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EASA ATP Qatar yellow 4

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Aviacion (Examen ) Quiz on EASA ATP Qatar yellow 4, created by Alejandro Castillo on 23/05/2018.
Alejandro Castillo
Quiz by Alejandro Castillo, updated more than 1 year ago
Alejandro Castillo
Created by Alejandro Castillo almost 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
50.4.2.1 (3636) Freezing fog consists of
Answer
  • frozen water droplets
  • supercooled water droplets
  • frozen minute snow flakes
  • ice crystals

Question 2

Question
50.4.2.1 (3637) The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is :
Answer
  • below 5 kt
  • between 5 and 10 kt
  • between 10 and 15 kt
  • above 15 kt

Question 3

Question
50.4.2.2 (3639) Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15°C and dew point of 12°C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ?
Answer
  • Advection fog
  • Steam fog
  • Radiation fog
  • Frontal fog

Question 4

Question
50.4.2.2 (3640) Advection fog can be formed when
Answer
  • warm moist air flows over a colder surface
  • cold moist air flows over a warmer surface
  • warm moist air flows over a warmer surface
  • cold moist air flows over warmer water

Question 5

Question
50.4.2.3 (3642) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)?
Answer
  • Warm air moving over cold water
  • The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
  • Cold air moving over warm water
  • he coastal region of the sea cools at nigh

Question 6

Question
50.5.1.1 (3647) Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes?
Answer
  • Moderate rain with large drops.
  • Heavy rain with large drops.
  • Drizzle.
  • Hail.

Question 7

Question
50.5.2.1 (3649) With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated? a) b) c d) Stratus.
Answer
  • Cumulonimbus.
  • Stratocumulus.
  • Nimbostratus.
  • Stratus.

Question 8

Question
50.5.2.1 (3650) Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation ?
Answer
  • CS.
  • NS
  • SC.
  • ST

Question 9

Question
50.5.2.1 (3653) The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that
Answer
  • a cold front has passed
  • there are thunderstorms in the area
  • freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude
  • a warm front has passed

Question 10

Question
With what type of cloud is ""DZ"" precipitation most commonly associated?
Answer
  • ST
  • CC
  • CB
  • CU

Question 11

Question
50.5.2.1 (3664) Large hail stones
Answer
  • only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes
  • are entirely composed of clear ice
  • are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
  • only occur in frontal thunderstorms

Question 12

Question
50.5.2.1 (3666) From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ?
Answer
  • Stratus.
  • Cumulus
  • Altostratus
  • Cirrostratus.

Question 13

Question
50.5.2.1 (3667) What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ?
Answer
  • Towering cumulus and altostratus.
  • Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus.
  • Nimbostratus.
  • Altostratus and stratus.

Question 14

Question
50.6.1.1 (3669) An airmass is unstable when
Answer
  • temperature and humidity are not constant
  • pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
  • an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height.
  • temperature increases with height

Question 15

Question
50.6.2.2 (3685) The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:
Answer
  • 1/50
  • 1/300
  • 1/150
  • 1/500

Question 16

Question
50.6.2.2 (3686) In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered ?
Answer
  • Ahead of a cold front in the winter
  • Ahead of a warm front in the winter
  • Ahead of a cold front in the summer
  • Behind a warm front in the summer

Question 17

Question
50.6.2.2 (3687) How do air masses move at a warm front ?
Answer
  • Warm air overrides a cold air mass
  • Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
  • Cold air overrides a warm air mass
  • Warm air undercuts a cold air mass

Question 18

Question
50.6.2.2 (3691) Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if
Answer
  • the cold air is convectively unstable.
  • the warm air is convectively unstable.
  • the warm air is convectively stable.
  • the cold air is convectively stable.

Question 19

Question
50.6.2.2 (3692) On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching
Answer
  • QFE and QNH increase.
  • QFE and QNH decrease.
  • QFE increases and QNH decreases.
  • QFE decreases and QNH increases.

Question 20

Question
50.6.2.3 (3694) After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature?
Answer
  • A backing in the wind direction.
  • An increase in tailwind.
  • A veering in the wind direction.
  • A decrease in headwind.

Question 21

Question
50.6.2.3 (3698) Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer ?
Answer
  • Mainly towering clouds
  • Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed
  • Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed
  • Mainly layered clouds

Question 22

Question
50.6.2.7 (3714) What characterizes a stationary front ?
Answer
  • The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front
  • The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
  • The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
  • The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front

Question 23

Question
50.7.2.1 (3730) What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the winter?
Answer
  • Thunderstorms.
  • A tendency for fog and low ST.
  • The possibility of snow showers.
  • NS with continuous rain.

