# 7. Performance

Quiz by Jose Antonio Vazquez, updated more than 1 year ago
 Created by Jose Antonio Vazquez about 1 year ago
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### Description

Performances Quiz on 7. Performance, created by Jose Antonio Vazquez on 11/08/2018.

## Resource summary

### Question 1

Question
51) For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be "wet". The "dry runway" landing distance, should not exceed:
• 1540 m.
• 1147 m.
• 1339 m.
• 1771 m.

### Question 2

Question
65) An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio
• decreases / constant / decreases
• increases / increases / constant
• increases / constant / increases
• increases / increases / decreases

### Question 3

Question
66) Which of the following statements is correct?
• Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.
• Induced drag increases with increasing speed.
• Induced drag is independant of the speed.
• Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.

### Question 4

Question
67) A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. Which of the following is the maximum landing distance for a dry runway?
• 1 440 m.
• 1 250 m.
• 1 090 m.
• 1 655 m.

### Question 5

Question
68) How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take- off run ? The thrust
• increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
• varies with mass changes only.
• has no change during take-off and climb.
• decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.

### Question 6

Question
69) Which of the following statements is correct?
• VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.
• VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
• VR should not be higher than V1.
• VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.

### Question 7

Question
70) Field length is balanced when
• one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.
• take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance.
• calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG.
• all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.

### Question 8

Question
72) Which of the following answers is true?
• V1>VR
• V1 < VMCG
• V1<=VR
• V1 > Vlof

### Question 9

Question
166) Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?
• Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
• Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
• Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
• Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100

### Question 10

Question
62) On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
• The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
• The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
• The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.
• The specific range and the optimum altitude increases.

### Question 11

Question
41) The Density Altitude
• is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
• is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
• is equal to the pressure altitude.
• is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.

### Question 12

Question
30) The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude. Using the following corrections: "± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation" "± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature" " - 1 % with wing anti-ice" " - 0,5% with engine anti-ice" The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C; QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is :
• 3,9 %
• 4,3 %
• 4,7 %
• 4,9 %

### Question 13

Question
31) Which one of the following statements concerning drift- down is correct?
• The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.
• The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
• An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating.
• When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.

### Question 14

Question
32) Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
• 3787 kg/h
• 3426 kg/h
• 3259 kg/h
• 3602 kg/h

### Question 15

Question
33) As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb
• VX is always below VY.
• VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude.
• VX is always above VY.
• VY is always above VMO.

### Question 16

Question
34) What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off?
• The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.
• The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.
• The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.
• The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.

### Question 17

Question
35) What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass.)
• The drag decreases.
• The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.
• The drag remains almost constant.
• The drag increases considerably.

### Question 18

Question
36) The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is
• at stalling speed (VS).
• on the "back side" of the drag curve.
• the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.
• the lowest point of the drag curve.

### Question 19

Question
37) The speed VR
• must be higher than VLOF.
• must be equal to or lower than V1.
• is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
• must be higher than V2.

### Question 20

Question
38) At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
• 130 kt
• 115 kt
• 125 kt
• 120 kt

### Question 21

Question
53) When the outside air temperature increases, then
• the field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases.
• the field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
• the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
• the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases.

### Question 22

Question
40) For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided
• by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.
• by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.
• only by using standard turns.
• by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.

### Question 23

Question
74) A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?
• IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
• IAS increases and TAS increases.
• IAS decreases and TAS increases.
• IAS increases and TAS decreases.

### Question 24

Question
42) Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
• High mass.
• Low mass.
• T ailwind.

### Question 25

Question
• increases the descent distance over ground.
• increases the angle of the descent flight path.
• increases the angle of descent.
• increases the rate of descent.

### Question 26

Question
44) The second segment begins
• when landing gear is fully retracted.
• when flap retraction begins.
• when flaps are selected up.
• when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

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