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ATP EASA - Qatar 2

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Aviation Interview Quiz on ATP EASA - Qatar 2, created by mmm mmm on 19/05/2018.
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Quiz by mmm mmm, updated more than 1 year ago
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Created by mmm mmm almost 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
RED 22.3.4.0 (1390) A ""TCAS II"" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:
Answer
  • a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.
  • the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.
  • the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes.
  • the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only.

Question 2

Question
RED 22.3.4.0 (1394) The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of :
Answer
  • airborne weather radar system
  • transponders fitted in the aircraft
  • F.M.S. (Flight Management System)
  • air traffic control radar systems

Question 3

Question
RED (1398) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a :
Answer
  • ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory""
  • ""traffic advisory"" only.
  • ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"".
  • ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".

Question 4

Question
RED 22.3.4.0 (1399) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a :
Answer
  • ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"".
  • ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".
  • ""traffic advisory"" only.
  • ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".

Question 5

Question
RED 22.3.4.0 (1403) A ""resolution advisory"" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a :
Answer
  • blue or white empty lozenge.
  • red full square.
  • blue or white full lozenge
  • red full circle.

Question 6

Question
RED 22.3.6.0 (1408) The stall warning system receives information about the : 1- airplane angle of attack 2- airplane speed 3- airplane bank angle 4- airplane configuration 5- load factor on the airplane The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Answer
  • 1, 4
  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
  • 2, 3, 4, 5
  • 1, 3, 5

Question 7

Question
RED 22.3.6.0 (1409) A stall warning system is based on a measure of:
Answer
  • airspeed.
  • aerodynamic incidence.
  • attitude.
  • groundspeed.

Question 8

Question
RED 22.3.6.0 (1415) The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes: 1- an angle of attack sensor 2- a computer 3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer 4- an independent pitot probe 5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating systemThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) b)
Answer
  • 1, 2, 5.
  • 1, 2, 4.
  • 1,5
  • 2,5

Question 9

Question
RED 31.1.1.1 (1489) The centre of gravity of a body is that point
Answer
  • through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act.
  • where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero.
  • where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.
  • which is always used as datum when computing moments.

Question 10

Question
RED 31.1.1.1 (1494) The centre of gravity is the
Answer
  • centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
  • point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated
  • focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
  • neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line

Question 11

Question
RED 31.1.2.0 (1503) With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?
Answer
  • A decrease in the landing speed.
  • A decrease in range.
  • A decrease of the stalling speed.
  • A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.

Question 12

Question
RED 31.1.2.4 (1526) Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by structural limitations, performance limitations and the strength of the runway.
  • The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of gravity remains within limits after the uplift of fuel.
  • The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the ramp.
  • The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable fuel but including the crew.

Question 13

Question
RED 31.1.2.5 (1531) Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause
Answer
  • increased cruise range.
  • higher stall speed.
  • lower optimum cruising speed.
  • reduced maximum cruise range.

Question 14

Question
RED 31.1.2.5 (1537) In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:
Answer
  • decrease longitudinal static stability
  • increase longitudinal static stability
  • does not influence longitudinal static stability
  • not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal

Question 15

Question
RED 31.2.4.1 (1630) An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speeds:
Answer
  • will be greater than required
  • will give reduced safety margins
  • will not be achieved
  • are unaffected but V1 will be increased

Question 16

Question
RED 31.3.1.0 (1639) The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the:
Answer
  • lateral axis.
  • longitudinal axis.
  • vertical axis.
  • horizontal axis.

Question 17

Question
RED 32.1.1.0 (1723) Given:VS= Stalling speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)V1= take-off decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedVLOF: Lift-off speed The correct formula is:
Answer
  • VR< VMCA< VLOF
  • VS< VMCA< V2 min
  • VMU<= VMCA< V1
  • V2min< VMCA> VMU

Question 18

Question
RED 32.1.1.0 (1720) Density altitude is the
Answer
  • altitude reference to the standard datum plane
  • pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature
  • altitude read directly from the altimeter
  • height above the surface

Question 19

Question
RED 32.1.1.0 (1721) The Density Altitude
Answer
  • is equal to the pressure altitude.
  • is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
  • is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.
  • is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

Question 20

Question
RED 32.1.2.1 (1747) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:
Answer
  • an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
  • a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance
  • an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
  • a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance

Question 21

Question
RED 32.1.2.1 (1749) A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
Answer
  • a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
  • an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
  • an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
  • a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

Question 22

Question
RED 32.1.3.0 (1766) The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of
Answer
  • the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.
  • the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
  • true airspeed to rate of climb.
  • rate of climb to true airspeed.