Question 24

Question
50.7.2.1 (3736) A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is
Answer
  • a warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N
  • situated between 50° and 70°N/a cold anticyclone/steering depressions
  • quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold anticyclone
  • a cold anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia

Question 25

Question
50.7.2.1 (3737) The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by
Answer
  • convection
  • subsidence
  • a decrease in temperature
  • a decrease in pressure

Question 26

Question
50.7.3.1 (3740) How do you recognize a cold air pool?
Answer
  • As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
  • As a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
  • A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area.
  • A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a high pressure area.

Question 27

Question
50.7.3.1 (3743) Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal depression because of :
Answer
  • surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression
  • surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression2
  • surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression
  • surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression

Question 28

Question
50.7.3.1 (3745) Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression?
Answer
  • It forms over the ocean in winter
  • It forms over land in summer
  • It forms over the ocean in summer
  • It forms over land in winter

Question 29

Question
50.7.3.1 (3746) Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?
Answer
  • It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense
  • It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary
  • It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary
  • It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense

Question 30

Question
50.7.4.2 (3754) At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of Japan?
Answer
  • September to January.
  • July to November.
  • January to May.
  • May to July.

Question 31

Question
50.7.4.2 (3755) On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?
Answer
  • SE coast
  • N coast
  • NE coast
  • W coast

Question 32

Question
50.7.4.2 (3756) What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean area?
Answer
  • East then south.
  • West deep into the USA.
  • West in the earlier stages and later turning north east.
  • West in the earlier stages and later turning south east

Question 33

Question
50.7.4.2 (3757) During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern hemisphere?
Answer
  • Winter.
  • Summer and autumn
  • Winter and spring.
  • All seasons.

Question 34

Question
50.7.4.2 (3758) During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?
Answer
  • January until April.
  • July until November
  • October until January.
  • April until July.

Question 35

Question
50.7.4.2 (3759) The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is
Answer
  • the carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the USA.
  • the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Réunion.
  • the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese coastline.
  • the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.

Question 36

Question
50.7.4.2 (3764) When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia?
Answer
  • May to July
  • December to April
  • Not experienced at Darwin
  • August to October

Question 37

Question
50.8.1.1 (3765) At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?
Answer
  • 30°N.
  • 10°N.
  • 50°N.
  • 80°N

Question 38

Question
50.8.1.1 (3766) The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in summer is that
Answer
  • the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter.
  • the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter
  • converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter
  • the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows

Question 39

Question
50.8.1.2 (3768) What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region ?
Answer
  • Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and October-November.
  • Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the year
  • Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The greatest intensity is in July.
  • Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year, the frequency is highest in January

Question 40

Question
50.8.2.2 (3769) When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?
Answer
  • December to February and July to October.
  • April to July and December to February.
  • March to May and October to November.
  • March to May and August to October.

Question 41

Question
50.8.2.3 (3773) In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?
Answer
  • 0° - 7°N.
  • 3° - 8°S.
  • 8° - 12°S.
  • 7° - 12°N.

Question 42

Question
50.8.2.4 (3785) From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
Answer
  • SE
  • NE
  • N
  • SW

Question 43

Question
50.8.2.4 (3786) What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?
Answer
  • Doldrums.
  • Trade winds.
  • Monsoon.
  • Westerly winds.

Question 44

Question
50.8.2.4 (3787) In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?
Answer
  • In December.
  • In October.
  • In March.
  • In June.

Question 45

Question
50.8.2.4 (3788) What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipitation?
Answer
  • Indian, maritime tropical air mass.
  • South-west monsoon.
  • South-east trade wind.
  • Winter monsoon

Question 46

Question
50.8.2.4 (3791) The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in
Answer
  • December, January, February
  • July, August, September
  • September, October, November
  • February, March, April

Question 47

Question
50.8.4.1 (3806) What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
Answer
  • Ghibli.
  • Bora.
  • Mistral.
  • Scirocco.

