PHASE TWO TEST

Question 1

Question

In 1989, the United States Supreme Court found that law enforcement officers’ use of force against subjects was a type of seizure, and therefore, under the Constitution had to be “objectively reasonable.” The case was Graham v. Connor, and it is one of two landmark cases in law enforcement use of force. Which amendment does law enforcement use of force mostly pertains to?

Answer

1st amendment
4th amendment
8th amendment
14th amendment

Question 2

Question

Officer Majeed responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at a gas station. When the officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant from the county. Officer Majeed attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect began actively resisting, attempting to run away. Officer Majeed performed a classroom model vertical stun on the suspect, giving the officer enough time to place handcuffs on him. What technique is this?

Answer

A dynamic application of a trained technique
A technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances
A trained technique
Deadly Force

Question 3

Question

Officer Lucky responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at a Walgreens store. When the officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant for attempted-homicide. Officer Lucky attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect became assaultive towards the officer, attempting to punch and bite him. Officer Lucky pulled out his baton and directed a strike aimed at the suspect’s elbow. The suspect ducked and the baton strike hit his head instead. What technique is this?

Answer

The up and under technique
A dynamic application of a trained technique
A technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances
A trained technique

Question 4

Question

Officer Conner responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at Walmart. When the officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant for attempted-homicide. Officer Conner attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect became assaultive towards the officer, slamming the officer on the ground. The suspect got on top of the officer and began choking him. Officer Conner was unable to get to his firearm and other equipment on his duty belt. Officer Conner began losing conscious and feared that he would soon die. Fearing for his life, Officer Conner pulled out an ink pen from his shirt pocket and directed it into the suspect eyes. What technique is this?

Answer

A technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances
A trained technique
Tactical ink pen maneuver
A dynamic application of a trained technique

Question 5

Question

This level is the best position for escorting a subject. It is also the position you will use to make contact with a driver in an approach vehicle contact. What level/position is this?

Answer

1
2
2 ½
3

Question 6

Question

Officer Robillard just graduated the police academy and is responding to his first “shots fired” call. After arriving on scene, this officer started displaying signs of anxiety, nervousness, confusion, and indecisiveness. Instead of reverting back to his training that he received from the academy, he froze. What level of awareness (Color) is this?

Answer

Yellow
Red
White
Black

Question 7

Question

When you do this type of talk, you should project a non-threatening presence and speak in a normal conversational tone. What control talk is this? Examples of this control talk:  “Hi, I’m Officer Smith, what’s your name?”  “Do you live around here?”  “Can I help you find something?”

Answer

Light Control Talk
Persuasion
Search Talk
Heavy Control Talk

Question 8

Question

Your physical presence, your tone of voice, and your words all must convey intensity and commitment. What control talk is this? Examples of this control of talk:  “Drop the knife! Drop the knife or I’ll shoot!”  “Leave now. If you do not leave, you will be arrested.”

Answer

Heavy Control Talk
Search Talk
Light Control Talk
Persuasion

Question 9

Question

This control talk is more directive. Although you are giving orders, it is assertive rather than aggressive. What control talk is this? Examples of this control talk:  “Stop right where you are.”  “Show me your hands.”  “Step out of the car.”

Answer

Persuasion
Light Control Talk
Heavy Control Talk
Search Talk

Question 10

Question

This control talk is intended to gain compliance from a subject while still maintaining a relatively non-threatening tone. What control talk is this? Examples of this control talk:  “Sir, would you mind stepping over here?”  “Ma’am, please come over here and talk to me.”  “Sir, it would be best if you went on your way now.”

Answer

Search Talk
Heavy Talk
Light Control Talk
Persuasion

Question 11

Question

What is an ECD? What does the acronym stand for?

Answer

Electronic Containment Department
Elusive Control Doppler
Electronic Control Device
Electronic Charged Device

Question 12

Question

What level should you be in to perform a Secure-the-Head Decentralization?

Answer

1
2
2 ½
3

Question 13

Question

What level should you be in to perform a Pull-In/Push-Down Decentralization?

Answer

1 (Inside)
2
2 ½
3

Question 14

Question

In this case, the U.S. Supreme Court established the standard that any law enforcement use of force must be objectively reasonable. In addition, the Court said that reasonableness should be judged under the totality of the circumstances from the perspective of a reasonable officer at the scene with similar training and experience. What case law is this?

Answer

Terry v. Ohio
Miranda v. Arizona
Graham v. Connor
Mapp v. Ohio

Question 15

Question

What does the acronym GUN stand for?

Answer

Gun, Under, Notice
Grab, Undue, Neutralize
Gun, Undue, Neutralize
Grab, Under, Notice

Question 16

Question

What position should you be in while conducting a frisk?

Answer

Level 1 (Inside)
Level 2
Level 2 ½
Level 3

Question 17

Question

Control Alternatives techniques are specifically geared toward overcoming what type of resistance?

Answer

Passive resistance
Active resistance
Both Passive and Active resistance
Deadly force

Question 18

Question

Officer Gutieirez conducted a traffic stop on a vehicle operator for speeding. After Officer Gutieirez approached the vehicle, he ordered the operator of the vehicle, Kilbey, to step out. Kilbey refused all verbal orders to step out of his vehicle; however, Kilbey is not fighting or showing any physical threat towards the officer. What type of resistance is this?

Answer

Active resistance
Passive resistance
Both Active and Passive Resistance
He’s not resisting at all

Question 19

Question

This resistance refers to behaviors that physically counteract an officer’s attempt to control a subject and which pose a risk of harm to the officer, subject, and others. Examples of this resistance include attempting to pull away from the officer’s grasp, running away, getting up after being directed to the ground, and so on. What type of resistance is this?

Answer

Active resistance
Passive resistance
Both Active and Passive Resistance
He’s not resisting at all

Question 20

Question

Under Control Alternatives, which one of the following does NOT belong?

Answer

Escort Holds
Baton
Control Devices (OC spray, Taser)
Compliance Holds

Question 21

Question

What Focused Strike technique would you use to disrupt the actions of the subject’s diaphragm, causing temporary respiratory dysfunction?

Answer

(Strong Forearm Strike in the chest area)
(Strong Hand Strike in the abdominal area)
(Reaction Forearm Strike in the chest area)
(Focus Strike in the abdominal area)

Question 22

Question

The proper way to stabilize a subject on the ground prior to handcuffing is called the _______ position.