Question 23

Question
RED 32.2.1.1 (1791) The speed VLO is defined as
Answer
  • landing gear operating speed.
  • design low operating speed.
  • long distance operating speed.
  • lift off speed.

Question 24

Question
RED 32.2.1.1 (1789) A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure?
Answer
  • Straight flight and altitude
  • Straight flight
  • Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
  • Altitude

Question 25

Question
RED 32.2.2.1 (1797) The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is
Answer
  • an increased acceleration.
  • a shorter ground roll.
  • a higher V1.
  • a longer take-off run.

Question 26

Question
RED 32.2.2.2 (1807) The take-off distance required increases
Answer
  • due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
  • due to slush on the runway.
  • due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
  • due to lower gross mass at take-off.

Question 27

Question
RED 32.2.3.0 (1810) What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
Answer
  • Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.
  • Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.
  • Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
  • Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

Question 28

Question
RED 32.2.3.1 (1811) The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :
Answer
  • the take-off run available.
  • the accelerate-stop distance available.
  • the take-off distance available.
  • the landing distance available.

Question 29

Question
RED 32.2.3.1 (1814) Field length is balanced when
Answer
  • calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG.
  • take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance.
  • all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
  • one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.

Question 30

Question
RED 32.2.3.1 (1815) What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ?
Answer
  • For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available
  • A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure.
  • A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.

Question 31

Question
RED 32.2.3.5 (1852) The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in :
Answer
  • The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
  • The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
  • The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
  • The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.

Question 32

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1859) An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:
Answer
  • 4500 metres
  • 6000 metres.
  • 4000 metres.
  • 5000 metres.

Question 33

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1861) The take-off decision speed V1 is:
Answer
  • a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.
  • a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.
  • sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
  • not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.

Question 34

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1862) Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:
Answer
  • primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking.
  • primary aerodynamic control only.
  • primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel.
  • nosewheel steering only.

Question 35

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1863) The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
Answer
  • all engines operating.
  • only one engine operating.
  • failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest take off distance.
  • failure of critical engine.

Question 36

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1864) Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1? a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • All Engine Take-off distance
  • Accelerate Stop Distance
  • Take-off distance
  • Take-off run

Question 37

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1865) The length of a clearway may be included in:
Answer
  • the accelerate-stop distance available.
  • the take-off run available.
  • the take-off distance available.
  • the distance to reach V1.

Question 38

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1866) The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:
Answer
  • the lift-off point.
  • the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.
  • the point where V2 is reached.
  • the point half way between V1 and V2.

Question 39

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1867) What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited takeoff?
Answer
  • The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.
  • The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.
  • The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.
  • The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.

Question 40

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1870) Take-off run is defined as the
Answer
  • horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
  • distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.
  • distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.
  • Distance from brake release to V2.

Question 41

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1872) Which of the following statements is correct ?
Answer
  • An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
  • A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
  • A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
  • If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.

Question 42

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1874) Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA? )
Answer
  • Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
  • Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.
  • High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
  • High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation.

Question 43

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1879) With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties.
  • In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.
  • Screen height cannot be reduced.
  • When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length.

Question 44

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1880) The take-off run is
Answer
  • the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
  • 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.
  • 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
  • the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

Question 45

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1881) Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available ?
Answer
  • No.
  • No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the runway.
  • Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.
  • Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.

Question 46

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1882) Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
Answer
  • VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
  • V1, VMCG, VR, V2.
  • V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
  • V1, VR, V2, VMCA.

Question 47

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1883) Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
Answer
  • V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG.
  • V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR.
  • When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines.
  • The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.

Question 48

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1885) VR cannot be lower than:
Answer
  • V1 and 105% of VMCA.
  • 105% of V1 and VMCA.
  • 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.
  • 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.

Question 49

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1886) V2 has to be equal to or higher than
Answer
  • 1.1 VMCA.
  • 1.15 VMCG.
  • 1.1 VSO.
  • 1.15 VR.

Question 50

Question
32.3.1.1 (1887) V1 has to be
Answer
  • higher than than VR.
  • equal to or higher than VMCG.
  • equal to or higher than V2.
  • equal to or higher than VMCA.