Question 48

Question
50.8.4.1 (3812) The Bora is a
Answer
  • squally warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
  • cold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
  • cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
  • cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers

Question 49

Question
50.8.4.1 (3813) The Foehn wind is a
Answer
  • cold fall wind
  • warm anabatic wind
  • warm fall wind
  • cold anabatic wind

Question 50

Question
50.8.4.1 (3814) Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?
Answer
  • Bora
  • Chinook
  • Scirocco
  • Harmattan

Question 51

Question
50.8.4.1 (3817) A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is known as a
Answer
  • Foehn
  • Harmattan
  • Bora
  • Mistral

Question 52

Question
50.9.1.1 (3822) In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
Answer
  • CI
  • SC
  • NS
  • CU

Question 53

Question
50.9.1.1 (3823) In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
Answer
  • CS
  • NS
  • AS
  • SC

Question 54

Question
50.9.1.1 (3824) Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ?
Answer
  • FZRA
  • GR
  • SHSN
  • PE

Question 55

Question
50.9.1.1 (3828) In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion ?
Answer
  • Cirrus clouds.
  • Freezing rain
  • Stratus clouds
  • Snow

Question 56

Question
50.9.1.1 (3829) In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's surface?
Answer
  • +10°C to 0°C
  • 0°C to -10°C
  • -20°C to -35°C
  • -35°C to -50°C

Question 57

Question
50.9.1.1 (3833) Freezing fog exists if fog droplets
Answer
  • are frozen
  • are freezing very rapidly
  • are supercooled
  • freeze when temperature falls below zero

Question 58

Question
50.9.1.2 (3840) Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of
Answer
  • small supercooled water drops.
  • water vapour
  • large supercooled water drops.
  • snow.

Question 59

Question
50.9.1.2 (3841) Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB?
Answer
  • Between -20°C and -30°C
  • Between -30°C and -40°C
  • Between -2°C and -15°C
  • Close to the freezing level

Question 60

Question
50.9.1.2 (3842) Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :
Answer
  • water vapour
  • large supercooled water drops
  • snow
  • small supercooled water drops

Question 61

Question
50.9.1.2 (3843) During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze 
Answer
  • slowly and do not spread out
  • rapidly and do not spread out
  • rapidly and spread
  • slowly and spread out

Question 62

Question
50.9.1.2 (3845) Clear ice forms as a result of
Answer
  • water vapour freezing to the aircraft
  • ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
  • supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process
  • supercooled droplets freezing on impact

Question 63

Question
50.9.1.2 (3847) The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5°C is most likely to be
Answer
  • hoar frost
  • rime ice
  • clear ice
  • cloudy ice

Question 64

Question
50.9.1.2 (3848) Clear ice is dangerous because it
Answer
  • is translucent and only forms at the leading edges
  • is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
  • spreads out and contains many air particles
  • is not translucent and forms at the leading edges

Question 65

Question
50.9.1.3 (3853) How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 FT/AGL, when he is unable to deice, nor land?
Answer
  • He descends to the warm air layer below.
  • He ascends to the cold air layer above.
  • He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.
  • He continues to fly at the same altitude.

Question 66

Question
50.9.1.3 (3854) At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change of course and/or altitude desirable"" recommendation be followed?
Answer
  • Moderate
  • Severe
  • Light
  • Extreme

Question 67

Question
50.9.1.3 (3855) At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change course and/or altitude immediately"" instruction be followed?
Answer
  • Severe
  • Extreme
  • Light
  • Moderate

Question 68

Question
50.9.1.3 (3856) At what degree of icing can ICAO's ""No change of course and altitude necessary"" recommendation be followed?
Answer
  • Light
  • Severe
  • Moderate
  • Extreme

Question 69

Question
50.9.1.3 (3857) The most dangerous form of airframe icing is
Answer
  • rime ice
  • clear ice.
  • hoar frost.
  • dry ice.

Question 70

Question
50.9.2.1 (3859) How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?
Answer
  • Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude.
  • Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control momentarily.
  • Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times.
  • Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.

Question 71

Question
50.9.2.1 (3861) What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
Answer
  • Change of flight level.
  • Change of course.
  • Decrease of speed.
  • Increase of speed.

Question 72

Question
50.9.2.2 (3864) The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to the
Answer
  • intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear
  • height of the aircraft
  • intensity of the solar radiation
  • stability of the air

Question 73

Question
50.9.3.2 (3869) Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night
Answer
  • and early morning only in winter
  • in association with radiation inversions
  • in unstable atmospheres
  • and early morning only in summer

Question 74

Question
50.9.3.2 (3870) The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered
Answer
  • when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
  • during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
  • in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt
  • near valleys and at the windward side of mountains..

Question 75

Question
50.9.4.1 (3872) Where is a squall line to be expected?
Answer
  • In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels.
  • Behind a cold front.
  • At the surface position of a warm front
  • In front of an active cold front.

Question 76

Question
50.9.4.1 (3873) What are squall lines?
Answer
  • The surface weather associated with upper air troughs.
  • Bands of intensive thunderstorms.
  • The paths of tropical revolving storms.
  • Unusual intensive cold fronts.