Answer

Escort hold
Blanket the arm
Three-Point
Four-Point

Question 23

Question

You must be able to articulate that, if possible, you attempted to escalate through other modes and tactics, and that all options except deadly force were closed. What is this concept called?

Answer

Preclusion
Justification
Articulatable facts
Last chance, Last try model

Question 24

Question

If you have determined that you face a threat that meets the requirements to permit a deadly-force response, and you have decided to shoot, you must still fulfill three target requirements. Which one of the following is NOT a target requirement?

Answer

Target Acquisition
Target Picture
Target Identification
Target Isolation

Question 25

Question

The word imminent means “about to happen.” An imminent threat is an immediate threat. For a subject’s threat to be considered imminent, it must meet three criteria. Which one of the following does NOT belong.

Answer

Motivation
Intent
Weapon
Delivery System

Question 26

Question

Officer Bong is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 12 feet or greater between Officer Bong and the subject. What type of contact is this? FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 6 feet.

Answer

Intimate
Public
Social
Personal

Question 27

Question

Officer Grant is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 4 – 12 feet between Officer Grant and the subject. What type of contact is this? FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 3 - 6 feet.

Answer

Public
Personal
Intimate
Social

Question 28

Question

Officer Island is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 1.5 – 4 feet between Officer Island and the subject. What type of contact is this? FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 1 - 3 feet

Answer

Personal
Intimate
Public
Social

Question 29

Question

Officer Koscielak is talking with a subject in a Normal Setting. There is 0 – 1.5 feet between Officer Koscielak and the subject. What type of contact is this? FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 0 -2 feet.

Answer

Personal
Social
Intimate
Public

Question 30

Question

You will use this stance if the subject does not quickly cooperate, or your tactical evaluation dictates it. What stance is this?

Answer

Open Stance
Defensive Stance
Ready Stance
All the above

Question 31

Question

If the subject refuses to cooperate with your requests using persuasion and light control talk, or if the distance between you decreases further, you will move to this stance. This stance puts you in a good position in case a physical confrontation occurs. What stance is this?

Answer

Ready Stance
Open Stance
Defensive Stance
All the above

Question 32

Question

You will use this stance when initially approaching a subject and your intent is to convey a supportive, non-threatening presence. What stance is this?

Answer

Open Stance
Ready Stance
Defensive Stance
All the above

Question 33

Question

Per case law Terry V. Ohio, why would an officer conduct a frisk on a subject?

Answer

Safety concerns
Possession of narcotics and drug paraphernalia
Policy and Procedure of your law enforcement agency
Fear of weapons

Question 34

Question

In this case, an officer shot and killed a fleeing burglary suspect whom the officer believed was unarmed. The court, deciding the case in 1989, said it was not reasonable to use deadly force against an unarmed fleeing felon, unless there is “probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious physical injury to the officers or others.” What case law is this?

Answer

Tennessee v. Garner
White v. Pauly
Scott v. Harris
Graham v. Connor

Question 35

Question

Which of the following is TRUE about rifles

Answer

Rifles are too long to use indoors in tactical situations
A shouldered rifle is about the same length as an extended handgun
Rifle bullets penetrate too many walls
Officers armed with rifles are MORE likely to miss subjects than with a handgun

Question 36

Question

You stopped shooting, but the fight may not be over. Assess why the assailant disappeared from your front sight. Scan left, right, up, and down around the suspect’s last location. Maybe your gunfire caused him to fall. Maybe the subject turned away. Maybe the subject ducked down behind cover. You may have missed your assailant, or he or she may be wounded but still able to function. Assess whether continued use of deadly force is appropriate. AFTER assessing your target, and BEFORE communicating with the subject and dispatch, what “actions after combat shooting” needs to be taken?

Answer

Breathe (Autogenic Breathing)
Cover and Scan
Reload
All the above

Question 37

Question

Break your tunnel vision. Look for the perpetrator’s partners—you may be faced with multiple assailants. Broaden your initial scan of the suspect’s last known location to a full ____ degrees, and ____ degrees up and down.

Answer

Full 90 degrees, and 360 degrees up and down
Full 180 degrees, and 90 degrees up and down
Full 360 degrees, and 90 degrees up and down
Full 90 degrees, and 180 degrees up and sown

Question 38

Question

When you insert a magazine into the rifle, ensure it is in place by using a ____ technique. This technique is used to ensure that the magazine in the rifle is seated properly in the magazine well. This technique eliminates any failure to properly seat a magazine; a common user-induced malfunction.

Answer

Push-Tap
Push-Push
Push-Pull
Push-Roll

Question 39

Question

What part of the pistol should you NOT oil or lube?

Answer

The outside of the barrel
The firing pin hole
The slide rails, where the slide attaches to the receiver
The Hammer linkage or trigger bar

Question 40

Question

What part or piece of the firearm should you NOT oil or lube?

Answer

Recoil spring/rod assembly
The pistol magazines
The Hammer linkage or trigger bar
The outside of the barrel

Question 41

Question

If you fire a number of rounds during a gunfight and there is a lull (pause or break) in the action, you may decide to reload so you have a full magazine in your weapon if the gunfight resumes. There is a round still in the chamber. This type of reload usually occurs while behind cover. What type of reload is this?

Answer

In-Battery Reload
Out-Of-Battery Reload
Mid-Battery Reload
Malfunction

Question 42

Question

This type of reload occurs after all of the remaining rounds from your magazine and chamber have been fired. After shooting off the last round from the magazine and pistol, the slide stop automatically activates, preventing the slide from closing. The picture below is an image of how a pistol looks after firing the last round from the magazine and pistol (Be advised: The state test will NOT show an image. This is for studying purposes only). What reload type is this?

Answer

Malfunction
In-Battery Reload
Mid-Battery Reload
Out-Of-Battery Reload

Question 43

Question

For a semi-automatic pistol to fire repeatedly, four actions must take place. Which one of the following is NOT apart of the firing cycle?

Answer

Fire
Extract
Explosion
Eject
Feed

Question 44

Question

How many number of officers are required to conduct a high-risk contact properly?

Answer

Question 45

Question

In a 5 – 4 decision, the United States Supreme Court agreed that the search incident to arrest doctrine of automobiles is not an automatic police entitlement and should only be applied when a defendant is still in a position to lunge into the passenger compartment or when the officer reasonably believes that the vehicle has evidence supporting the arrest. Which case law is this?

