Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

Matthew Coulson
Quiz by Matthew Coulson, updated more than 1 year ago
Matthew Coulson
Created by Matthew Coulson over 2 years ago
58
1

Description

HIV Lectures (2 lectures) given on Monday and Tuesday of Week 2

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
HIV has two main types - which is the one known for the global pandemic starting in the 1980s?
Answer
  • HIV-1
  • HIV-2

Question 2

Question
Which of the subtypes of HIV-1 was responsible for the global pandemic that started in the 1980s?
Answer
  • Subtype M
  • Subtype N
  • Subtype O
  • Subtype P

Question 3

Question
[blank_start]CD4+[blank_end] receptors are the target site for the HIV virus
Answer
  • CD4+

Question 4

Question
HIV-2 is worse than HIV-1 and unfortunately no known treatment or cure is available for it.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 5

Question
CD4+ lymphocytes are [blank_start]Helper T cells[blank_end]
Answer
  • Helper T cells
  • Cytotoxic T cells

Question 6

Question
CD4+ T Helper Cells recognise [blank_start]MHC-2[blank_end] antigen presenting cells
Answer
  • MHC-2
  • MHC-1

Question 7

Question
HIV causes a [blank_start]reduction[blank_end] in CD4+ cells and an [blank_start]increase[blank_end] in CD8+ cells
Answer
  • reduction
  • increase
  • increase
  • reduction

Question 8

Question
Psoriasis is a CD8+ cell mediated condition. Therefore, a person with Psoriasis who contracts HIV will likely experience an exacerbation of their Psoriasis.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 9

Question
The normal CD4+ Cell number is between [blank_start]500[blank_end]-1600 cells/mm3
Answer
  • 500

Question 10

Question
An individual with HIV is considered to be at significant risk of opportunistic infection when their CD4+ cell count falls below [blank_start]200[blank_end] cells/mm3
Answer
  • 200
  • 300
  • 500

Question 11

Question
Between exposure to the virus and its establishment within the body, there is a [blank_start]3[blank_end] day period whereby post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) can be given to completely eradicate the virus and prevent chronic infection.
Answer
  • 3
  • 5
  • 1
  • 7

Question 12

Question
Primary HIV infection typically presents [blank_start]2-4 weeks[blank_end] after exposure to the virus.
Answer
  • 2-4 weeks
  • 1 week
  • 8-12 weeks

Question 13

Question
Which three of the following symptoms are typically found in those suffering from Primary HIV Infection?
Answer
  • Fever
  • Headaches
  • Maculopapular rash
  • Cough
  • Chest pain
  • Blurred vision

Question 14

Question
Which of the following opportunistic infections is most common in HIV patients?
Answer
  • Pneumocystis Pneumonia
  • Tuberculosis
  • Toxoplasma Gondii
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Herpes Simplex infection

Question 15

Question
A HIV positive patient presents with a dry cough and shortness of breath. The clinician decides to run an exercise tolerance test and this shows exercise desaturation. Which opportunistic infection has likely caused these symptoms? [blank_start]Pneumocystis Pneumonia[blank_end]
Answer
  • Pneumocystis Pneumonia

Question 16

Question
Pneumocystis Pneumonia in HIV patients occurs due to which pathogen? Pneumocystis [blank_start]Jiroveci[blank_end]
Answer
  • Jiroveci

Question 17

Question
The treatment for Pneumocystis Pneumonia in HIV patients is high dose [blank_start]Co-Trimoxazole[blank_end]
Answer
  • Co-Trimoxazole
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Co-Amoxiclav

Question 18

Question
Which medication is given in low doses to HIV patients with CD4+ count under 200 in order to act as prophylaxis against opportunistic infections?
Answer
  • Co-Trimoxazole
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Co-Amoxiclav
  • Rifampicin
  • Isoniazid
  • Ethambutol
  • Pyrazinamide

Question 19

Question
Tuberculosis infection is made less probable due to HIV infection.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 20

Question
Cytomegalovirus is a common organism to infect HIV patients when their CD4+ count is very low (<50). How, and in which system, does this infection most typically present?
Answer
  • In the eyes (retinitis, reduced visual acuity, floaters, etc)
  • In the ears (tinnitus, vertigo, etc)
  • In the mouth (loss of taste sensation, pharyngitis, etc)
  • In the central nervous system (paraesthesia, shooting pains, etc)

Question 21

Question
A HIV patient suffering from recurrent headaches and seizures, fever and reduced consciousness is likely to be suffering from which opportunistic infection? See picture for clue. [blank_start]Cerebral Toxoplasmosis[blank_end]
Answer
  • Cerebral Toxoplasmosis