Question 77

Question
50.9.4.1 (3874) What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?
Answer
  • Strong steady rain
  • Thunderstorms
  • Fog
  • Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels

Question 78

Question
50.9.4.1 (3875) At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a CB?
Answer
  • From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450.
  • From the ground up to about FL 200.
  • From the ground up to about FL 100.
  • From the base of the clouds up to FL 200.

Question 79

Question
50.9.4.1 (3876) A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered
Answer
  • at an occluded front
  • in an airmass with cold mass properties
  • ahead of a cold front
  • behind of a stationary front

Question 80

Question
50.9.4.1 (3877) In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously? 
Answer
  • Cumulus stage
  • Mature stage
  • Dissipating stage
  • In all stages

Question 81

Question
50.9.4.2 (3882) During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to occur ?
Answer
  • Mature stage.
  • Cumulus stage.
  • Dissipating stage.
  • Cumulus stage and mature stage.

Question 82

Question
50.9.4.2 (3884) Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability which may lead to thunderstorm development ?
Answer
  • AC lenticularis.
  • AC castellanus.
  • Halo.
  • Red cirrus

Question 83

Question
50.9.4.2 (3890) Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
Answer
  • dissipating stage.
  • mature stage.
  • cumulus stage.
  • period in which precipitation is not falling.

Question 84

Question
50.9.4.2 (3891) What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
Answer
  • A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
  • Water vapour and high pressure
  • A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
  • An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action

Question 85

Question
50.9.4.2 (3893) In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered ?
Answer
  • Polar
  • Tropical
  • Subtropical
  • Temperate

Question 86

Question
50.9.4.4 (3897) What is a microburst?
Answer
  • An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.
  • A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding air.
  • A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air.
  • A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds.

Question 87

Question
50.9.4.5 (3903) Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a ""Faradays cage"", which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shock
  • Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and temporarily lose the hearing.
  • Aircraft made by composite material can´t conduct a lightning and will therefore very seldom be struck.
  • An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.

Question 88

Question
50.9.5.1 (3906) The diameter of a typical tornado is
Answer
  • only a few metres
  • 100 to 150 metres
  • about 2 to 6 km
  • in the order of 10 km

Question 89

Question
50.10.1.1 (3918) The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?
Answer
  • On a mast 8-10 m above the ground.
  • Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.
  • 1 m above the runway.
  • On the roof of the weather station.

Question 90

Question
50.10.1.1 (3919) What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""BKN""?
Answer
  • 5 - 7 oktas.
  • 3 - 4 oktas.
  • 6 - 8 oktas.
  • 8 oktas.

Question 91

Question
50.10.1.1 (3920) When is the RVR reported at most airports?
Answer
  • When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m.
  • When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m.
  • When the RVR decreases below 800 m.
  • When the RVR decreases below 2000 m

Question 92

Question
50.10.1.1 (3921) When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?
Answer
  • When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
  • When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
  • With gusts of at least 25 knots
  • With gusts of at least 35 knots

Question 93

Question
50.10.1.1 (3922) While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:RVR runway 23: 400mThis information indicates the
Answer
  • meteorological visibility on runway 23.
  • portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23 in service.
  • length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23.
  • minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service.

Question 94

Question
50.10.1.1 (3925) The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above
Answer
  • the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
  • airfield level
  • mean sea level
  • the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station

Question 95

Question
50.10.1.4 (3929) Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?
Answer
  • Hail
  • Water vapour
  • Fog
  • Any cloud

Question 96

Question
50.10.2.1 (3931) In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?
Answer
  • 500 hPa chart.
  • Significant Weather Chart.
  • 24 hour surface forecast.
  • 300 hPa chart

Question 97

Question
50.10.2.1 (3932) On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jetstream?
Answer
  • Wind / temperature chart.
  • Significant weather chart.
  • Surface chart.
  • Upper air chart.

Question 98

Question
50.10.2.1 (3933) Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing level ?
Answer
  • 500 hPa chart
  • 700 hPa chart
  • Significant weather chart
  • Surface chart

Question 99

Question
50.10.2.1 (3934) What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?
Answer
  • The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
  • The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the chart
  • The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
  • The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart

Question 100

Question
50.10.2.4 (3950) How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?
Answer
  • EMBD CB
  • OCNL CB.
  • SOL CB
  • FREQ CB.

