109) Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by :
VR and VMCG
V2 and VMCA
VR and VMCA
V2 and VMCG
99) During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal to:
- 1547 m with all engines running
- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
The minimum value of V2 must exceed "air minimum control speed" by:
102) With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?
Screen height cannot be reduced.
The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties.
When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length.
In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.
103) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.
requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.
an increase in airspeed and power is required.
a higher coefficient of drag is required.
104) The first segment of the take-off flight path ends
at completion of gear retraction.
at completion of flap retraction.
at reaching V2.
at 35 ft above the runway.
105) Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take-off?
High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short runway.
Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature.
High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.
Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.
106) Balanced V1 is selected
for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass.
if it is equal to V2.
if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.
for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass.
108) For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range?
Does not change.
Increases only if there is no wind.
96) The speed for best rate of climb is called:
110) Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ?
At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane.
There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.
At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane.
111) ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of
75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
112) For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?
Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available.
The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
113) If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.
the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.
114) Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct?
The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass.
The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity.
The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.
The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.
115) The induced drag of an aeroplane
is independent of the airspeed.
increases with increasing airspeed.
decreases with increasing airspeed.
decreases with increasing gross weight.
116) Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass.
On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.
The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.
117) How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?
V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.
V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.
V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.
V2 has the same value in both cases.
118) Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?
Maximum Take-off Thrust
Maximum Cruise Thrust
Maximum Continuous Thrust
107) Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down- slope...
increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).
reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).