Answer

Arizona v. Gant
Carrol v. U.S
Tennessee V. Garner
Graham v. Connor

Question 46

Question

In an approach vehicle contact, how far away should you park your squad behind the subject vehicle?

Answer

Approximately 5 – 10 feet
Approximately 10 – 15 feet
Approximately 15 – 20 feet
Approximately 20 – 25 feet

Question 47

Question

In a high-risk traffic stop, how far away should you and other officers position the squads from the subject’s vehicle?

Answer

Approximately 15 feet
Approximately 25 feet
Approximately 50 feet
Approximately 100 feet

Question 48

Question

When making contact with the driver of the vehicle, what Basic Contact Model should you follow that you learned in Professional Communication Skills?

Answer

Opening Information-Gathering Resolution (OIR)
Disturbance Resolution Model
Tactical Deployment
Light Control Talk

Question 49

Question

If you have already decided what action you are going to take, you should let the driver know at this time. For example, Officer Ward have decided to issue a citation for a red signal violation. What step of OIR is this? Example: “Sir, I will be issuing you a citation. Please wait here in your car and I’ll be back with you as soon as I’ve finished the paperwork.”

Answer

Opening
Information-Gathering
Resolution
All the above

Question 50

Question

In the case of a vehicle contact, the beginning consists of you identifying yourself and your agency and explaining the reason for the stop. What step of OIR is this? Example: “Good afternoon, Sir. I’m Officer Domagalski of the Milwaukee Police Department. I stopped you because I saw your vehicle go through a red light at Main and First Street

Answer

Opening
Information-Gathering
Resolution
All the above

Question 51

Question

In this phase of the contact, you ask questions to understand the context of the behavior that prompted your stop, to identify the individuals involved, and to fill in any other information you need to get. For a vehicle contact, give the driver the opportunity to explain his or her actions. What step in OIR is this? Example: “Sir, was there some reason that you didn’t stop for that red light?”

Answer

Opening
Information-Gathering
Resolution
All the above

Question 52

Question

In this position, the squad car is angled slightly toward the roadway rather than being parallel to the subject vehicle. The angle places a portion of the car (and engine block) between the officer and the subject vehicle. One disadvantage of this position is that the squad car’s headlights may blind oncoming drivers, particularly at night, and especially if the headlights flash between high and low beams. At the same time because the squad car is angled, its emergency lights are less visible from the rear and its headlights and take-down lights are less able to illuminate the subject vehicle. What position is this?

Answer

Offset
Curve
In-Line
Angle-Left

Question 53

Question

In this position, the subject vehicle is stopped on the shoulder or next to the curb, and the squad car is adjusted to the left so that the left rear corner of the subject vehicle is even with the center of the squad. The purpose for this position rather than parking directly behind the subject vehicle is to provide the officer with a safety lane for walking up to and contacting the driver, if the officer chooses the left-hand approach. The disadvantage of this position is that the squad car does protrude into the traffic lane. That either makes the lane unusable by other traffic, or, if the lane is wide enough, may encourage other traffic to “squeeze by” putting the officer at risk of injury. What position is this?

Answer

Offset
In-Line
Adjusted-Right
Angle-Left

Question 54

Question

In this position, the squad car is positioned directly behind the subject vehicle. This position is used only when conditions preclude using one of the preferred positions. An example might be a high-traffic city street at rush hour, when either of the preferred positions would increase congestion by blocking a lane. This position provides no safety lane for the officer using a driver side approach—a passenger side approach. What position is this?

Answer

Straight-Aligned
Angled-Left
Offset
In-Line

Question 55

Question

If you have a vehicle with multiple subjects in it, you might choose to interview the driver away from the vehicle to minimize complications from the passengers, or pets. Or if you have stopped a vehicle for an investigative (“Terry”) stop, you may wish to wait for back-up before contacting the driver, since you suspect him or her of criminal activity. What contact is this?

Answer

High-Risk Contact
Non-Approach Contact
Approach Contact
All of the above

Question 56

Question

Most vehicle contacts are this type of contact, meaning that the officer gets out of his or her squad car and walks up to the subject vehicle to talk to the driver. This contact is used when your threat assessment suggests that it would be safe. What contact is this?

Answer

Non-Approach Contact
Approach Contact
High-Risk Contact
All the above

Question 57

Question

In this contact, you do not approach the vehicle until all subjects have been ordered out—at gunpoint—and secured. These contacts require multiple officers functioning in a coordinated effort. Certainly, some situations (a vehicle matching the description of the getaway car for armed robbers who just robbed a bank and shot a bank teller) automatically demand to be handled as this contact. What contact is this?

Answer

Approach Contact
Non-Approach Contact
High-Risk Contact
All the above

Question 58

Question

While conducting a traffic stop, what direction/position should your front wheels be turned?

Answer

Straight-Forward
Right
Doesn’t matter
Left

Question 59

Question

Where should placards be located on the transporting vehicle?

Answer

The rear of the tanker or trailer
The front of the vehicle, near the driver and passenger door
On the top of the vehicle
Displayed on both sides and ends of the transport vehicle

Question 60

Question

Which one of the following is the most desirable for terrorists to attack to shock the human/public coconscious?

Answer

School
Government facility
Sports arena/stadium
Airport

Question 61

Question

This exposure occurs when hazardous chemicals contact the skin and pass into muscle tissue. In many cases, you are not even aware that you have been exposed. This type of exposure can take time and not even be evident until days or weeks after the event. The best defense to this type of exposure is to prevent skin contact with hazardous materials. What exposure is this?

Answer

Inhalation
Contact
Absorption
Ingestion

Question 62

Question

This exposure will cause damage to the skin as it makes its way into your body. A common chemical, which will damage the skin, muscles and organs, is Sulfuric Acid. What exposure is this?

Answer

Contact
Absorption
Injection
Inhalation

Question 63

Question

This exposure occurs when hazardous chemicals are eaten or swallowed. Unintentional or accidental consumption occurs when good work practices are not followed, including not washing hands after having been exposed to a hazardous material or by touching your mouth/lips with a contaminated hand/gloved hand during an incident. What exposure is this?

Answer

Injection
Ingestion
Inhalation
Contact

Question 64

Question

This exposure is the most common form of chemical exposure and can immobilize a subject quickly. This exposure occurs in atmospheres contaminated with a hazardous chemical vapor or dust. What exposure is this?