Question 101

Question
50.10.3.1 (3966) What does the abbreviation ""nosig"" mean?
Answer
  • No report received
  • No significant changes
  • No weather related problems
  • Not signed by the meteorologistu

Question 102

Question
50.10.3.1 (3967) In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway?
Answer
  • SIGMET
  • METAR
  • GAFOR
  • TAF

Question 103

Question
50.10.3.1 (3968) In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest?
Answer
  • VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =
  • VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =
  • 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =
  • 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =

Question 104

Question
50.10.3.1 (3969) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
Answer
  • LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
  • LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
  • LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =
  • LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =

Question 105

Question
50.10.3.1 (3970) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
Answer
  • LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =
  • LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =
  • LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 =
  • LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =

Question 106

Question
50.10.3.1 (3972) Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA =Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux ?
Answer
  • Continuous moderate rain
  • Light drizzle and fog
  • Heavy rain showers
  • Moderate snow showers

Question 107

Question
50.10.3.1 (3980) Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam?
Answer
  • 250 FT
  • 500 FT
  • 500 m
  • 800 FTD

Question 108

Question
50.10.3.1 (3981) In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at the time:EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn =LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc =EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for london fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst mov e wkn =Which decision is correct?
Answer
  • Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370).
  • Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250.
  • You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be flown.
  • You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route would demand too much of the passengers

Question 109

Question
50.10.3.1 (3984) What does the term METAR signify?
Answer
  • A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report.i
  • A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly intervals.
  • A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.
  • A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.

Question 110

Question
50.10.3.1 (3986) What is a SPECI?
Answer
  • A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours.
  • A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required.
  • A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather conditions have been observed.
  • An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours

Question 111

Question
50.10.3.1 (3987) Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428What must you consider when making performance calculations?
Answer
  • The runway will be wet.
  • The friction coefficient is 0.28
  • The braking action will be medium to good
  • Aquaplaning conditions

Question 112

Question
50.10.3.1 (3988) Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the ""BECMG"" data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?
Answer
  • A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC.
  • Many short term changes in the original weather.
  • The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
  • Many long term changes in the original weather.

Question 113

Question
50.10.3.1 (3990) Refer to the following TAF extract,BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""PROB30"" mean?
Answer
  • Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes.
  • Probability of 30%
  • Change expected in less than 30 minutes
  • The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT

Question 114

Question
50.10.3.1 (3991) What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on?
Answer
  • The average speed of the previous 10 minutes
  • The strongest gust in the previous hour
  • The average speed of the previous 30 minutes
  • The actual speed at the time of recording

Question 115

Question
50.10.3.1 (3993) What does the term TREND signify?
Answer
  • It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals
  • It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
  • It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
  • It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily

Question 116

Question
50.10.3.1 (3994) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed?
Answer
  • SN
  • FZFG
  • BCFG
  • HZ

Question 117

Question
50.10.3.1 (3996) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed?
Answer
  • DZ
  • TS
  • SA
  • SQ

Question 118

Question
50.10.3.1 (3997) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf =
Answer
  • Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the Alps
  • Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380
  • Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260
  • Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 380

Question 119

Question
50.10.3.1 (3998) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd ts obs and fcst in w part of athinai fir / mov e / intst nc =
Answer
  • Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving west
  • Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constant
  • The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above the western part of the Athens FIR
  • Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by 1820 UTC

Question 120

Question
50.10.3.1 (4000) Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:
Answer
  • 1000 FT.
  • 1500 FT.
  • 1500 m.
  • 5000 FT.

Question 121

Question
50.10.3.1 (4001) The following weather reportEDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001is a :
Answer
  • 9 hour TAF
  • 24 hour TAF.
  • METAR
  • SPECI.

Question 122

Question
50.10.3.1 (4002) In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the 
Answer
  • QFE rounded to the nearest hPa.
  • QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa
  • QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa.
  • QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa

Question 123

Question
50.10.3.1 (4003) What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""SCT"" ?
Answer
  • 3 - 4 oktas
  • 1 - 2 oktas
  • 5 - 7 oktas
  • 1 - 4 oktas

Question 124

Question
50.10.3.1 (4007) Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few hours?
Answer
  • 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG =
  • 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =
  • 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG =
  • 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 =

Question 125

Question
50.10.3.1 (4008) Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours?
Answer
  • 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG =
  • 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS =
  • 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG =
  • 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000 =

Question 126

Question
50.10.3.1 (4009) In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the coming night the highest?
Answer
  • 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =
  • 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =
  • 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
  • 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =

Question 127

Question
50.10.3.1 (4010) Look at this TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z =Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC?
Answer
  • Meteorological visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18°C.
  • Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots.
  • Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 3000 feet, wind 250°, temperature 18°C.
  • Severe rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15°C, gusts up to 35 knots.