Question 51

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1888) The speed VR
Answer
  • must be higher than V2.
  • must be higher than VLOF.
  • is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
  • must be equal to or lower than V1.

Question 52

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1889) The speed V2 is
Answer
  • hat speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.
  • the take-off safety speed.
  • the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
  • the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.

Question 53

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1890) Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway ?
Answer
  • V1
  • V2
  • VMCG
  • VMCA

Question 54

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1891) The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as
Answer
  • lift off speed.
  • take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.
  • take-off decision speed
  • critical engine failure speed.

Question 55

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1892) The take-off mass could be limited by
Answer
  • the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient with one engine inoperative.
  • the maximum brake energy only.
  • the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only.
  • the take-off distance available (TODA) only.

Question 56

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1897) The take-off distance available is )
Answer
  • the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
  • the runway length minus stopway.
  • the runway length plus half of the clearway.
  • the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.

Question 57

Question
R 32.3.1.1 (1900) Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?
Answer
  • VR may not be lower than V1
  • V1 may not be higher than Vmcg
  • When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engine
  • The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative

Question 58

Question
R 32.3.1.2 (1904) Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
Answer
  • A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties
  • The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same safety margins as for a dry runway
  • In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used
  • Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.

Question 59

Question
R 32.3.1.2 (1905) Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope...
Answer
  • reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).
  • increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
  • reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
  • increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).

Question 60

Question
R 32.3.1.4 (1917) How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
Answer
  • VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.
  • VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.
  • VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
  • VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.

Question 61

Question
R 32.3.1.5 (1922) The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:
Answer
  • 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three engine turboprop aeroplanes.
  • 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
  • 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
  • 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.

Question 62

Question
R 32.3.1.5 (1923) Which of the following answers is true?
Answer
  • V1 <= VR
  • V1 > Vlof
  • V1 > VR
  • V1 < VMCG

Question 63

Question
R 32.3.1.5 (1924) Which statement is correct?
Answer
  • VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
  • In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted. d) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.
  • VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.

Question 64

Question
R 32.3.1.5 (1925) Which statement is correct?
Answer
  • VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.
  • VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
  • VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
  • VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.

Question 65

Question
R 32.3.1.5 (1928) How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?
Answer
  • V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.
  • V2 has the same value in both cases.
  • V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.
  • V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.

Question 66

Question
R 32.3.1.5 (1930) If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct ?
Answer
  • The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
  • The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.
  • The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
  • The take-off is not permitted.

Question 67

Question
R 32.3.2.0 (1934) In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
Answer
  • reverse engine thrust.
  • reduce the engine thrust.
  • apply wheel brakes.
  • deploy airbrakes or spoilers.

Question 68

Question
R 32.3.2.0 (1936) In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
Answer
  • In the accelerate stop distance available.
  • In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
  • In the all-engine take-off distance.
  • In the take-off run available.

Question 69

Question
R 32.3.2.1 (1937) Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?
Answer
  • The field length limited take-off mass will increase.
  • V1 is increased.
  • V1 remains constant.
  • The usable length of the clearway is not limited.

Question 70

Question
R 32.3.2.1 (1938) Balanced V1 is selected
Answer
  • if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.
  • for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass.
  • for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass.
  • if it is equal to V2.

Question 71

Question
R 32.3.2.1 (1939) A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
  • The clearway does not equal the stopway.
  • The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
  • The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

Question 72

Question
R 32.3.2.1 (1940) If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance calculations may allow
Answer
  • a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1
  • a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1
  • the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1
  • the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1

Question 73

Question
R 32.3.2.2 (1946) A higher outside air temperature (OAT)
Answer
  • increases the field length limited take-off mass.
  • decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.
  • increases the climb limited take-off mass.
  • decreases the take-off distance.

Question 74

Question
R 32.3.3.1 (1950) In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is
Answer
  • the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle corridor.
  • based on pressure altitudes.
  • the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.
  • the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.

Question 75

Question
R 32.3.3.1 (1952) The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for:
Answer
  • the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
  • the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane.
  • 2 engined aeroplane.
  • the failure of two engines on a multi-engined aeroplane.

Question 76

Question
R 32.3.3.1 (1953) At which minimum height will the second climb segment end? )
Answer
  • 400 ft above field elevation.
  • 35 ft above ground.
  • When gear retraction is completed.
  • 1500 ft above field elevation.

