0
  • Genotype: XXX
  • Tachycardia

Question 55

Question
Which is not characteristic of Klinefelter's Syndrome
Answer
  • XXY genotype
  • gynecomastia
  • cryptorchardism
  • feminine physical traits (long slender legs and wider hips)
  • excessive hair growth over body area and acne

Question 56

Question
What is pre-eclampsia?
Answer
  • Pregnancy induced hypertentsion and proteinurea after 20 weeks
  • Pregnancy induced hypertentsion after 20 weeks
  • Pregnancy induced proteinurea after 20 weeks

Question 57

Question
How might pre-eclampsia present?
Answer
  • edema
  • severe headache
  • right upper quadrant pain
  • vision problems
  • brisk tendon reflex
  • left upper quadrant pain
  • hearing problems
  • dizziness
  • persistent tremors

Question 58

Question
What's true regarding treatment of pre-eclampsia?
Answer
  • regardless of severity, admit into hospital
  • moderate-severe: oral labetalol if blood pressure <150/100
  • very close BP monitoring (check at least 4 times a day)
  • repeated tests of proteinurea
  • Blood tests 2-3 times weekly
  • Blood Thinners (Warfarin)
  • NSAIDS, pain killers
  • severe cases: magnesium sulphate intravenously
  • severe cases: antihypertensives-- labetabol, nifedipine

Question 59

Question
You can "cure" pre-eclampsia
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 60

Question
Should aim to deliver baby early in case of pre-eclampsia
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 61

Question
Why can pre-eclampsia be a matter of concern? (choose BEST answer)
Answer
  • mandatory precursor to eclampsia which endangers both mother and child as it can include seizures and blackouts due to poor blood perfusion
  • can directly lead to heart failure and dysfunctionality
  • can compromise development of the fetus

Question 62

Question
Placenta Abruption presents as vaginal bleeding and [blank_start]abdominal[blank_end] pain. Uterine contractions, [blank_start]shock[blank_end], and [blank_start]fetal[blank_end] distress are also signs. In this case, management would be [blank_start]ABCD[blank_end]. Ensuring fetus was okay, [blank_start]c-section[blank_end] delivery. If fetal dead, [blank_start]vaginal[blank_end] delivery.
Answer
  • abdominal
  • lower back
  • widespread pain
  • shock
  • vaginal discharge
  • fetal
  • maternal
  • immediate ABCD
  • immediate surgical management
  • c-section
  • vaginal
  • Vaginal
  • C-section

Question 63

Question
What regarding the A in APGAR is correct?
Answer
  • complete activity= 0 points
  • total lack of action = 2 points
  • total lack of action = 0 points
  • complete activity= 2 points
  • complete activity= 1 point
  • flexed arm/leg = 1 point
  • flexed arm/leg = 2 point
  • flexed arm/leg = 0 point

Question 64

Question
What gives you 2 points on the APGAR
Answer
  • Pulse over = over 100 beats per min
  • Pulse over = over 80 beats per min
  • Grimace= immediate response
  • Grip= strong grip
  • Appearance= pink
  • Appearance= pink but extremities may be blue
  • Respiration= immense crying
  • Respiration= 15< breaths per minute

Question 65

Question
Which is how proteinuria determined?
Answer
  • protein:creatine ratio 30mg/mmol<
  • protein:creatine ration 30mg/mmol>
  • protein:serum ratio 50mg/mmol<
  • protein:serum ration 50mg/mmol>
  • protein:creatine ration 50mg/mmol>
  • protein:creatine ration 50mg/mmol<
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