Question 22

Question
Cerebral Toxoplasmosis is caused by the pathogen Toxoplasma [blank_start]Gondii[blank_end] which is typically found in [blank_start]cats[blank_end] and lives latent in the human body (in most cases never causing any problems) unless that person is to become immunosuppressed.
Answer
  • cats
  • dogs
  • goats
  • sheep
  • Gondii
  • Albicans
  • Jiroveci
  • Simian
  • Parovirus
  • Felinae

Question 23

Question
An individual with HIV who rapidly develops confusion, personality change and focal neurology is likely to be suffering from which condition?
Answer
  • Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
  • HIV-associated neurocognitive impairment

Question 24

Question
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is caused by the [blank_start]John Cunningham (JC)[blank_end] virus
Answer
  • John Cunningham (JC)
  • James Caldwell (JC)
  • Jane Coddard (JC)

Question 25

Question
A HIV patient presents with multiple lesions on his arm as is shown in the picture. This type of tumour, which can also occur in the oral mucosa, pulmonary system and GI system, is called ... [blank_start]Kaposi's Sarcoma[blank_end]
Answer
  • Kaposi's Sarcoma

Question 26

Question
Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma is an AIDS-related cancer caused by the [blank_start]epstein barr[blank_end] virus
Answer
  • epstein barr

Question 27

Question
HIV patients are also increasingly susceptible to HPV infection. This predisposes women diagnosed with HIV to a higher risk of [blank_start]cervical[blank_end] cancer.
Answer
  • cervical

Question 28

Question
HIV is also known to cause Anaemia.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 29

Question
What mode of transmission accounts for 94% of all HIV infections in the UK?
Answer
  • Sexual
  • Salival
  • Blood-to-blood contact (infected blood products, etc)
  • Injection drug use
  • Iatrogenic

Question 30

Question
Which type of sex leaves an individual more susceptible to contracting HIV?
Answer
  • Anoreceptive sex
  • Vaginal receptive sex

Question 31

Question
An individual is less likely to contract HIV if they have a concurrent STI
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 32

Question
As of 2015, the approximate total number of people living with HIV in the UK is [blank_start]100,000[blank_end]
Answer
  • 100,000
  • 300,000
  • 50,000

Question 33

Question
There are 3 types of markers for HIV that the labs use to test for the virus: [blank_start]Viral RNA[blank_end]: First marker to indicate positive HIV test [blank_start]Antigen[blank_end]: Second marker to indicate positive HIV test (typically at 4 weeks) [blank_start]Antibody[blank_end]: Third marker to indicate positive HIV test (typically at 12 weeks)
Answer
  • Antibody
  • Antigen
  • Viral RNA

Question 34

Question
Typically, scientists use which antigen as a marker for HIV?
Answer
  • Envelope Protein GP120
  • Capsule Protein P24

Question 35

Question
4th generation HIV tests now exist that test for HIV antigens and antibodies in conjunction, therefore allowing HIV to be diagnosed after around [blank_start]4[blank_end] weeks
Answer
  • 4
  • 8
  • 10

Question 36

Question
Which three enzymes are typically targeted in the treatment of HIV? (name in alphabetical order) [blank_start]Integrase[blank_end] [blank_start]Protease[blank_end] [blank_start]Reverse Transcriptase[blank_end]
Answer
  • Integrase
  • Protease
  • Reverse Transcriptase

Question 37

Question
Life cycle of HIV Virus: Virus attaches to [blank_start]CD4+[blank_end] receptor on host cell. This receptor brings the virus in and the virus then unloads its [blank_start]RNA[blank_end] into the host cell. The RNA then copies itself using the enzyme called [blank_start]reverse transcriptase[blank_end] to create the virus's own double stranded DNA. The viral DNA is then integrated into the host DNA using an enzyme called [blank_start]integrase[blank_end]. After viral proteins are made using the integrated viral DNA, an enzyme called [blank_start]protease[blank_end] then cleaves these proteins into 'buds' which are then released to infect other host cells.
Answer
  • CD4+
  • RNA
  • reverse transcriptase
  • integrase
  • protease

Question 38

Question
NRTIs are drugs used to combat the action of [blank_start]reverse transcriptase[blank_end] in the life cycle of the HIV virus.
Answer
  • reverse transcriptase
  • integrase
  • protease