Answer

Ingestion
Inhalation
Absorption
Contact

Question 65

Question

This exposure occur when a sharp object containing or contaminated with a hazardous chemical that penetrates the skin. Hypodermic syringes are the most common source of risks. This exposure also occurs when cuts are caused by broken glass and other "sharps" contaminated with hazardous chemicals. The object "injects" the contamination as it cuts. What exposure is this?

Answer

Inhalation
Contact
Injection
Ingestion

Question 66

Question

When placards are required to be displayed on a vehicle or freight container transporting hazardous materials, how many placards should be displayed?

Answer

2 placards
4 placards
6 placards
8 placards

Question 67

Question

Terrorists frequently use these devices as one of their most common weapons. These devices are popular because they are cheap and easy to produce, adaptable to a variety of uses, and difficult to detect and trace after the event. What category of mass destruction is this?

Answer

Bombing or explosions
Chemical threats
Biological threats
Nuclear Blast

Question 68

Question

These agents are organisms or toxins that can kill or incapacitate people, livestock, and crops. The three basic groups of these agents are bacteria, viruses, and toxins. Many of these agents break down quickly when exposed to sunlight and other environmental factors, but others, such as anthrax spore, are very long lived. What category of mass destruction is this?

Answer

Radiological Dispersion Device (RDD)
Bombing or explosions
Chemical threats
Biological threats

Question 69

Question

These agents are poisonous vapors, aerosols, liquids, and solids that have toxic effects on people, animals, or plants. They can be released by bombs or sprayed from aircraft, boats, and vehicles. They can be used as a liquid to create a hazard to people and the environment. Some agents may be odorless and tasteless. They can have an immediate effect (a few seconds to a few minutes) or a delayed effect (2 to 48 hours). While potentially lethal, these agents are difficult to deliver in lethal concentrations. Outdoors, the agents often dissipate rapidly. These agents also are difficult to produce and deliver. What category of mass destruction is this?

Answer

Nuclear Blast
Radiological Dispersion Device (RDD)
Chemical blast
Biological threats

Question 70

Question

This category of mass destruction is an explosion with intense light and heat, a damaging pressure wave, and widespread radioactive material that can contaminate the air, water, and ground surfaces for miles around. The effects of all these devices include blinding light, intense heat (thermal radiation), initial nuclear radiation, blast, fires started by the heat pulse, and secondary fires caused by the destruction. What category of mass destruction is this?

Answer

Radiological Dispersion Device (RDD)
Nuclear blast
Biological threats
Chemical threats

Question 71

Question

Terrorist use of this device – often called a “dirty nuke” or “dirty bomb” – is considered far more likely than use of a nuclear explosive device. This device combines a conventional explosive device with radioactive material. It is designed to scatter dangerous and sub-lethal amounts of radioactive material over a general area. These devices appeal to terrorists because they require limited technical knowledge to build and deploy compared to a nuclear device. What category of mass destruction is this?

Answer

Chemical threats
Biological threats
Nuclear blast
Radiological Dispersion Device (RDD)

Question 72

Question

As a First Responder, you should always get ____ and _____ from chemicals. Wind direction and terrain are some key officer safety considerations when arriving on scene at a hazardous materials incident.

Answer

Downhill and upwind
Uphill and upwind
Uphill and downwind
Downhill and downwind

Question 73

Question

This is where the bulk of your driving will take place. You may be patrolling a certain geographic area responding to non-emergency calls or even heading back into the station at the end of your shift. In many ways, this type of driving is similar to the driving you do off duty—but in other ways it is very different. You must be continually alert to your environment and pay attention to the surrounding area as well as the other drivers on the road with you. What law enforcement driving type is this?

Answer

Normal Patrol Operation
Pursuits
Emergency Response
All the above

Question 74

Question

This type of driving refers to the sort of driving you will do when responding to situations in which persons or property are in danger. These can include medical emergencies, assaults, motor vehicle accidents with injuries, fires, and so on. In these situations, you need to get to the scene as quickly as possible but without creating a bigger danger in doing so. You may need to use your emergency lights and siren and disregard certain traffic laws—for example, by exceeding the speed limit. What law enforcement driving type is this?

Answer

Pursuits
Emergency Response
Normal Patrol Operation
All the above

Question 75

Question

This type of driving represents one of the most dangerous tasks in law enforcement. Both the officer and the fleeing suspect are at risk just from the speeds at which they are driving. In addition, there may be other drivers or pedestrians along the way, and other responding officers who must coordinate their actions with the primary officer’s. What law enforcement driving type is this?

Answer

Emergency Response
Pursuits
Normal Patrol Operation
All the above

Question 76

Question

Which of following is true about Pursuit as it relates to law enforcement?

Answer

The pursuing officer is on duty in an authorized law enforcement vehicle, making him or her recognizable as a law enforcement officer
The driver of the fleeing vehicle is aware of the officer's attempt to stop him or her;
The driver is resisting apprehension, and is maintaining or increasing his or her speed
All the above

Question 77

Question

For law enforcement driving, the best position is one that permits you to make rapid changes in direction when needed, is not tiring, and allows easy access to vehicle controls and to your police radio. This hand position is the recommended position for all law enforcement driving (except for backing). Other methods work in some situations, but this hand position works in all conditions, from patrol driving to emergency operation. What hand position is this?

Answer

9 o’clock / 3 o’clock concept
10 o’clock / 2 o’clock concept
12 o’clock concept
8 o’clock concept

Question 78

Question

While reversing/backing up in a vehicle, what hand position should you use?

Answer

10 o’clock / 2 o’clock concept
8 o’clock concept
9 o’clock / 3 o’clock
12 o’clock concept

Question 79

Question

If your vehicle runs off the edge of the roadway, you must be able to perform an off-road recovery while not panicking. Which of the following is NOT true?

Answer

When your vehicle has slowed, gently apply the brakes and pull off the road.
Let off the gas
Immediately press on the breaks to stop while off road
Do not apply the brakes

Question 80

Question

Whether non-emergency driving, emergency driving, or in a pursuit, law enforcement officers must show “The degree of care that a reasonably careful person, performing similar duties, and acting under similar circumstances would show.” If this is not exercised for the safety of others, you can be liable under both civil and criminal law. What is this called?