Question 77

Question
R 32.3.3.1 (1955) The second segment begins
Answer
  • when landing gear is fully retracted.
  • when flap retraction begins.
  • when flaps are selected up.
  • when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

Question 78

Question
R 32.3.3.1 (1956) For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided
Answer
  • by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.
  • by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.
  • only by using standard turns.
  • by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.

Question 79

Question
R 32.3.3.1 (1958) The first segment of the take-off flight path ends
Answer
  • at completion of gear retraction.
  • at completion of flap retraction.
  • at reaching V2.
  • at 35 ft above the runway.

Question 80

Question
R 32.3.3.1 (1959) The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by
Answer
  • a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
  • selecting a lower V1.
  • selecting a lower V2.
  • selecting a lower VR.

Question 81

Question
R 32.3.3.1 (1960) During take-off the third segment begins:
Answer
  • when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.
  • when landing gear is fully retracted.
  • when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.
  • when flap retraction is completed.

Question 82

Question
R 32.3.3.1 (1962) Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
Answer
  • The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.
  • A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
  • There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path.
  • The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.

Question 83

Question
R 32.3.3.2 (1965) Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment ?
Answer
  • The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied.
  • The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.
  • There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the accelerationheight
  • The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines operating.

Question 84

Question
R 32.3.3.4 (1969) When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance:
Answer
  • decreases / remains constant.
  • increases / increases.
  • remains constant / remains constant.
  • decreases / decreases.

Question 85

Question
R 32.3.3.4 (1972) In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed
Answer
  • 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.
  • 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
  • 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
  • 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.

Question 86

Question
R 32.3.3.4 (1973) Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
Answer
  • The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum.
  • V2 + 10 kt.
  • V2.
  • The speed for maximum rate of climb.

Question 87

Question
R 32.3.4.1 (1977) If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude is
Answer
  • lower.
  • higher
  • unchanged.
  • only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.

Question 88

Question
R 32.3.4.2 (1982) How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?
Answer
  • TAS decreases.
  • TAS increases.
  • TAS is constant.
  • TAS is not related to Mach Number.

Question 89

Question
32.3.4.2 (1984) With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately:
Answer
  • The highest CL/CD ratio.
  • The highest CL/CD² ratio.
  • 1.2 Vs
  • 1.1 Vs

Question 90

Question
R 32.3.4.2 (1986) Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds)
Answer
  • Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.
  • Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.
  • Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.
  • Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.

Question 91

Question
R 32.3.4.2 (1987) A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
  • IAS increases and TAS increases.

Question 92

Question
R 32.3.4.2 (1989) What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?
Answer
  • The lift coefficient increases.
  • The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
  • IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
  • The ""1.3G"" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.

Question 93

Question
R 32.3.4.2 (1990) A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
Answer
  • The Maximum operating Mach number.
  • The Stalling speed.
  • The Minimum control speed air.
  • The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.

Question 94

Question
R 32.3.5.2 (2027) The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit
Answer
  • improves the maximum range.
  • increases the stalling speed.
  • improves the longitudinal stabiity.
  • decreases the maximum range.

Question 95

Question
R 32.3.5.3 (2047) ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of
Answer
  • 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
  • 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
  • 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
  • 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

Question 96

Question
R 32.3.6.1 (2064) A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first?
Answer
  • Maximum Operating Speed
  • Never Exceed Speed
  • High Speed Buffet Limit
  • Maximum Operational Mach Number

Question 97

Question
R 32.3.6.3 (2071) For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.
  • In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the required landing field length.
  • An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
  • The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.

Question 98

Question
R 32.3.6.3 (2072) Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
Answer
  • Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
  • Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
  • Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.
  • Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway

Question 99

Question
R 32.3.6.3 (2079) The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
Answer
  • 92%
  • 70%
  • 43%
  • 67%

Question 100

Question
R 32.3.6.3 (2080) The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
Answer
  • 92%
  • 43%

Question 101

Question
R 32.3.6.3 (2083) By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (planning phase for destination).
Answer
  • 0.60
  • 115/100
  • 1.67
  • 60/115

Question 102

Question
R 33.2.2.0 (2220) The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is:
Answer
  • 7 000 kg
  • 2 700 kg
  • 5 700 kg

Question 103

Question
R 33.4.3.1 (2362) From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when temporary danger areas are active
Answer
  • NOTAM and AIP (Air Information Publication)
  • Only AIP (Air Information Publication)
  • SIGMET
  • RAD/NAV charts