Question 128

Question
50.10.3.1 (4011) Refer to the TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 =Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC?
Answer
  • Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230°, cloudbase 500 feet
  • Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm
  • Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots
  • Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots

Question 129

Question
50.10.3.1 (4013) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""?
Answer
  • 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =
  • 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =
  • 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =
  • 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =

Question 130

Question
50.10.3.1 (4015) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
Answer
  • Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100 metres
  • RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
  • Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
  • Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres

Question 131

Question
50.10.3.1 (4018) The validity of a TAF is
Answer
  • between 6 and 9 hours
  • 2 hours
  • stated in the TAF
  • 9 hours from the time of issue

Question 132

Question
50.10.3.1 (4020) Runway visual range can be reported in
Answer
  • a METAR
  • a SIGMET
  • a TAF
  • both a TAF and a METAR

Question 133

Question
50.10.3.1 (4021) SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to
Answer
  • all aircraft
  • VFR operations only
  • light aircraft only
  • heavy aircraft only

Question 134

Question
50.10.3.1 (4022) A SPECI is
Answer
  • a warning for special weather phenomena
  • an aviation routine weather report
  • an aviation selected special weather report
  • a forecast for special weather phenomena

Question 135

Question
50.10.3.1 (4024) The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the
Answer
  • average value of the A-, B- and C-position
  • value representative of the touchdown zone
  • lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position
  • highest value of the A-, B- and C-position

Question 136

Question
50.10.3.1 (4025) At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are respectively: T = - 0,5°C,Td = -1,5°C.In the METAR message transmitted by this station, the ""temperature group"" will be:
Answer
  • 00/M01
  • M00/M01
  • M01/M01
  • M01/M02

Question 137

Question
50.10.3.2 (4028) ATIS information contains
Answer
  • operational information and if necessary meteorological information
  • meteorological and operational information
  • only meteorological information
  • only operational information

Question 138

Question
50.10.3.3 (4086) A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in
Answer
  • METAR and SIGMET
  • SWC and SIGMET
  • TAF and SIGMET
  • TAF and METAR

Question 139

Question
50.10.3.5 (4087) What units are used to report vertical wind shear?
Answer
  • kt
  • kt/100 FT.
  • m/100 FT
  • m/sec.

Question 140

Question
61.1.2.0 (4109) The diameter of the Earth is approximately:
Answer
  • 6 350 km
  • 12 700 km
  • 40 000 km
  • 18 500 km

Question 141

Question
61.1.2.0 (4116) The circumference of the earth is approximately:
Answer
  • 5400 NM
  • 10800 NM
  • 21600 NM
  • 43200 NM

Question 142

Question
61.1.3.0 (4124) The duration of civil twilight is the time:
Answer
  • between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true horizon
  • needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to the apparent height of 6°
  • agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes
  • between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12° below the true horizondified: Tue, 0

Question 143

Question
61.1.3.0 (4133) The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is due to the:
Answer
  • earth's rotation
  • inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
  • gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth
  • relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic

Question 144

Question
61.1.4.0 (4138) Isogonic lines connect positions that have:
Answer
  • 0° variation
  • the same elevation
  • the same variation
  • the same angle of magnetic dip

Question 145

Question
61.1.4.0 (4139) Compass deviation is defined as the angle between:
Answer
  • Magnetic North and Compass North
  • True North and Magnetic North
  • the horizontal and the total intensity of the earth's magnetic field
  • True North and Compass North

Question 146

Question
61.1.4.0 (4140) The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called :
Answer
  • variation
  • deviation
  • compass error
  • drift

Question 147

Question
61.1.5.0 (4147) The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N 007°30'W) is:
Answer
  • 300 NM
  • 450 NM
  • 600 NM
  • 150 NM

Question 148

Question
61.4.1.0 (4359) Given the following:True track: 192°Magnetic variation: 7°EDrift angle: 5° leftWhat is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?
Answer
  • 190°
  • 194°
  • 180°
  • 204°

Question 149

Question
61.4.4.0 (4463) A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft's position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and:
Answer
  • fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is obtained
  • set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river or railway
  • fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained
  • fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure is regained

Question 150

Question
61.4.5.0 (4465) Given:FL 350,Mach 0.80,OAT -55°C. Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound (LSS)?
Answer
  • 237 kt, LSS 296 kt
  • 461 kt , LSS 576 kt
  • 461 kt , LSS 296 kt
  • 490 kt, LSS 461 kt