Answer

Privileged
Due Regard
Community Care Law
Safe Regard Act 10

Question 81

Question

The exception to the requirement of lights and siren during emergency response is the so-called Silent Emergency. A Silent Emergency is a situation in which the officer is either obtaining evidence of a speed violation or responding to a call in which there is a need to avoid alerting a suspect to the officer’s presence. What are some examples of when a Silent Emergency might be needed?

Answer

Responding to a Burglary in Progress
Domestic Violence subject armed with a firearm
Knowledge of the officer’s presence may cause the suspected violator to evade apprehension
All the above

Question 82

Question

Generally, an agency establishes this policy when it is not set up to engage in high-speed pursuits. An agency with a small number of personnel, limited jurisdiction (for example, campus police), and/or lack of emergency-equipped vehicles may not permit its officers to take part in high-speed pursuits. What policy is this?

Answer

Permissive pursuit policy
Discretionary pursuit policy
Restrictive policy
No pursuit policy

Question 83

Question

This policy generally encourages police officers to conduct pursuits in a safe and efficient manner. However, this policy offers little or vague guidance to an agency’s officers. What policy is this?

Answer

Restrictive policy
No pursuit policy
Permissive policy
Discretionary policy

Question 84

Question

This policy severely limits police officers’ discretion in pursuits. It typically calls for the police to initiate or continue a pursuit only in felony circumstances or when a suspect presents a significant and immediate danger to the public. Under this type of policy, a police officer would be expected to pursue a murderer, rapist, robber, or other wanted felon who chose to flee. Under this policy, police typically would not pursue a traffic violator, someone in possession of illicit drugs, or someone involved in a nonviolent crime unless that person represented a tremendous danger to the general public and the person’s identification was unknown (for example, a OWI suspect who takes off after a vehicle vs. pedestrian crash). What policy is this?

Answer

Restrictive policy
No pursuit policy
Discretionary policy
Permissive policy

Question 85

Question

This policy provides specific guidelines to officers in departments that grant them authority to initiate and continue pursuits. The overriding goal of this type of policy seeks to balance the needs for the police to apprehend law violators with the requirement that police not unduly jeopardize public safety. What policy is this?

Answer

No pursuit policy
Discretionary policy
Permissive policy
Restrictive policy

Question 86

Question

Who can terminate a pursuit?

Answer

The officer conducting the pursuit
The supervisor
Both, the officer conducting the pursuit and the supervisor
All three; the officer conducting the pursuit, the supervisor, and the dispatcher

Question 87

Question

he goal of a pursuit is to pace the fleeing vehicle, not overtake it. Unless the pursuit is terminated before it concludes, you will simply pace the vehicle until……...

Answer

The suspect decides to stop
The suspect is induced or forced to stop
The suspect crashes
All the above

Question 88

Question

Which of the following situations should you NOT perform a moving roadblock (Boxing in)?

Answer

On an intoxicated driver who is slowly deviating between lanes at slow speeds
A fleeing driver who displays a firearm
An elderly driver who is confused, loss and who is suffering from Alzheimer’s disease
None of the above

Question 89

Question

You are approaching a curve, what action should you take?

Answer

Slow down before entering a turn
Slow down during the turn
Slow down after the turn
Accelerate and snap-turn during a turn

Question 90

Question

What should you aim for while approaching a curve? What is the correct term?

Answer

The angle of the curve
The point of the curve
The line of the curve
The apex of the curve

Question 91

Question

Whatever distance is required to stop the vehicle at 30 mph, it will take __ times as much distance to stop at 60 mph.

Answer

Question 92

Question

In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Tire Deflation Devices, Channelization and Barricades tactics” fall under?

Answer

Protective Alternatives
Deadly Force
Control Alternatives
All the above

Question 93

Question

In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Ramming and a Roadblock (no escape route)” fall under?

Answer

Control Alternatives
Dialogue
Protective Alternatives
Deadly Force

Question 94

Question

In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Moving Roadblock (boxing-In) and Roadblock (with escape route)” fall under?

Answer

Protective Alternatives
Deadly Force
Presence
Control Alternatives

Question 95

Question

When deciding to change lanes, there should always be a cushion of space in front of your vehicle in your present lane. Because of the impending lane change, your attention will be momentarily diverted, and the more space you have, the more reaction time you have. Therefore, you should have AT LEAST ___ seconds of space when deciding to change lanes?

Answer

4 seconds
6 seconds
8 seconds
12 seconds

Question 96

Question

While performing a moving roadblock (Boxing in) on an intoxicated subject so that he can stop or slow down his vehicle, the suspect displays a firearm. In this technique, the suspect’s vehicle is surrounded by three squad cars—one in front, one in back, and one to the side, just behind the driver door (Somewhat in a 2 ½ position). Out of the three squads, which officer is more in an undesirable position?

Answer

The officer to the side, just behind the suspect’s door
The officer in the front
The officer in the back
None of the above

Question 97

Question

During a vehicle inspection, what parts should you check at the beginning of your shift?

Answer

Tires and wheels
Exterior (body, chassis, engine)
Trunk and passenger compartment
All the above

Question 98

Question

While operating your squad car, what is the single most important choice you can make to ensure you have the appropriate amount of reaction time?

Answer

Avoid Multi-tasking
Avoid utilizing the radio while approaching corners
Being able to quickly switch from Normal patrol to Emergency Patrol in a timely manner
Ensure to always maintain a cushion of space around your squad

Question 99

Question

In Defensive and Arrest Tactics training, one of the basic principles is that the officer should always maintain a position of advantage, which means that the officer has a better ability to control the suspect. The same principle applies to pursuit driving. What position should you be in behind the suspect’s vehicle while in pursuit?

Answer

Little to the left
Far left
Little to the Right
In-lined and adjacent behind the suspect’s vehicle

Question 100

Question

Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this? - a laceration that requires stitches, staples, or a tissue adhesive; - any fracture of a bone; - a broken nose; - a burn; - a petechia [minute colored spot that appears on skin as the result of localized hemorrhage or rupture of blood vessel/capillary]; - a temporary loss of consciousness, sight or hearing; - a concussion; or - a loss or fracture of a tooth

Answer

Great bodily harm
Substantial bodily harm
Bodily Harm
None of the above

Question 101

Question

Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this? - creates a substantial risk of death, or - causes serious permanent disfigurement, or - causes a permanent or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ, or - other serious bodily injury

Answer

Great bodily harm
Bodily harm
Substantial bodily harm
None of the above

Question 102

Question

Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this? - physical pain or injury, illness, or any impairment of physical

Answer

Substantial bodily harm
Bodily harm
Great bodily harm
None of the above

Question 103

Question

Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this? - physical pain or injury - illness

Answer

Battery
Aggravated Battery
Substantial Battery
None of the above

Question 104

Question

Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this? - substantial risk of death - serious permanent disfigurement - permanent or protracted loss of function of any bodily member or organ - other serious bodily injury

Answer

Substantial Battery
Battery
Aggravated Battery
None of the above

Question 105

Question

Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this? - a laceration requiring stitches, staples, tissue adhesive - any fracture of a bone - broken nose -burn -temporary loss of consciousness, sight or hearing -concussion -loss or fracture of a tooth

Answer

Aggravated Battery
Battery
Substantial Battery
None of the above

Question 106

Question

For the penalties of a misdemeanor Retail Theft to be increased to a felony, how much must the value of the stolen property be worth?