Question 104

Question
R 33.6.1.7 (2512) On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as ""H"" for ""Heavy""
Answer
  • is of the highest wake turbulence category
  • has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg
  • has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg
  • requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass

Question 105

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2590) Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood? a) b) . c) d)
Answer
  • Blood fat.
  • Hemoglobin in the red blood cells.
  • Plasma.
  • White blood cells

Question 106

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2596) A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:
Answer
  • talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of breathing simultaneously
  • don an oxygen mask
  • excecute the valsalva manoeuvre
  • close the eyes and relax

Question 107

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2604) After a decompression at high altitude
Answer
  • nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism, bends and chokes
  • automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin
  • temperature in the cockpit will increase
  • pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin

Question 108

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2619) Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning hyperventilation?
Answer
  • Dizzy feeling
  • Slow heart beat
  • Slow rate of breathing
  • Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)

Question 109

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2622) Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating? 1.Dizziness 2. Muscular spasms 3. Visual disturbances 4. Cyanosis a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
  • 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
  • 1 is false, all others are correct
  • 2 and 4 are false

Question 110

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2624) The ""Effective Performance Time"" or ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" after a decompression at 35 000 ft is: a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • between 30 and 60 seconds
  • approximately 3 minutes
  • approximately 5 minutes
  • less than 20 seconds

Question 111

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2627) Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10m depth)
Answer
  • are forbidden
  • can be performed without any danger
  • are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded
  • should be avoided because hypoxia may develop

Question 112

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2629) After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:
Answer
  • 30 -90 seconds
  • 10-15 seconds
  • 3-4 minutes
  • 5 minutes or more

Question 113

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2631) Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (> 10 m depth)
Answer
  • can cause decompression sicknesss even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18 000 FT
  • prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism (decompression sickness) when climbing to altitudes not exceeding 30 000 FT
  • has no influence on altitude flights
  • is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia

Question 114

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2646) In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayed
Answer
  • 24 hours
  • 3 hours after non decompression diving
  • 36 hours after any scuba diving
  • 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made

Question 115

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2650) Hyperventilation causes
Answer
  • a lack of carbon dioxide in the blood
  • an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood
  • acidosis
  • hypochondria

Question 116

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2671) Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a decompression is called:
Answer
  • bends
  • chokes
  • creeps
  • leans

Question 117

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2683) Early symptoms of hypoxia could be: 1. euphoria 2. decreased rate and depth of breathing 3. lack of concentration 4. visual disturbances )
Answer
  • 1,3 and 4 are correct
  • 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
  • 1,2 and 3 are correct
  • 1,2 and 4 are correct

Question 118

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2695) Hyperventilation is:
Answer
  • a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain)
  • an accellerated heart frequency caused by an increasing blood pressure
  • an accellerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing blood-pressure
  • a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain

Question 119

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2697) What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft ?
Answer
  • About 12 seconds
  • Between 20 seconds and 1 minute
  • About 40 secods
  • More than 1 minute

Question 120

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2703) What is the ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" for a rapid decompression at 25,000 ft ?
Answer
  • Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot
  • About 18 seconds
  • Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
  • About 30 seconds

Question 121

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2742) The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:
Answer
  • surplus of CO2 in the blood
  • surplus of O2 in the blood
  • shortage of CO in the blood
  • shortage of CO2 in the blood

Question 122

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2751) Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are called:
Answer
  • creeps
  • chokes
  • leans
  • bends

Question 123

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2750) The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a decompression are called:
Answer
  • creeps
  • chokes
  • bends

Question 124

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2760) Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be about:
Answer
  • 1 to 2 minutes
  • 3 to 5 minutes
  • 5 to 10 minutes
  • 10 to 12 minutes

Question 125

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2761) After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is about:
Answer
  • 30 to 60 seconds
  • 15 seconds or less
  • 5 minutes.
  • 10 minutes.

Question 126

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2762) After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time before flying again. This period is at least:
Answer
  • 24 hours
  • 6 hours
  • 12 hours
  • 48 hours

Question 127

Question
R 40.2.1.2 (2763) Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:
Answer
  • decompression sickness without having a decompression
  • hyperventilation
  • hypoxia
  • stress

Question 128

Question
R 40.2.2.1 (2770) The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of:
Answer
  • carbon dioxide in the blood
  • nitrogen in the air
  • water vapour in the alveoli
  • oxygen in the cells

Question 129

Question
R 40.3.4.4 (3151) Which statement is correct?
Answer
  • Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper their communication process.
  • There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents.
  • Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety.
  • Problems in the personal relation between crew members hardly hamper their communication process.