Question 39

Question
Highly active antiretroviral therapy is the mainstay of treatment for HIV. This consists of a combination of [blank_start]3[blank_end] drugs from at least [blank_start]2[blank_end] different drug classes to which the HIV virus is susceptible.
Answer
  • 3
  • 2

Question 40

Question
Tenofovir is a commonly utilised [blank_start]NRTI[blank_end]
Answer
  • NRTI
  • Protease Inhibitor
  • Integrase Inhibitor

Question 41

Question
Compliance is unimportant in the case of HIV treatment as long as the medications are taken at least 75% of the time.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 42

Question
Diarrhoea is a very common side effect of HIV medications, but especially common in those who take [blank_start]protease inhibitors[blank_end]
Answer
  • protease inhibitors
  • integrase inhibitors
  • NRTIs

Question 43

Question
[blank_start]Atazanavir[blank_end] is a protease inhibitor which is safe for use in pregnancy
Answer
  • Atazanavir
  • Tenofovir
  • Abacavir
  • Zidovudine
  • Nevirapine

Question 44

Question
If a woman with HIV refuses to tell her long term male partner of her diagnosis and plans to keep on having unprotected sex with him, are there any laws that prevent this from occurring?
Answer
  • Yes
  • No

Question 45

Question
If a man with HIV refuses to tell his long term partner (who you do not know) of his diagnosis and plans to keep on having unprotected sex with them, you as a medical professional are obliged to inform the partner themselves to prevent them from coming to harm.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 46

Question
What is the biggest preventer of onwards transmission of HIV?
Answer
  • Use of Condoms
  • Treatment of the HIV itself
  • Sero-adaptive sexual behaviours
  • Partner Disclosure
  • Pre-exposure prophylaxis

Question 47

Question
If a patient who is HIV positive has an undetectable viral load, they are able to have unprotected sex with their partner with no risk of transmission.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 48

Question
A man informs his female partner of 15 years that he has been diagnosed with HIV. after testing, the woman is HIV negative. Despite this, she wishes to start HIV treatment anyway to protect herself from the condition. Is this possible?
Answer
  • Yes
  • No

Question 49

Question
HIV Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) can be given to partners of HIV positive patients in order to protect them from contracting the condition. If they forget to take this after they are worried about infection, emergency post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) can be taken up to 3 days following sex in order to prevent chronic infection.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 50

Question
When their viral load is undetectable, HIV patients are able to have condomless sex in order to attempt to conceive a baby with no risk of transmission.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 51

Question
Irrelevant of whether a mother's viral load is undetectable or not, baby's with HIV positive mothers must always be delivered via C-section.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 52

Question
Following the birth of a child to a HIV positive mother, the neonate is given Post-Exposure Prophylactic (PEP) treatment for [blank_start]4 weeks[blank_end] following their birth.
Answer
  • 4 weeks
  • 8 weeks
  • 12 weeks

Question 53

Question
In terms of the PEP treatment of a neonate following birth to a HIV positive mother, if at the time of the birth the mother's viral load is 0 the baby is only given [blank_start]1 antiretroviral drug[blank_end] however if the mother has a detectable viral load they are given [blank_start]2 antiretroviral drugs[blank_end]
Answer
  • 1 antiretroviral drug
  • 2 antiretroviral drugs
  • 3 antiretroviral drugs
  • 2 antiretroviral drugs
  • 1 antiretroviral drug
  • 3 antiretroviral drugs
  • 4 antiretroviral drugs

Question 54

Question
In order to qualify for PrEP in Scotland: The individual must be over the age of [blank_start]16[blank_end], HIV [blank_start]negative[blank_end] and be able to commit to [blank_start]3[blank_end] monthly follow ups. They must also be either ... - A partner to someone who is HIV positive - A gay man or transwoman who has had >[blank_start]2[blank_end] sexual encounters in the last year and is likely to have another within 3 months or has had a confirmed bacterial [blank_start]rectal[blank_end] STI in the past year
Answer
  • 16
  • 18
  • 14
  • 3
  • 6
  • 12
  • negative
  • positive
  • 2
  • 5
  • 4
  • rectal
  • oral
Show full summary Hide full summary

Similar

Epidemiology
Danielle Richardson
Female Menstrual Cycle (Grade 10)
Leviticus777
Clostridium Difficile
Kirsty Jayne Buckley
History of Medicine: Ancient Ideas
James McConnell
Epithelial tissue
Morgan Morgan
4. The Skeletal System - bones of the skull
t.whittingham
Neuro anatomy
James Murdoch
The Endocrine System
DrABC
Medical Terminology
khachoe_pema
Diabetes - pathophysiology
Morgan Morgan