Answer

More than $500
More than $1,000
More than $2,500
More than $5,000

Question 107

Question

Schliem pick-pocketed a woman while she was walking down the street. The woman was unaware of the stolen items missing from her pocket until she arrived home. The woman wasn’t injured or physically harmed. What crime is this?

Answer

Armed Robbery
Theft
Robbery
None of the above

Question 108

Question

Nielsen observed another individual standing on the bus stop with the newest iPhone in his hand. Nielsen approached the individual and punched him with a closed fist, while also taking the individual’s phone. What crime is this?

Answer

Theft
Robbery
Armed robbery
None of the above

Question 109

Question

Nash approached an individual with his handgun out pointed at the individual, while stating, “You already know what it is, give me everything!” The individual handed everything in his pockets over to Nash. What crime is this?

Answer

Armed robbery
Theft
Robbery
None of the above

Question 110

Question

Trash contents in a garbage can that’s located by the side of the house is considered what?

Answer

Abandoned property
Open field
Plain view
Curtilage

Question 111

Question

Trash contents in a garbage can that’s located outside the fence and at the curb is considered what?

Answer

Plain view
Curtilage
Abandoned property
Open view

Question 112

Question

Trash contents in a garbage can located in the alleyway by a detached garage is considered what? The detached garage can is not in close proximity of the house.

Answer

Abandoned property
Open view
Curtilage
Open field

Question 113

Question

A vin number on a vehicle that’s parked on the street is considered what?

Answer

Open fields
Open view
Fly overs
Plain view

Question 114

Question

Which of the following is considered Forcible Entry?

Answer

Kicking down a door
Turning the knob of a closed, unlocked door
Picking a lock of a closed or locked door
All the above

Question 115

Question

Within how many days does a search warrant have to be executed and served after being signed by the Assistant District Attorney and Judge?

Answer

Within 7 days, counting holidays and weekends
Within 7 days, excluding holidays and weekends
Within 5 days, counting holidays and weekends
Within 5 days, excluding holidays and weekends

Question 116

Question

After the execution of a search warrant, it should be returned to the judge within how many hours?

Answer

Within 72 hours, counting holidays and weekends
Within 72 hours, excluding holidays and weekends
Within 48 hours, counting holidays and weekends
Within 48 hours, excluding holidays and weekends

Question 117

Question

The constitution requires that in most circumstances, an officer must knock and announce before seeking to execute a search warrant. However, there are a few exceptions to the “knock and announce” requirement. Which of the following is/are an exception(s)?

Answer

No-knock authorization granted and signed by the judge
When an officer upon arrival at the scene reasonably believes that knocking and announcing will create a strong likelihood of the destruction of evidences or danger to the officers or others.
Both, A and B
None of the above

Question 118

Question

A stolen piano which was listed on the search warrant was found immediately as officers entered the house. However, officers continued to go through the rest of the house searching for other potential contraband. Upstairs in the attic, officers found 100 pounds of cocaine. Is this cocaine evidence admissible in court?

Answer

Yes, according to the good faith exception
Yes, maybe the other officers wasn’t aware of the very huge piano
Yes, because regardless of the situation, cocaine is still illegal so it doesn’t matter
No, the search must be immediately terminated when the items named in the warrant are found

Question 119

Question

If impounded, why might an inventory search of a suspect’s vehicle be a smart idea?

Answer

It protects the officer from claims of theft
It protects the automobile owner’s property
It protects the integrity of the impounded company and area
All the above

Question 120

Question

The authority to open closed containers found within the car is dependent upon whether the department has a specific policy as to closed containers in inventory searches. The policy doesn’t necessarily need to be in writing, although this is certainly preferable, but the policy must be uniformly and consistently applied by all members of the department. In the absence of such a policy, there is no authority to open a closed container in an inventory search. If it is necessary to go into the closed container, and there is no policy permitting this extension of the scope of the inventory, what should be obtained?

Answer

A search warrant
The supervisor’s permission
Reasonable suspicion
None of the above

Question 121

Question

Which one of the following is NOT true about body cavity searches?

Answer

A physician can conduct a body search
A physician’s assistant can conduct a body search
The arresting officer can conduct a body search
A registered nurse can conduct a body search

Question 122

Question

Which one of the following is NOT true about strip searches?

Answer

The person conducting the search has obtained the prior written permission of the chief, sheriff or law enforcement administrator of the jurisdiction where the person is detained
The person conducting the search is not required to be of the same sex as the detainee
The search shall not be reproduced through a visual or sound recording
The detainee shall not be exposed to the view of any person not conducting the search

Question 123

Question

This category of EDP’s includes people who are chronically ill, meaning they have a mental disorder all the time. Typically, this category of EDP’s cannot function while being off of their medication. Which type is this?

Answer

Short-Term EDP’s
Chemical Abusers
Long-Terms EDP’s
None of the above

Question 124

Question

This category of EDP’s includes people who abuse alcohol or other drugs, or both. This category includes chronic abusers as well as those who are temporary under the influence of alcohol or another drug. This category also includes people who are withdrawing from alcohol or other drugs. Which type is this?

Answer

Chemical Abusers
Long-Term EDP’s
Short-Term EDP’s
None of the above

Question 125

Question

This category of EDP’s includes people who are going through an acute mental or emotional crisis, or who are simply very upset for some reason. Such people may be normally rational, but they have been pushed to the limits of their coping abilities by events or circumstances. Generally, the crisis period only lasts for a relatively short time. Which type is this?