Question 130

Question
R 40.3.6.4 (3251) What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on performance ?
Answer
  • It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties, the risk of sensory illusions and mood disorders
  • It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but facilitates stress management by muscular relaxation,
  • It causes muscular spasms
  • It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss greater than 48 hours

Question 131

Question
R 50.1.1.1 (3277) Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?
Answer
  • It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
  • It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
  • It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
  • It is, by definition, a temperature inversion

Question 132

Question
R 50.1.2.1 (3293) The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6° C?
Answer
  • FL 80
  • FL 20
  • FL 100
  • FL 110

Question 133

Question
R 50.1.2.1 (3295) The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
Answer
  • +7°C
  • +3°C
  • 0°C
  • -3°C

Question 134

Question
R 50.1.2.3 (3316) The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere
Answer
  • has a fixed value of 1°C/100m
  • varies with time
  • has a fixed value of 0.65°C/100m
  • has a fixed value of 2°C/1000 FT

Question 135

Question
R 50.1.4.1 (3356) Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ?
Answer
  • At standard temperature.
  • At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.
  • When the altimeter has no position error.
  • When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.

Question 136

Question
R 50.1.5.1 (3358) The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is :
Answer
  • -56.5°C
  • -273°C
  • -44.7°C
  • -100°C

Question 137

Question
R 50.1.5.1 (3366) If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2°C, at what altitude will the ""freezing level"" be?
Answer
  • FL 110
  • FL 130
  • FL 150
  • FL 90

Question 138

Question
R You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ?
Answer
  • ISA -20°C
  • ISA +/-0°C
  • ISA +20°C
  • ISA +12°C

Question 139

Question
50.1.6.1 (3392) You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude? True ALT= ALT on QNH + (ISA Deviation * 4 * pressure ALT/ 1000)
Answer
  • 19340 feet
  • 20660 feet
  • 21740 feet
  • 18260 feet

Question 140

Question
R 50.1.6.3 (3401) An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate : 1013-1008=5 Hpa 5 times 27 = 135 135+1240=1378 ft Remember: 1013hPa is a higher pressure than the QNH 1008hPa so it is lower in the atmosphere.
Answer
  • 1375 FT.
  • 1200 FT
  • 1105 FT.
  • 1280 FT.

Question 141

Question
R 50.1.6.3 (3405) During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure ? a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • It will decrease
  • It will increase
  • It will remain the same
  • It is not possible to give a definitive answer

Question 142

Question
R 50.1.6.3 (3417) The QNH is equal to the QFE if
Answer
  • the elevation = 0
  • T actual = T standard
  • T actual > T standard
  • T actual < T standard

Question 143

Question
R 50.1.6.3 (3419) For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is
Answer
  • 160 metres
  • 600 metres
  • 540 metres
  • 120 metres

Question 144

Question
R 50.3.1.2 (3539) What does dewpoint mean?
Answer
  • The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation.
  • The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same.
  • The freezing level (danger of icing).
  • The temperature at which ice melts.

Question 145

Question
R 50.3.1.2 (3541) The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
Answer
  • It increases with increasing water vapour.
  • It is not influenced by changing water vapour.
  • It decreases with increasing water vapour.
  • It is only influenced by temperature.

Question 146

Question
R 50.3.1.2 (3542) Relative humidity
Answer
  • changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant.
  • is not affected when air is ascending or descending.
  • is not affected by temperature changes of the air.
  • does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains constant.

Question 147

Question
R 50.3.1.2 (3547) Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
Answer
  • It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
  • It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
  • It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is unknown
  • It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity

Question 148

Question
R 50.3.1.2 (3548) Relative humidity
Answer
  • increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
  • is higher in warm air than in cool air
  • is higher in cool air than in warm air
  • decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant

Question 149

Question
R 50.3.1.2 (3550) Dew point is defined as
Answer
  • the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure
  • the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
  • the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity
  • the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heat

Question 150

Question
R 50.3.1.2 (3555) Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between
Answer
  • actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content
  • water vapour weight and dry air weight
  • water vapour weight and humid air volume
  • dew point and air temperature

Question 151

Question
R 50.3.2.1 (3556) Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?
Answer
  • Solid direct to vapour
  • Solid direct to liquid
  • Liquid direct to solid
  • Liquid direct to vapour