Question 151

Question
61.4.5.0 (4468) What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?
Answer
  • -50°C
  • -56°C
  • -66°C
  • -81°C

Question 152

Question
61.4.5.0 (4471) Given:Airport elevation is 1000 ft. QNH is 988 hPa.What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
Answer
  • 680 FT
  • 1680 FT
  • 320 FT
  • - 320 FT

Question 153

Question
61.4.5.0 (4473) Given:Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airportElevation of airport 720 FT.QNH is 1003 hPa.OAT at FL150 -5°C.What is the true altitude of the aircraft?(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
Answer
  • 15 280 FT
  • 15 840 FT
  • 14 160 FT
  • 14 720 FT

Question 154

Question
61.4.5.0 (4474) An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE (altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963 hPa, temperature = 32°C).Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the second altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately :
Answer
  • 4 000 FT
  • 6 000 FT
  • 6 400 FT
  • 6 800 FT

Question 155

Question
61.4.7.0 (4481) Given:AD = Air distance GD = Ground distanceTAS = True AirspeedGS = GroundspeedWhich of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground distance (GD) gone?
Answer
  • GD = (AD - TAS)/TAS
  • GD = (AD X GS)/TAS
  • GD = AD X (GS -TAS)/GS
  • GD = TAS/(GS X AD)

Question 156

Question
61.5.2.0 (4510) Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN?
Answer
  • 16.0 NM
  • 19.2 NM
  • 26.7 NM
  • 38.4 NM

Question 157

Question
61.5.2.0 (4512) An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is:
Answer
  • 49 NM
  • 59 NM
  • 69 NM
  • 79 NM

Question 158

Question
61.5.2.0 (4520) What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS?
Answer
  • Mach number remains constant, TAS increases
  • Mach number increases, TAS increases
  • Mach number increases, TAS remains constant
  • Mach number decreases, TAS decreases

Question 159

Question
61.6.4.0 (4587) Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selections of the Mode Selector switches of an inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel?
Answer
  • OFF - ALIGN - NAV - ATT
  • OFF - ON - ALIGN - NAV
  • OFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAV
  • OFF - ALIGN - ATT - NAV

Question 160

Question
61.6.4.0 (4588) ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing:
Answer
  • only attitude information
  • only attitude and heading information
  • altitude, heading and position information
  • navigation information

Question 161

Question
61.6.5.0 (4602) Where and when are the IRS positions updated?
Answer
  • IRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Go-around' button at the start of the take-off rol
  • Only on the ground during the alignment procedure
  • Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position (VOR station or NDB)
  • During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC

Question 162

Question
61.6.5.0 (4603) The sensors of an INS measure:
Answer
  • acceleration
  • the horizontal component of the earth's rotation
  • velocity
  • precession

Question 163

Question
62.1.2.0 (4610) An aircraft is ""homing"" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing :
Answer
  • left drift
  • zero drift
  • right drift
  • a wind from the west

Question 164

Question
62.1.2.0 (4614) 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:
Answer
  • static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band
  • skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
  • the effect of the Aurora Borealis
  • interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB

Question 165

Question
62.1.2.0 (4615) Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
Answer
  • signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
  • signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
  • skywave/groundwave contamination
  • misalignment of the loop aerial

Question 166

Question
62.1.2.0 (4616) Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is:
Answer
  • inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
  • inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
  • near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
  • near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

Question 167

Question
62.1.2.0 (4619) Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
Answer
  • Frequency drift at the ground station
  • Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
  • Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
  • Mutual interference between aircraft aerials

Question 168

Question
62.1.2.0 (4621) Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
Answer
  • 200 - 1750 kHz
  • 200 - 2000 kHz(Aÿÿ¾ Æ<M
  • 255 - 455 kHz
  • 300 - 3000 kHz

Question 169

Question
62.1.2.0 (4623) Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
Answer
  • height error - station interference - mountain effect
  • static interference - station interference - latitude error
  • static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system
  • coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect

Question 170

Question
62.1.2.0 (4624) Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
Answer
  • Quadrantal error
  • Coastal effect
  • Local thunderstorm activity
  • Precipitation interference

Question 171

Question
62.1.3.0 (4627) Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
Answer
  • night effect
  • uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
  • quadrantal error
  • static interference

Question 172

Question
62.1.3.0 (4628) If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by: 
Answer
  • interference from other transmitters
  • sky wave interference from the same transmitter
  • noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter
  • sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency

Question 173

Question
62.1.3.0 (4635) An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial:
Answer
  • 255°
  • 262°
  • 278°
  • 285°