Answer

Long-Term EDP’s
Short-Term EDP’s
Chemical Abusers
None of the above

Question 126

Question

The person becomes temporarily out-of-control. He or she may scream, yell or curse, or may wave arms or stamp feet. In this state, a person may become assaultive. Which stage of the crisis cycle is this?

Answer

Escalation
Stimulation
Normal State
Crisis State

Question 127

Question

Following the crisis, the person may drop below their normal level of stimulation. This is more likely if the crisis phase was prolonged and/or physical. Typically a person in this stage is quiet, tired and/or withdrawn, and may express regret about his or her actions, include crying. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

Answer

Stabilization (return to normalcy)
De-escalation
Normal Sate
Post-Crisis Drain or Depletion

Question 128

Question

There is no crisis yet. The person’s emotional state and mental abilities are at regular levels. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

Answer

Crisis State
Stimulation
Normal State
Stabilization (return to normalcy)

Question 129

Question

The person shows obvious signs of distress, including observable physical changes and changes in behaviors. Some examples of these include reddening of the face, tensing of muscles (clenched jaw, clenched fists), talking more or louder, and sometimes becoming quieter or more withdrawn. Also, there may be increased activity, such as pacing or rocking. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

Answer

Escalation
Stimulation
Crisis State
Post-Crisis Drain or Depletion

Question 130

Question

During this stage, the person is back to normal behavior and is once again under control. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

Answer

De-escalation
Stabilization (return to normalcy)
Post-Crisis Drain or Depletion
Normal State

Question 131

Question

In this phase, there is a gradual decrease in the crisis behaviors. The person remains tense, but is more in control. If provoked, however, the person can go back into crisis. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

Answer

De-escalation
Escalation
Stabilization (return to normalcy)
Stimulation

Question 132

Question

Something happens to cause the person to become excited, upset, active or physically uncomfortable. The cause can be external (something someone said or did, or an environmental factor such as heat, cold or crowed conditions) or internal (physical illness or injury, pain, emotional reaction, or mental illness). What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

Answer

Crisis State
Normal State
Stabilization
Stimulation

Question 133

Question

The key characteristic of this form of mental illness is mood swings, from depression to mania—from a “low” to a “high.” This illness was previously known as “manic-depressive disorder.” There is, however, wide variation of symptoms between different people with this disorder. Some people have great mood swings, going from extreme manic periods to the depths of depression. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?

Answer

Bipolar
Depression
Anxiety
Schizophrenia

Question 134

Question

Another major category of “severe and persistent” mental illness is thought disorders—diseases in which the predominant factor is a disturbance of thinking, rather than primarily of mood. Some of the main symptoms are delusions, hallucinations, visual hallucinations, disordered thinking and speech, unusual realities, and paranoia. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?

Answer

Anxiety
Bipolar
Schizophrenia
Depression

Question 135

Question

This disorder is a normal emotion that everyone experiences at one time or another, usually in response to a realistic situation or concern. Feelings of this disorder are, in fact, often a good thing because such feelings motivate us to take positive actions—such as preparing for a test or a presentation or some other event about which we feel anxious. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?

Answer

Schizophrenia
Anxiety
Depression
Bipolar

Question 136

Question

This disorder refers to an illness, a disorder of the brain in which a change in the chemical balance of the brain causes serious symptoms. Some common symptoms are deep feelings of helplessness and hopelessness, thoughts and feelings of guilt and self-blaming, diminished feelings of self-worth, lack of energy or ability to do normal activities, etc. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?

Answer

Bipolar
Schizophrenia
Depression
Anxiety

Question 137

Question

When responding to a person who has schizophrenia or another form of a “thought disorder”, which one of the following is NOT true?

Answer

Try to use a passive, friendly and low-key approach
Maintain proper distances, and if possible, allow people to feel that they have an escape route
Trick the person into thinking that you also hear and see the same hallucinations as he or she does, in order to build rapport
Do not argue with him or her or tell the person that their perceptions are not real

Question 138

Question

What requirements are needed for a person to meet the statutory definition of an “incapacitated by alcohol”?

Answer

Unconscious
Cannot make rational decisions
Mental or physical functioning is substantially impaired by the use of alcohol
A or B
B or C

Question 139

Question

In responding to a person who has or may have an intellectual disability or other developmental disability, which of the following would you NOT do?

Answer

Treat the person with respect
Keep things simple
Touch them reassuringly
Be patient

Question 140

Question

Domestic violence occurs in intimate relationships. Which one of the following is NOT included as an intimate relationship?

Answer

Those who currently reside or formerly resided together, such as roommates and household members
A neighbor that you’ve known for 10 plus years
Current or former spouses, partners, and significant others, including boyfriend/girlfriends, and including gay, lesbian, transgender, and bisexual relationships
Those who have or share a child in common, or created a child in common

Question 141

Question

Following a domestic violence crime, within how many days should it be reported to authorities?

Answer

14 days
28 days
60 days
90 days

Question 142

Question

Which of the following requires a MANDATORY arrested if violated?

Answer

Domestic abuse retraining order
Child abuse restraining order
Individual at risk restraining order and harassment retraining order
All the above

Question 143

Question

Immediately following a domestic violence arrest, how many hours is the no-contact order?

Answer

12 hours
48 hours
72 hours
96 hours

Question 144

Question

After responding to a shooting with a suspect armed with a rifle, you observed a wounded blood-covered victim on the front porch of a house. However, the armed suspect is in that same house and his immediate location is unknown. What is the first priority?

Answer

Rescue the wounded victim and perform triage
Stopping the threat
Notifying a negotiating officer
Notifying the Chief of Police/Sheriff and media

Question 145

Question

What is an officer’s first priority when responding to a high threat environment, such as an active shooter?

Answer

To render aid to those who are wounded
To search for causalities
To stop an ongoing threat of death or great bodily harm
None of the above

Question 146

Question

This zone is unlikely, but not impossible that danger still exists. For example, if law enforcement contains or stops one active shooter, but has not thoroughly searched the building, another shooter could still be present. Generally, only law enforcement officers or those escorted by law enforcement officers should enter this zone. What zone is this?

Answer

Warm zone
Hot zone
Cold zone
None of the above

Question 147

Question

This zone is an area with no known hazards. For example, EMS might establish a casualty collection point inside this zone, where they can treat, load, and transport casualties without interference. What zone is this?

Answer

Hot zone
Cold zone
Warm zone
None of the above

Question 148

Question

This zone is a dangerous location where anyone present is at risk of harm. This zone is the immediate area and location of a subject. What zone is this?