Question 152

Question
R 50.3.2.1 (3559) How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ?
Answer
  • Through water vapour released during fuel combustion
  • Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humid air
  • Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases
  • In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases

Question 153

Question
R 50.3.2.1 (3561) Supercooled droplets are always
Answer
  • at a temperature below freezing
  • small and at a temperature below freezing
  • large and at a temperature below freezing
  • at a temperature below -60°C

Question 154

Question
R 50.3.2.1 (3563) A super-cooled droplet is
Answer
  • a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing
  • a water droplet that is mainly frozen
  • a small particle of water at a temperature below -50°C
  • a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent

Question 155

Question
R 50.3.2.1 (3566) A super-cooled droplet is one that
Answer
  • remains liquid at a below freezing temperature
  • has frozen to become an ice pellet
  • has a shell of ice with water inside it
  • is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air

Question 156

Question
R 50.4.1.2 (3596) Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
Answer
  • CU, CB.
  • ST, CS.
  • SC, NS.
  • CI, SC.

Question 157

Question
R 50.4.1.2 (3609) Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud ?
Answer
  • AS
  • CS
  • ST
  • SC

Question 158

Question
R 50.4.1.2 (3610) Fallstreaks or virga are
Answer
  • water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground
  • strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
  • gusts associated with a well developed Bora
  • strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation

Question 159

Question
R 50.4.1.2 (3611) Altostratus clouds are classified as
Answer
  • medium level clouds (ALSO CALLED ALTO CUMULUS)
  • low level clouds
  • high level clouds
  • convective clouds

Question 160

Question
R 50.4.1.2 (3618) The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the
Answer
  • presence of mountain waves
  • risk of orographic thunderstorms
  • development of thermal lows
  • presence of valley winds

Question 161

Question
R 50.5.1.1 (3648) How does freezing rain develop?
Answer
  • Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C
  • Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes
  • Through melting of sleet grains
  • Through melting of ice crystals

Question 162

Question
R 50.5.2.1 (3652) What type of cloud can produce hail showers?
Answer
  • CB
  • NS
  • CS
  • AC

Question 163

Question
R Freezing rain occurs when
Answer
  • rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0°C
  • ice pellets melt
  • water vapour first turns into water droplets
  • snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air

Question 164

Question
R 50.6.2.8 (3716) What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest? a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • Cold front.
  • Warm front.
  • Cold occlusion.
  • Warm occlusion.

Question 165

Question
R 50.8.2.3 (3773) In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?
Answer
  • 0° - 7°N.
  • 3° - 8°S.
  • 8° - 12°S.
  • 7° - 12°N.

Question 166

Question
R 50.9.3.1 (3868) Vertical wind shear is
Answer
  • vertical variation in the horizontal wind
  • vertical variation in the vertical wind
  • horizontal variation in the horizontal wind
  • horizontal variation in the vertical wind

Question 167

Question
R 50.9.4.1 (3878) During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?
Answer
  • Dissipating stage
  • Cumulus stage
  • Mature stage
  • Anvil stage

Question 168

Question
R 50.9.4.4 (3896) What is the approximate maximum diameter of a microburst ?
Answer
  • 4 km
  • 400 m
  • 20 km
  • 50 km

Question 169

Question
R 50.9.4.4 (3898) How long does a typical microburst last?
Answer
  • 1 to 5 minutes.
  • Less than 1 minute.
  • 1 to 2 hours.
  • About 30 minutes.

Question 170

Question
R 50.10.1.1 (3924) The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to
Answer
  • true north
  • magnetic north
  • the 0-meridian
  • grid north

Question 171

Question
R 50.10.3.1 (3964) What is a trend forecast?
Answer
  • An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
  • A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours
  • A route forecast valid for 24 hours
  • A routine report

Question 172

Question
R 50.10.3.1 (3965) What does the expression ""Broken (BKN)"" mean?
Answer
  • 5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
  • 3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
  • 3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
  • Nil significant cloud cover

Question 173

Question
R 50.10.3.1 (3974) Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast ?
Answer
  • 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt
  • 140° / 10 kt
  • 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
  • 250° / 20 kt

Question 174

Question
R 50.10.3.1 (3976) In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance ?
Answer
  • 60 minutes.
  • 120 minutes.
  • 10 minutes.
  • 20 minutes.

Question 175

Question
R 50.10.3.1 (3983) Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""VV001"" mean?
Answer
  • Vertical visibility 100 FT
  • RVR less than 100 m.
  • RVR greater than 100 m.
  • Vertical visibility 100 m.