Question 174

Question
62.1.3.0 (4639) Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
Answer
  • VHF
  • UHF
  • HF
  • SHF

Question 175

Question
62.1.3.0 (4641) An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
Answer
  • 064° with the TO flag showing
  • 064° with the FROM flag showing
  • 244° with the FROM flag showing
  • 244° with the TO flag showing

Question 176

Question
62.1.3.0 (4642) What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?
Answer
  • 147 NM
  • 156 NM
  • 184 NM
  • 220 NM

Question 177

Question
62.1.3.0 (4645) The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
Answer
  • 151 NM
  • 170 NM
  • 190 NM
  • 230 NM

Question 178

Question
62.1.3.0 (4646) If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
Answer
  • constant magnetic track
  • rhumbline track
  • great circle track
  • line of constant bearing

Question 179

Question
62.1.3.0 (4647) An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :
Answer
  • 90 NM
  • 100 NM
  • 110 NM
  • 120 NM

Question 180

Question
62.1.3.0 (4648) An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :
Answer
  • 123 NM
  • 130 NM
  • 135 NM
  • 142 NM

Question 181

Question
62.1.3.0 (4649) The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately:
Answer
  • 163 NM
  • 183 NM
  • 204 NM
  • 245 NM

Question 182

Question
62.1.3.0 (4652) An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
Answer
  • NW
  • SW
  • SE
  • NE

Question 183

Question
62.1.3.0 (4656) The frequency range of a VOR receiver is :
Answer
  • 108 to 117.95 MHz
  • 108 to 111.95 MHz
  • 118 to 135.95 MHz
  • 108 to 135.95 MHz

Question 184

Question
62.1.3.0 (4657) If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be :
Answer
  • 030°
  • 210°
  • 330°
  • 150°

Question 185

Question
62.1.3.0 (4659) The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain this information?
Answer
  • 123 NM
  • 1230 km
  • 12.3 NM
  • 123 km

Question 186

Question
62.1.3.0 (4660) Given:Aircraft heading 160°(M),Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,Selected course on HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar:
Answer
  • behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
  • ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
  • behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
  • ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing

Question 187

Question
62.1.4.0 (4661) A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
Answer
  • 14 NM
  • 16 NM
  • 15 NM
  • 17 NM

Question 188

Question
62.1.4.0 (4666) The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
Answer
  • 108 to 118 MHz
  • 329 to 335 MHz
  • 962 to 1213 MHz
  • 962 to 1213 kHz.

Question 189

Question
62.1.4.0 (4669) A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
Answer
  • 10 MHz
  • 100 MHz
  • 100 GHz
  • 1000 MHz

Question 190

Question
62.1.4.0 (4670) Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
Answer
  • VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
  • SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniquess
  • UHF band and is a secondary radar system
  • UHF band and is a primary radar system

Question 191

Question
62.1.4.0 (4672) On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:
Answer
  • airborne equipment failure
  • the airborne receiver is conducting a range search
  • the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search
  • ground equipment failure

Question 192

Question
62.1.4.0 (4674) The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
Answer
  • reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
  • DME pulse recurrence rates are varied
  • aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies
  • DME transmits twin pulses

Question 193

Question
62.1.5.0 (4684) A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
Answer
  • 50 feet above ILS reference point
  • 200 feet above the runway threshold
  • runway surface
  • 200 feet above the inner marker

Question 194

Question
62.1.5.0 (4692) ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
Answer
  • back-scattering of antennas
  • multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane
  • ground returns ahead of the antennas
  • spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles

Question 195

Question
62.1.5.0 (4693) What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
Answer
  • white - amber - blue
  • blue - amber - white
  • amber - white - green
  • blue - green - white

Question 196

Question
62.1.5.0 (4695) An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
Answer
  • 50 FT/MIN
  • 150 FT/MIN
  • 250 FT/MIN
  • 100 FT/MIN

Question 197

Question
62.1.5.0 (4697) In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
Answer
  • VHF
  • SHF
  • UHF
  • EHF

Question 198

Question
62.1.5.0 (4698) Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display represent :
Answer
  • 0.5 degrees
  • 1.5 degrees
  • 2.0 degrees
  • 2.5 degrees

Question 199

Question
62.1.5.0 (4702) The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is approximately:
Answer
  • 800 FT/MIN
  • 850 FT/MIN
  • 700 FT/MIN
  • 670 FT/MIN

Question 200

Question
62.1.5.0 (4703) Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
Answer
  • At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centreline
  • At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the extended centreline
  • On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended centreline
  • At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdowng
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