Answer

Hot zone
Warm zone
Cold zone
All the above

Question 149

Question

This phase of care occurs when you are inside the “warm zone.” For example, you might have responded to a “shots fired” call in a business, and other officers have contained the suspect in another room. You have cover and concealment from the only known threat, but the building has not been thoroughly searched. During this phase of care, you can render additional medical care to yourself or others. What phase of care is this?

Answer

Direct threat care
Tactical Evaluation
Indirect threat care
None of the above

Question 150

Question

This phase of care occurs when you are inside the “hot zone” and the threat is in close proximity to you. For example, you might be responding to a “shots fired” call inside a building, where the location of the shooter is unknown. Because of the ongoing danger, your primary objective must be stopping the threat. If possible, direct the casualty to move to you or another location of relative safety, and/or to treat himself/herself. What phase of care is this?

Answer

Indirect threat care
Direct threat care
Tactical Evaluation
None of the above

Question 151

Question

During this phase of care, you will provide rapid, secure extraction from the “hot zone” to EMS in the “cold zone,” or extraction directly to an appropriate medical facility. As always, you will continue to maintain officer safety by addressing any suspect threats to life, and by applying and maintaining appropriate medical interventions. What phase of care is this?

Answer

Direct threat care
Tactical Evaluation
Indirect threat care
None of the above

Question 152

Question

After responding to an active shooter at a high school, which is a high threat situation, you observed two causalities located in a classroom. One of the subjects appears to be dead. The other casualty is wounded but conscious. This person can talk and move. Between the two, which causality is more of a priority at this time, in this particular situation?

Answer

The subject that appears to be dead, since he’s in worse condition
The wounded but conscious subject; you can also ask if he can self-rescue
They have the same priority
All the above

Question 153

Question

How should you apply a tourniquet on an extremity?

Answer

"Low or die” or at least 2 – 3 inches proximal to the injury
Apply it directly on the extremity
Slightly loose so that it doesn’t cause too much pain on the injured person
“High or die” or at least 2 – 3 inches proximal to the injury

Question 154

Question

The shooter has been shot by responding officers. It is unclear whether there are any more threats. The Tactical team is now clearing the building room by room, level by level. In the meantime, you’re in a secured room with casualties, some that have been injured. What should you do?

Answer

Perform Triage
Wait until the tactical team clears the whole building , and then wait for EMS
Tell the causalities to hang on
Tell the casualties to run outside to safety

Question 155

Question

While metering/slicing the pie during room clearing, how should your eyes and your gun be?

Answer

Eyes around the corner first and then your gun follows
Your gun around the corner first and then your eyes next
Your eyes and gun should move at the same time; 3rd eye
It’s the officer’s discretion what to use

Question 156

Question

This technique is designed to gain rapid control over a structure to rescue hostages or arrest suspects before they can arm themselves. These types of entry techniques are not without risk—they depend on speed and surprise and do not permit officers as much time to identify risks and clear all angles. What search technique is this?

Answer

Dynamic entry
Combat entry
Methodical searches
Swat team technique

Question 157

Question

This search combines “slicing the pie” with good communication with your partner(s). You and your partner “slice” the building’s angles to locate any suspects inside. Move together, slowly and thoroughly. One officer slices new areas while the other partner covers angles the first officer cannot observe. What search technique is this?

Answer

Slip and Slide technique
Up and under entry
Methodical searches
Dynamic entry

Question 158

Question

In about half of all active shooter incidents, the attack ends before law enforcement even arrives. Which one of the following is the reason why active shooter incidents end before law enforcement even arrives?

Answer

The perpetrator commits suicide
The perpetrator leaves
The perpetrator is stopped by victims
All the above

Question 159

Question

When faced with an active shooter, the most prevalent advice for the general public suggests that victims do what?

Answer

Run
Hide
Fight
All of the above

Question 160

Question

The guiding principles of every active shooter response should be what?

Answer

Stop the killing
Save the wounded
Find weapons
A and B

Question 161

Question

During the mediation process, what should you use to show good listening skills and to obtain clarification?

Answer

Write down notes
Use paraphrasing
Ask the subject to repeat everything he said to make sure
None of the above

Question 162

Question

What is the next step of the mediation process after person #1 gets finished telling his/her story?

Answer

The disputants then speak directly to each other, giving their side and indication how they would like to see the situation resolved
Go into in arbitration
Person #2 gets his or her turn to speak to you (the mediator) without interruption
None of the above

Question 163

Question

During crisis intervention, what are some strategies that you can use to try and get the person’s attention?

Answer

Come into the person’s line of sight while not standing directly in front of the subject
Avoid crowding the subject
Remove the person from the scene of the crisis, if possible
All the above

Question 164

Question

How many people should there be when delivering a death notification?

Answer

Question 165

Question

What should you NOT refer the person killed as?

Answer

The body
His or her legal name
A and B
None of the above

Question 166

Question

Which of the following should you NOT do while giving a death notification?

Answer

Use words that’s NOT plain language in order to soften the blow to the survivors
If that one person/survivor was notified is home alone, leave them home alone after you delivered the notification
Send and receive death notification information over the police radio
All the above

Question 167

Question

For the Implied Consent law to apply, what must first happen to the driver?

Answer

Driver must first be informed of his Miranda rights
Driver must first be given a citation
Driver must first be arrested for an OWI
Driver must first be involved in a serious or fatal car crash

Question 168

Question

Which one of the following is FALSE?

Answer

The driver has the right to request for an attorney prior to taking a chemical/blood test
If a driver refuses a chemical/blood test after being arrested, his or her license will be revoked, followed by other administrative penalties
If a driver refuses a chemical/blood test after being arrested, the officer must get a search warrant for the blood prior to seizure
If a person submits to an evidentiary test and scores .08 or above, or .02 and above for fourth and subsequent offenses, the officer may process the paperwork for an administrative suspension.

Question 169

Question

An intoxicated driver that was arrested for OWI has refused to submit to a chemical/blood test, but later changes his mind. Which one of the following is TRUE?

Answer

After the refusal, the officer MUST honor the refusal and get a search warrant for a blood test
Per the implied consent law, the driver has the right to refuse a chemical test without receiving any driver license administration penalties
The officer has no discretion after a refusal; therefore, the supervisor must take over
It is in the officer’s discretion as to whether a test shall then be given

	Created by Nathan Petersen over 5 years ago

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