Question 176

Question
R 50.10.3.1 (3985) How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?
Answer
  • 2 hours.
  • 9 hours.
  • 1 hour.
  • 30 minutes.

Question 177

Question
R 50.10.3.1 (3989) Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""BKN004"" mean?
Answer
  • 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.
  • 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.
  • 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
  • 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m.

Question 178

Question
50.10.3.1 (3992) What does the term SIGMET signify?
Answer
  • A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
  • A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
  • A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
  • A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at halfhourly intervals

Question 179

Question
50.10.3.1 (3999) Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
Answer
  • 6 km.
  • 6 NM.
  • 4 km.
  • 10 km.

Question 180

Question
RED 50.10.3.1 (4004) Refer to TAF below.EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KTFrom the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be :
Answer
  • a maximum 5 km.
  • not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km.
  • a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.
  • more than 10 km

Question 181

Question
R 50.10.3.1 (4005) Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a runway?
Answer
  • FZRA
  • MIFG
  • FG
  • HZ

Question 182

Question
R 50.10.3.1 (4019) If CAVOK is reported then
Answer
  • no low drifting snow is present
  • no clouds are present
  • low level windshear has not been reported
  • any CB's have a base above 5000 FT

Question 183

Question
R 50.10.3.6 (4088) Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ?
Answer
  • SIGMET.
  • ATIS.
  • SPECI.
  • TAF.

Question 184

Question
R 50.10.3.6 (4089) In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued ?
Answer
  • Marked mountain waves.
  • Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.
  • Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.
  • A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR.

Question 185

Question
R 62.1.3.0 (4655) Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.From/To indicator indicates ""TO"".CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.On what radial is the aircraft?
Answer
  • 275
  • 85
  • 265
  • 95

Question 186

Question
R 62.1.4.0 (4662) Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
Answer
  • A DME station sited on the flight route
  • An ADF sited on the flight route
  • A VOR station sited on the flight route
  • A DME station sited across the flight route

Question 187

Question
R 62.1.4.0 (4667) A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
Answer
  • 6 NM
  • 7 NM
  • 11 NM
  • 8 NM

Question 188

Question
R 62.1.4.0 (4679) Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?
Answer
  • It can provide DME distance
  • It is of no use to civil aviation
  • It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing
  • It can provide a magnetic bearing

Question 189

Question
R 62.1.4.0 (4682) A VOR and DME are co-located.You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
Answer
  • DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
  • DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation
  • DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times
  • VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch

Question 190

Question
R 62.1.5.0 (4689) What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
Answer
  • 600 FT/MIN
  • 550 FT/MIN
  • 800 FT/MIN
  • 950 FT/MIN

Question 191

Question
R 62.1.5.0 (4691) What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?
Answer
  • 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline
  • 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser centreline
  • 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline
  • 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline

Question 192

Question
R 62.1.5.0 (4700) Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate:
Answer
  • decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
  • increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
  • decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
  • increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

Question 193

Question
R 62.1.5.0 (4701) Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) .......... ° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the threshold.
Answer
  • (i) 8 (ii) 10
  • (i) 25 (ii) 17
  • (i) 35 (ii) 25
  • (i) 5 (ii) 8

Question 194

Question
R 62.1.5.0 (4707) The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:
Answer
  • centred
  • left of centre
  • right of centre
  • centred with the 'fail' flag showing

Question 195

Question
R 62.2.4.0 (4759) When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
Answer
  • flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
  • altitude based on regional QNH
  • aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
  • height based on QFE

Question 196

Question
R 62.2.4.0 (4764) When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level that is accurate to within:
Answer
  • + or - 50 FT
  • + or - 75 FT
  • + or - 100 FT
  • + or - 25 FT

Question 197

Question
R 62.2.4.0 (4767) The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains :
Answer
  • two modes, each of 4096 codes
  • four modes, each 1024 codes
  • four modes, each 4096 codes
  • two modes, each 1024 codes

Question 198

Question
R 62.2.4.0 (4771) Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required?
Answer
  • 2000
  • 5000
  • 7000
  • 0

Question 199

Question
R 62.2.4.0 (4776) The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
Answer
  • entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required
  • unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
  • an emergency
  • transponder malfunction

Question 200

Question
R 62.2.4.0 (4777) The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
Answer
  • unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
  • an emergency
  • transponder malfunction
  • radio communication failure
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