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ATP EASA Qatar 3 RED

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Aviation Interview Quiz on ATP EASA Qatar 3 RED, created by mmm mmm on 23/05/2018.
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Quiz by mmm mmm, updated more than 1 year ago
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Created by mmm mmm almost 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
R 62.6.5.0 (4845) What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
Answer
  • 4
  • 3
  • 5
  • 6

Question 2

Question
R 62.6.5.0 (4846) What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?
Answer
  • 3
  • 4
  • 6
  • 5

Question 3

Question
R 62.6.5.0 (4852) Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?
Answer
  • WGS 84
  • ED 87
  • ED 50
  • EUREF 92

Question 4

Question
R 71.1.1.0 (4904) Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
Answer
  • while at their station.
  • only during take off and landing.
  • only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.
  • from take off to landing.

Question 5

Question
R 71.1.2.4 (4946) A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :
Answer
  • a decision height of at least 100 ft
  • a decision height of at least 200 ft
  • a decision height of at least 50 ft
  • no decision height

Question 6

Question
R 71.1.2.4 (4948) A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
Answer
  • 550 m 1800FT
  • 350 m
  • 800 m
  • 500 m

Question 7

Question
R 71.1.2.4 (4949) A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
Answer
  • 200 m = 700 FT
  • 100 m
  • 250 m
  • 50 m

Question 8

Question
R 71.1.2.4 (4951) A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :
Answer
  • a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.
  • a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.
  • a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.
  • no decision height.

Question 9

Question
R 71.1.3.1 (4989) A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :
Answer
  • reduced range
  • increased manoeuvring limits
  • increased flight envelope
  • increased Mach number stability

Question 10

Question
R 71.1.3.3 (5032) The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
Answer
  • 285 and 420.
  • 280 and 400.
  • 280 and 390.
  • 275 and 400.

Question 11

Question
R 71.1.3.3 (5046) At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?
Answer
  • Between FL290 and FL410.
  • Between FL275 and FL400.
  • Between FL245 and FL410.
  • Below FL290.

Question 12

Question
R 71.2.0.0 (5061) According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches :
Answer
  • 1 500 ft
  • 3 000 ft
  • 2 000 ft
  • 1 000 ft

Question 13

Question
R 71.2.2.0 (5070) The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on :
Answer
  • The aircraft front areas.
  • The upper and lower wingsurfaces.
  • The upper and lower rudder surfaces.
  • Only the pitot and static probes.

Question 14

Question
71.2.2.0 (5082) During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:
Answer
  • the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.
  • the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.
  • the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.
  • the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied HOT

Question 15

Question
R 71.2.4.0 (5104) When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is :
Answer
  • 300 m (1000 ft)
  • 450 m (1500 ft)
  • 150 m (500 ft)
  • 600 m (2000 ft)

Question 16

Question
R 71.2.4.0 (5108) According with the ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B"", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching :
Answer
  • 1 000 ft
  • 500 ft
  • 1 500 ft
  • 3 000 ft

Question 17

Question
R 71.2.5.0 (5111) To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
Answer
  • useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
  • possible and recommended.
  • useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.
  • useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.

Question 18

Question
R 71.2.5.0 (5139) A class B fire is a fire of:
Answer
  • liquid or liquefiable solid
  • solid material usually of organic nature
  • electrical source fire
  • special fire: metal, gas, chemical product

Question 19

Question
R 71.2.6.0 (5142) When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate :
Answer
  • a rate of climb
  • a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
  • zero
  • a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure

Question 20

Question
R 71.2.6.0 (5149) The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
Answer
  • 12 seconds.
  • 30 seconds.
  • 5 minutes.
  • 1 minute.

Question 21

Question
R 71.2.7.0 (5161) One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :
Answer
  • can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
  • occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane
  • occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane
  • can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

Question 22

Question
R 71.2.7.0 (5162) Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?
Answer
  • Indicated airspeed.
  • Pitch angle.
  • Vertical speed.
  • Groundspeed.

Question 23

Question
R 71.2.8.0 (5179) For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?
Answer
  • 7.4 km (4 NM)
  • 9.3 km (5 NM)
  • 11.1 km (6 NM)
  • 3.7 km (2 NM)

Question 24

Question
R 71.2.8.0 (5187) For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar 431 separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?
Answer
  • 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
  • 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
  • 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes
  • 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

Question 25

Question
R 71.2.8.0 (5188) For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?
Answer
  • 3 minutes
  • 4 minutes
  • 5 minutess
  • 2 minutes

Question 26

Question
R 71.2.8.0 (5190) For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?
Answer
  • 3 minutes
  • 4 minutes
  • 5 minutes
  • 2 minutes

Question 27

Question
R 71.2.8.0 (5193) According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied :
Answer
  • to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold
  • to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less 760 m
  • to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross
  • Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off

Question 28

Question
R 71.2.8.0 (5194) According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :
Answer
  • LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway
  • LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
  • MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
  • MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760 m

Question 29

Question
R 71.2.8.0 (5195) In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of :
Answer
  • 5 NM
  • 4 NM
  • 3 NM
  • 2 NM

Question 30

Question
R 71.2.8.0 (5196) According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to :
Answer
  • MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
  • LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
  • LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway)
  • LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway

Question 31

Question
R 71.2.9.0 (5200) In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
Answer
  • you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.
  • you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.
  • you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.
  • you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.

Question 32

Question
71.2.10.0 (5214) For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :
Answer
  • 90 seconds
  • 132 seconds
  • 60 seconds
  • 120 seconds

Question 33

Question
RED 71.2.13.0 (5251) The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :
Answer
  • 24 hours
  • 12 hours
  • 6 hours
  • 3 hours

Question 34

Question
R 71.2.13.0 (5255) In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
Answer
  • its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.
  • it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
  • it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
  • surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

Question 35

Question
R 71.2.13.0 (5254) A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is :
Answer
  • poor
  • unreliable
  • medium
  • good

Question 36

Question
R 81.1.3.1 (5307) The lift formula is:
Answer
  • L= CL 1/2 RHO V² S
  • L= W
  • L= CL 2 RHO V² S
  • L= n W

Question 37

Question
R 81.1.6.0 (5355) What will happen in ground effect ?
Answer
  • the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases
  • the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases
  • an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices
  • a significant increase in thrust required

Question 38

Question
R 81.1.6.0 (5356) If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect
Answer
  • the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.
  • the effective angle of attack is decreased.
  • the induced angle of attack is increased.
  • drag and lift are reduced.

Question 39

Question
R 81.1.6.4 (5357) Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur :
Answer
  • when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface
  • when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface
  • when a higher than normal angle of attack is used
  • at a speed approaching the stall

Question 40

Question
R 81.1.6.4 (5358) Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance :
Answer
  • increases.
  • increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
  • does not change.
  • decreases.

Question 41

Question
R 81.1.8.2 (5377) The stall speed :
Answer
  • increases with an increased weight
  • decreases with an increased weight
  • does not depend on weight
  • increases with the length of the wingspan

Question 42

Question
R 81.1.8.2 (5381) The following factors increase stall speed :
Answer
  • an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust.
  • a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift.
  • increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.
  • a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting.

Question 43

Question
R 81.1.8.2 (5383) The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant) a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • pulling up from a dive.
  • weight decreases.
  • minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.
  • spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.

Question 44

Question
R 81.1.8.4 (5393) Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is:
Answer
  • greater than VS.
  • 1.20 VS.
  • 1.30 VS.
  • 1.12 VS.

Question 45

Question
R 81.1.8.5 (5409) One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the stall :
Answer
  • tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.
  • wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
  • tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
  • leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

Question 46

Question
R 81.1.9.0 (5414) After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ?
Answer
  • Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
  • Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.
  • Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation.
  • Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.

Question 47

Question
R 81.1.10.1 (5448) When ""spoilers"" are used as speed brakes:
Answer
  • at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.
  • CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.
  • they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.
  • at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.

Question 48

Question
R 81.2.1.1 (5454) The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is: speed of sound: mach / tas 0.8/400= 500
Answer
  • 500 kts
  • 320 kts
  • 480 kts
  • 600 kts

Question 49

Question
R 81.2.2.1 (5465) Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which:
Answer
  • somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.
  • the critical angle of attack is reached.
  • shockstall occurs.
  • Mach buffet occurs.

Question 50

Question
R 81.2.2.2 (5488) When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of :
Answer
  • Higher critical Mach number
  • Greater strength
  • Increased longitudinal stability
  • Lower stalling speed

Question 51

Question
R 81.2.2.3 (5491) How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?
Answer
  • It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.
  • It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.
  • It remains constant.

Question 52

Question
R 81.2.2.3 (5493) At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):
Answer
  • increases
  • decreases
  • decreases until the tropopause
  • remains the same

Question 53

Question
R 81.4.3.5 (5552) A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to:
Answer
  • a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off.
  • an increasing static longitudinal stability.
  • a better recovery performance in the spin.
  • an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g).

Question 54

Question
81.5.1.1 (5580) Rotation about the lateral axis is called :
Answer
  • pitching.
  • rolling.
  • slipping.
  • yawing.

Question 55

Question
R 81.5.2.4 (5583) The centre of gravity moving aft will:
Answer
  • increase the elevator up effectiveness.
  • decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
  • not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
  • increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.

Question 56

Question
R 81.5.5.0 (5599) Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll? a) b) c) d)
Answer
  • Rolling and yawing.
  • Pitching and rolling.
  • Pitching and adverse yaw.
  • Pitching and yawing.

Question 57

Question
R 81.6.3.2 (5643) What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence :
Answer
  • swept wings
  • winglets
  • straight wings
  • wing dihedral

Question 58

Question
R 81.8.1.5 (5672) A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to:
Answer
  • increase thrust and angle of attack.
  • increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
  • increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.
  • increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.

Question 59

Question
R 81.8.1.5 (5676) The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:
Answer
  • TAS.
  • weight.
  • load factor
  • wind.

Question 60

Question
R 81.8.2.10 (5683) Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?
Answer
  • Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways.
  • Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.
  • Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already been lifted off the ground.
  • Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.

Question 61

Question
R How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature?
Answer
  • decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing density
  • increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required rudder force
  • increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density decreases
  • 1998-10-05 0:00
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